Current with legislation from the 2024 Regular Session of the Washington Legislature. Please check to make sure there have been no changes since this time. You will find these and additional statutes online at the Washington State Legislature website.
Statutes: Washington
Statutes: Washington
Title 4. Civil Procedure
Chapter 4.28. Commencement of Actions
4.28.185. Personal service out-of-state-Acts submitting person to jurisdiction of courts-Saving
(1) Any person, whether or not a citizen or resident of this state, who in person or through an agent does any of the acts in this section enumerated, thereby submits said person, and, if an individual, his or her personal representative, to the jurisdiction of the courts of this state as to any cause of action arising from the doing of any of said acts:
(a) The transaction of any business within this state;
(b) The commission of a tortious act within this state;
(c) The ownership, use, or possession of any property whether real or personal situated in this state;
(d) Contracting to insure any person, property, or risk located within this state at the time of contracting;
(e) The act of sexual intercourse within this state with respect to which a child may have been conceived;
(f) Living in a marital relationship within this state notwithstanding subsequent departure from this state, as to all proceedings authorized by chapter 26.09 RCW, so long as the petitioning party has continued to reside in this state or has continued to be a member of the armed forces stationed in this state.
(2) Service of process upon any person who is subject to the jurisdiction of the courts of this state, as provided in this section, may be made by personally serving the defendant outside this state, as provided in RCW 4.28. 180, with the same force and effect as though personally served within this state.
(3) Only causes of action arising from acts enumerated herein may be asserted against a defendant in an action in which jurisdiction over him or her is based upon this section.
(4) Personal service outside the state shall be valid only when an affidavit is made and filed to the effect that service cannot be made within the state.
(5) In the event the defendant is personally served outside the state on causes of action enumerated in this section, and prevails in the action, there may be taxed and allowed to the defendant as part of the costs of defending the action a reasonable amount to be fixed by the court as attorneys’ fees.
(6) Nothing herein contained limits or affects the right to serve any process in any other manner now or hereafter provided by law.
Title 7. Special Proceedings and Actions
Chapter 7.40. Injunctions
7.40.020. Grounds for issuance
When it appears by the complaint that the plaintiff is entitled to the relief demanded and the relief, or any part thereof, consists in restraining the commission or continuance of some act, the commission or continuance of which during the litigation would produce great injury to the plaintiff; or when during the litigation, it appears that the defendant is doing, or threatened, or is about to do, or is procuring, or is suffering some act to be done in violation of the plaintiff’s rights respecting the subject of the action tending to render the judgment ineffectual; or where such relief, or any part thereof, consists in restraining proceedings upon any final order or judgment, an injunction may be granted to restrain such act or proceedings until the further order of the court, which may afterwards be dissolved or modified upon motion. And where it appears in the complaint at the commencement of the action, or during the pendency thereof, by affidavit, that the defendant threatens, or is about to remove or dispose of his or her property with intent to defraud his or her creditors, a temporary injunction may be granted to restrain the removal or disposition of his or her property.
7.40.050. Notice--Restraining orders in emergencies
No injunction shall be granted until it shall appear to the court or judge granting it, that some one or more of the opposite party concerned, has had reasonable notice of the time and place of making application, except that in cases of emergency to be shown in the complaint, the court may grant a restraining order until notice can be given and hearing had thereon.
Chapter 7.105. Civil Protection Orders
7.105.0001. Domestic violence--Firearms--Findings
(1) The legislature recognizes the inherent volatility and danger associated with domestic violence, particularly when the court has made a finding that an ex parte order to surrender and prohibit weapons is necessary. The risk of domestic violence homicide is most acute when a victim is ending the relationship and throughout legal proceedings. The presence of a firearm in a domestic violence situation increases the risk of homicide by 11 times. The legislature acknowledges the potential for judicial or administrative error in hearings on full protection orders and the significant consequences that can result from such errors. In recognition of the potential for error, the legislature has previously established in RCW 2.24.050 that decisions of court commissioners are subject to revision and the courts have created processes for reconsideration of rulings. Therefore, in any proceeding in which the court enters a temporary protection order that includes a temporary order to surrender and prohibit weapons, and after the hearing the court denies the petition for a full protection order, the order to surrender and prohibit weapons must remain in effect until the period for a petitioner to file a motion for reconsideration or revision has passed. If a motion for reconsideration or revision is filed, the order to surrender and prohibit weapons must remain in effect until the motion for reconsideration or revision is resolved.
(2) At the hearing in which the court denies the petition for a full protection order, if the petitioner is present, the court must notify the petitioner verbally of the procedures and timelines for filing a motion for reconsideration or a motion for revision. The court must provide the petitioner with written information explaining the procedures and timelines for filing a motion for reconsideration or a motion for revision. The information must also include contact information for civil legal aid organizations that may assist the petitioner with a motion for reconsideration or a motion for revision.
(3) Subsections (1) and (2) of this section do not apply if allowing the order to surrender and prohibit weapons to remain in effect would be manifestly unjust including, but not limited to, situations where the court finds the temporary protection order was entirely without merit, the petitioner was engaged in abusive use of litigation, or the petitioner was exerting coercive control, as defined in RCW 7.105.010, over the respondent.
7.105.010. Definitions
The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
(1) “Abandonment” means action or inaction by a person or entity with a duty of care for a vulnerable adult that leaves the vulnerable adult without the means or ability to obtain necessary food, clothing, shelter, or health care.
(2) “Abuse,” for the purposes of a vulnerable adult protection order, means intentional, willful, or reckless action or inaction that inflicts injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or punishment on a vulnerable adult. In instances of abuse of a vulnerable adult who is unable to express or demonstrate physical harm, pain, or mental anguish, the abuse is presumed to cause physical harm, pain, or mental anguish. “Abuse” includes sexual abuse, mental abuse, physical abuse, personal exploitation, and improper use of restraint against a vulnerable adult, which have the following meanings:
(a) “Improper use of restraint” means the inappropriate use of chemical, physical, or mechanical restraints for convenience or discipline, or in a manner that: (i) Is inconsistent with federal or state licensing or certification requirements for facilities, hospitals, or programs authorized under chapter 71A.12 RCW; (ii) is not medically authorized; or (iii) otherwise constitutes abuse under this section.
(b) “Mental abuse” means an intentional, willful, or reckless verbal or nonverbal action that threatens, humiliates, harasses, coerces, intimidates, isolates, unreasonably confines, or punishes a vulnerable adult. “Mental abuse” may include ridiculing, yelling, swearing, or withholding or tampering with prescribed medications or their dosage.
(c) “Personal exploitation” means an act of forcing, compelling, or exerting undue influence over a vulnerable adult causing the vulnerable adult to act in a way that is inconsistent with relevant past behavior, or causing the vulnerable adult to perform services for the benefit of another.
(d) “Physical abuse” means the intentional, willful, or reckless action of inflicting bodily injury or physical mistreatment. “Physical abuse” includes, but is not limited to, striking with or without an object, slapping, pinching, strangulation, suffocation, kicking, shoving, or prodding.
(e) “Sexual abuse” means any form of nonconsensual sexual conduct including, but not limited to, unwanted or inappropriate touching, rape, molestation, indecent liberties, sexual coercion, sexually explicit photographing or recording, voyeurism, indecent exposure, and sexual harassment. “Sexual abuse” also includes any sexual conduct between a staff person, who is not also a resident or client, of a facility or a staff person of a program authorized under chapter 71A.12 RCW, and a vulnerable adult living in that facility or receiving service from a program authorized under chapter 71A.12 RCW, whether or not the sexual conduct is consensual.
(3) “Chemical restraint” means the administration of any drug to manage a vulnerable adult’s behavior in a way that reduces the safety risk to the vulnerable adult or others, has the temporary effect of restricting the vulnerable adult’s freedom of movement, and is not standard treatment for the vulnerable adult’s medical or psychiatric condition.
(4)(a) “Coercive control” means a pattern of behavior that is used to cause another to suffer physical, emotional, or psychological harm, and in purpose or effect unreasonably interferes with a person’s free will and personal liberty. In determining whether the interference is unreasonable, the court shall consider the context and impact of the pattern of behavior from the perspective of a similarly situated person. Examples of coercive control include, but are not limited to, engaging in any of the following:
(i) Intimidation or controlling or compelling conduct by:
(A) Damaging, destroying, or threatening to damage or destroy, or forcing the other party to relinquish, goods, property, or items of special value;
(B) Using technology to threaten, humiliate, harass, stalk, intimidate, exert undue influence over, or abuse the other party, including by engaging in cyberstalking, monitoring, surveillance, impersonation, manipulation of electronic media, or distribution of or threats to distribute actual or fabricated intimate images;
(C) Carrying, exhibiting, displaying, drawing, or threatening to use, any firearm or any other weapon apparently capable of producing bodily harm, in a manner, under circumstances, and at a time and place that either manifests an intent to intimidate the other party or that warrants alarm by the other party for their safety or the safety of other persons;
(D) Driving recklessly with the other party or minor children in the vehicle;
(E) Communicating, directly or indirectly, the intent to:
(I) Harm the other party’s children, family members, friends, or pets, including by use of physical forms of violence;
(II) Harm the other party’s career;
(III) Attempt suicide or other acts of self-harm; or
(IV) Contact local or federal agencies based on actual or suspected immigration status;
(F) Exerting control over the other party’s identity documents;
(G) Making, or threatening to make, private information public, including the other party’s sexual orientation or gender identity, medical or behavioral health information, or other confidential information that jeopardizes safety; or
(H) Engaging in sexual or reproductive coercion;
(ii) Causing dependence, confinement, or isolation of the other party from friends, relatives, or other sources of support, including schooling and employment, or subjecting the other party to physical confinement or restraint;
(iii) Depriving the other party of basic necessities or committing other forms of financial exploitation;
(iv) Controlling, exerting undue influence over, interfering with, regulating, or monitoring the other party’s movements, communications, daily behavior, finances, economic resources, or employment, including but not limited to interference with or attempting to limit access to services for children of the other party, such as health care, medication, child care, or school-based extracurricular activities;
(v) Engaging in vexatious litigation or abusive litigation as defined in RCW 26.51.020 against the other party to harass, coerce, or control the other party, to diminish or exhaust the other party’s financial resources, or to compromise the other party’s employment or housing; or
(vi) Engaging in psychological aggression, including inflicting fear, humiliating, degrading, or punishing the other party.
(b) “Coercive control” does not include protective actions taken by a party in good faith for the legitimate and lawful purpose of protecting themselves or children from the risk of harm posed by the other party.
(5) “Consent” in the context of sexual acts means that at the time of sexual contact, there are actual words or conduct indicating freely given agreement to that sexual contact. Consent must be ongoing and may be revoked at any time. Conduct short of voluntary agreement does not constitute consent as a matter of law. Consent cannot be freely given when a person does not have capacity due to disability, intoxication, or age. Consent cannot be freely given when the other party has authority or control over the care or custody of a person incarcerated or detained.
(6)(a) “Course of conduct” means a pattern of conduct composed of a series of acts over a period of time, however short, evidencing a continuity of purpose. “Course of conduct” includes any form of communication, contact, or conduct, including the sending of an electronic communication, but does not include constitutionally protected free speech. Constitutionally protected activity is not included within the meaning of “course of conduct.”
(b) In determining whether the course of conduct serves any legitimate or lawful purpose, a court should consider whether:
(i) Any current contact between the parties was initiated by the respondent only or was initiated by both parties;
(ii) The respondent has been given clear notice that all further contact with the petitioner is unwanted;
(iii) The respondent’s course of conduct appears designed to alarm, annoy, or harass the petitioner;
(iv) The respondent is acting pursuant to any statutory authority including, but not limited to, acts which are reasonably necessary to:
(A) Protect property or liberty interests;
(B) Enforce the law; or
(C) Meet specific statutory duties or requirements;
(v) The respondent’s course of conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with the petitioner’s privacy or the purpose or effect of creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive living environment for the petitioner; or
(vi) Contact by the respondent with the petitioner or the petitioner’s family has been limited in any manner by any previous court order.
(7) “Court clerk” means court administrators in courts of limited jurisdiction and elected court clerks.
(8) “Dating relationship” means a social relationship of a romantic nature. Factors that the court may consider in making this determination include: (a) The length of time the relationship has existed; (b) the nature of the relationship; and (c) the frequency of interaction between the parties.
(9) “Domestic violence” means:
(a) Physical harm, bodily injury, assault, or the infliction of fear of physical harm, bodily injury, or assault; nonconsensual sexual conduct or nonconsensual sexual penetration; coercive control; unlawful harassment; or stalking of one intimate partner by another intimate partner; or
(b) Physical harm, bodily injury, assault, or the infliction of fear of physical harm, bodily injury, or assault; nonconsensual sexual conduct or nonconsensual sexual penetration; coercive control; unlawful harassment; or stalking of one family or household member by another family or household member.
(10) “Electronic monitoring” has the same meaning as in RCW 9.94A.030.
(11) “Essential personal effects” means those items necessary for a person’s immediate health, welfare, and livelihood. “Essential personal effects” includes, but is not limited to, clothing, cribs, bedding, medications, personal hygiene items, cellular phones and other electronic devices, and documents, including immigration, health care, financial, travel, and identity documents.
(12) “Facility” means a residence licensed or required to be licensed under chapter 18.20 RCW, assisted living facilities; chapter 18.51 RCW, nursing homes; chapter 70.128 RCW, adult family homes; chapter 72.36 RCW, soldiers’ homes; chapter 71A.20 RCW, residential habilitation centers; or any other facility licensed or certified by the department of social and health services.
(13) “Family or household members” means: (a) Persons related by blood, marriage, domestic partnership, or adoption; (b) persons who currently or formerly resided together; (c) persons who have a biological or legal parent-child relationship, including stepparents and stepchildren and grandparents and grandchildren, or a parent’s intimate partner and children; and (d) a person who is acting or has acted as a legal guardian.
(14) “Financial exploitation” means the illegal or improper use of, control over, or withholding of, the property, income, resources, or trust funds of the vulnerable adult by any person or entity for any person’s or entity’s profit or advantage other than for the vulnerable adult’s profit or advantage. “Financial exploitation” includes, but is not limited to:
(a) The use of deception, intimidation, or undue influence by a person or entity in a position of trust and confidence with a vulnerable adult to obtain or use the property, income, resources, government benefits, health insurance benefits, or trust funds of the vulnerable adult for the benefit of a person or entity other than the vulnerable adult;
(b) The breach of a fiduciary duty, including, but not limited to, the misuse of a power of attorney, trust, or a guardianship or conservatorship appointment, that results in the unauthorized appropriation, sale, or transfer of the property, income, resources, or trust funds of the vulnerable adult for the benefit of a person or entity other than the vulnerable adult; or
(c) Obtaining or using a vulnerable adult’s property, income, resources, or trust funds without lawful authority, by a person or entity who knows or clearly should know that the vulnerable adult lacks the capacity to consent to the release or use of the vulnerable adult’s property, income, resources, or trust funds.
(15) “Firearm” means a weapon or device from which a projectile or projectiles may be fired by an explosive such as gunpowder. “Firearm” does not include a flare gun or other pyrotechnic visual distress signaling device, or a powder-actuated tool or other device designed solely to be used for construction purposes. “Firearm” also includes parts that can be assembled to make a firearm.
(16) “Full hearing” means a hearing where the court determines whether to issue a full protection order.
(17) “Full protection order” means a protection order that is issued by the court after notice to the respondent and where the parties had the opportunity for a full hearing by the court. “Full protection order” includes a protection order entered by the court by agreement of the parties to resolve the petition for a protection order without a full hearing.
(18) “Hospital” means a facility licensed under chapter 70.41 or 71.12 RCW or a state hospital defined in chapter 72.23 RCW and any employee, agent, officer, director, or independent contractor thereof.
(19) “Interested person” means a person who demonstrates to the court’s satisfaction that the person is interested in the welfare of a vulnerable adult, that the person has a good faith belief that the court’s intervention is necessary, and that the vulnerable adult is unable, due to incapacity, undue influence, or duress at the time the petition is filed, to protect his or her own interests.
(20) “Intimate partner” means: (a) Spouses or domestic partners; (b) former spouses or former domestic partners; (c) persons who have a child in common regardless of whether they have been married or have lived together at any time, unless the child is conceived through sexual assault; or (d) persons who have or have had a dating relationship where both persons are at least 13 years of age or older.
(21)(a) “Isolate” or “isolation” means to restrict a person’s ability to communicate, visit, interact, or otherwise associate with persons of his or her choosing. Isolation may be evidenced by acts including, but not limited to:
(i) Acts that prevent a person from sending, making, or receiving his or her personal mail, electronic communications, or telephone calls; or
(ii) Acts that prevent or obstruct a person from meeting with others, such as telling a prospective visitor or caller that the person is not present or does not wish contact, where the statement is contrary to the express wishes of the person.
(b) The term “isolate” or “isolation” may not be construed in a manner that prevents a guardian or limited guardian from performing his or her fiduciary obligations under *chapter 11.92 RCW or prevents a hospital or facility from providing treatment consistent with the standard of care for delivery of health services.
(22) “Judicial day” means days of the week other than Saturdays, Sundays, or legal holidays.
(23) “Mechanical restraint” means any device attached or adjacent to a vulnerable adult’s body that the vulnerable adult cannot easily remove that restricts freedom of movement or normal access to the vulnerable adult’s body. “Mechanical restraint” does not include the use of devices, materials, or equipment that are (a) medically authorized, as required, and (b) used in a manner that is consistent with federal or state licensing or certification requirements for facilities, hospitals, or programs authorized under chapter 71A.12 RCW.
(24) “Minor” means a person who is under 18 years of age.
(25) “Neglect” means: (a) A pattern of conduct or inaction by a person or entity with a duty of care that fails to provide the goods and services that maintain the physical or mental health of a vulnerable adult, or that fails to avoid or prevent physical or mental harm or pain to a vulnerable adult; or (b) an act or omission by a person or entity with a duty of care that demonstrates a serious disregard of consequences of such a magnitude as to constitute a clear and present danger to the vulnerable adult’s health, welfare, or safety including, but not limited to, conduct prohibited under RCW 9A.42.100.
(26) “Nonconsensual” means a lack of freely given consent.
(27) “Nonphysical contact” includes, but is not limited to, written notes, mail, telephone calls, email, text messages, contact through social media applications, contact through other technologies, or contact through third parties.
(28) “Petitioner” means any named petitioner or any other person identified in the petition on whose behalf the petition is brought.
(29) “Physical restraint” means the application of physical force without the use of any device, for the purpose of restraining the free movement of a vulnerable adult’s body. “Physical restraint” does not include (a) briefly holding, without undue force, a vulnerable adult in order to calm or comfort him or her, or (b) holding a vulnerable adult’s hand to safely escort him or her from one area to another.
(30) “Possession” means having an item in one’s custody or control. Possession may be either actual or constructive. Actual possession occurs when the item is in the actual physical custody of the person charged with possession. Constructive possession occurs when there is no actual physical possession, but there is dominion and control over the item.
(31) “Respondent” means the person who is identified as the respondent in a petition filed under this chapter.
(32) “Sexual conduct” means any of the following:
(a) Any intentional or knowing touching or fondling of the genitals, anus, or breasts, directly or indirectly, including through clothing;
(b) Any intentional or knowing display of the genitals, anus, or breasts for the purposes of arousal or sexual gratification of the respondent;
(c) Any intentional or knowing touching or fondling of the genitals, anus, or breasts, directly or indirectly, including through clothing, that the petitioner is forced to perform by another person or the respondent;
(d) Any forced display of the petitioner’s genitals, anus, or breasts for the purposes of arousal or sexual gratification of the respondent or others;
(e) Any intentional or knowing touching of the clothed or unclothed body of a child under the age of 16, if done for the purpose of sexual gratification or arousal of the respondent or others; or
(f) Any coerced or forced touching or fondling by a child under the age of 16, directly or indirectly, including through clothing, of the genitals, anus, or breasts of the respondent or others.
(33) “Sexual penetration” means any contact, however slight, between the sex organ or anus of one person by an object, the sex organ, mouth, or anus of another person, or any intrusion, however slight, of any part of the body of one person or of any animal or object into the sex organ or anus of another person including, but not limited to, cunnilingus, fellatio, or anal penetration. Evidence of emission of semen is not required to prove sexual penetration.
(34) “Stalking” means any of the following:
(a) Any act of stalking as defined under RCW 9A.46.110;
(b) Any act of cyber harassment as defined under RCW 9A.90.120; or
(c) Any course of conduct involving repeated or continuing contacts, attempts to contact, monitoring, tracking, surveillance, keeping under observation, disrupting activities in a harassing manner, or following of another person that:
(i) Would cause a reasonable person to feel intimidated, frightened, under duress, significantly disrupted, or threatened and that actually causes such a feeling;
(ii) Serves no lawful purpose; and
(iii) The respondent knows, or reasonably should know, threatens, frightens, or intimidates the person, even if the respondent did not intend to intimidate, frighten, or threaten the person.
(35) “Temporary protection order” means a protection order that is issued before the court has decided whether to issue a full protection order. “Temporary protection order” includes ex parte temporary protection orders, as well as temporary protection orders that are reissued by the court pending the completion of a full hearing to decide whether to issue a full protection order. An “ex parte temporary protection order” means a temporary protection order that is issued without prior notice to the respondent.
(36) “Unlawful harassment” means:
(a) A knowing and willful course of conduct directed at a specific person that seriously alarms, annoys, harasses, or is detrimental to such person, and that serves no legitimate or lawful purpose. The course of conduct must be such as would cause a reasonable person to suffer substantial emotional distress, and must actually cause substantial emotional distress to the petitioner; or
(b) A single act of violence or threat of violence directed at a specific person that seriously alarms, annoys, harasses, or is detrimental to such person, and that serves no legitimate or lawful purpose, which would cause a reasonable person to suffer substantial emotional distress, and must actually cause substantial emotional distress to the petitioner. A single threat of violence must include: (i) A malicious and intentional threat as described in RCW 9A.36.080(1)(c); or (ii) the presence of a firearm or other weapon.
(37) “Vulnerable adult” includes a person:
(a) Sixty years of age or older who has the functional, mental, or physical inability to care for himself or herself; or
(b) Subject to a guardianship under RCW 11.130.265 or adult subject to conservatorship under RCW 11.130.360; or
(c) Who has a developmental disability as defined under RCW 71A.10.020; or
(d) Admitted to any facility; or
(e) Receiving services from home health, hospice, or home care agencies licensed or required to be licensed under chapter 70.127 RCW; or
(f) Receiving services from a person under contract with the department of social and health services to provide services in the home under chapter 74.09 or 74.39A RCW; or
(g) Who self-directs his or her own care and receives services from a personal aide under chapter 74.39 RCW.
7.105.050. Jurisdiction--Domestic violence protection orders, sexual assault protection orders, stalking protection orders, and antiharassment protection orders
(1) The superior and district courts have jurisdiction over domestic violence protection order proceedings, sexual assault protection order proceedings, stalking protection order proceedings, and antiharassment protection order proceedings under this chapter, except that such proceedings must be transferred from district court to superior court when:
(a) A superior court has exercised or is exercising jurisdiction over a proceeding involving the parties;
(b) The action would have the effect of interfering with a respondent’s care, control, or custody of the respondent’s minor child;
(c) The action would affect the use or enjoyment of real property for which the respondent has a cognizable claim or would exclude a party from a shared dwelling;
(d) The petitioner, victim, or respondent to the petition is under 18 years of age; or
(e) The district court is unable to verify whether there are potentially conflicting or related orders involving the parties as required by RCW 7.105.105 or 7.105.555.
(2)(a) When the jurisdiction of a district court is limited to the issuance and enforcement of a temporary protection order, the district court shall set the full hearing in superior court and transfer the case, indicating in the transfer order the circumstances and findings supporting transfer to the superior court.
(b) If the notice and order are not served on the respondent in time for the full hearing, the issuing court shall have concurrent jurisdiction with the superior court to extend the temporary protection order. The superior court to which the case is being transferred shall determine whether to grant any request for a continuance.
(3) Transfer procedures, court calendars, and judicial officer assignment must further the goals of this chapter to: Minimize delay; make the system less complex; provide sufficient victim support, consistency, safety, timeliness, and procedural fairness; enable comprehensive use of electronic filing, case tracking, and records management systems; provide for judicial officers with expertise and training in protection orders and trauma-informed practices and continuity of judicial officers at each hearing so the judicial officer will have greater familiarity with the parties, history, and allegations; and help ensure that there is compliance with timely and comprehensive firearms relinquishment to reduce risk of harm. Courts shall make publicly available in print and online information about their transfer procedures, court calendars, and judicial officer assignment.
7.105.065. Jurisdiction--Vulnerable adult protection orders
The superior courts have jurisdiction over vulnerable adult protection order proceedings under this chapter.
7.105.070. Jurisdiction--Extreme risk protection orders
The superior courts have jurisdiction over extreme risk protection order proceedings under this chapter. The juvenile court may hear an extreme risk protection order proceeding under this chapter if the respondent is under the age of 18 years. Additionally, district courts have limited jurisdiction over the issuance and enforcement of temporary extreme risk protection orders issued under RCW 7.105.330. The district court shall set the full hearing in superior court and transfer the case. If the notice and order are not served on the respondent in time for the full hearing, the issuing court has concurrent jurisdiction with the superior court to extend the temporary extreme risk protection order. The superior court to which the case is being transferred shall determine whether to grant any request for a continuance.
7.105.075. Venue
An action for a protection order should be filed in the county where the petitioner resides. The petitioner may also file in:
(1) The county where an act giving rise to the petition for a protection order occurred;
(2) The county where a child to be protected by the order primarily resides;
(3) The county where the petitioner resided prior to relocating if relocation was due to the respondent’s conduct; or
(4) The court nearest to the petitioner’s residence or former residence under subsection (3) of this section.
7.105.080. Personal jurisdiction over nonresidents
(1) In a proceeding in which a petition for a protection order under this chapter is sought, a court of this state may exercise personal jurisdiction over a nonresident individual if:
(a) The individual is personally served with a petition within this state;
(b) The individual submits to the jurisdiction of this state by consent, entering a general appearance, or filing a responsive document having the effect of waiving any objection to consent to personal jurisdiction;
(c) The act or acts of the individual or the individual’s agent giving rise to the petition or enforcement of a protection order occurred within this state;
(d)(i) The act or acts of the individual or the individual’s agent giving rise to the petition or enforcement of a protection order occurred outside this state and are part of an ongoing pattern that has an adverse effect on the petitioner or a member of the petitioner’s family or household and the petitioner resides in this state; or
(ii) As a result of the acts giving rise to the petition or enforcement of a protection order, the petitioner or a member of the petitioner’s family or household has sought safety or protection in this state and currently resides in this state; or
(e) There is any other basis consistent with RCW 4.28.185 or with the Constitutions of this state and the United States.
(2) For jurisdiction to be exercised under subsection (1)(d) of this section, the individual must have communicated with the petitioner or a member of the petitioner’s family, directly or indirectly, or made known a threat to the safety of the petitioner or member of the petitioner’s family, while the petitioner or member of the petitioner’s family resides in this state.
(3) For the purposes of this section:
(a) “Communicated” or “made known” includes the following means: In person, through publication, by mail, telephonically, through an electronic communication site or medium, by text, or through other social media. Communication on any electronic medium that is generally available to any individual residing in the state is sufficient to exercise jurisdiction under subsection (1)(d) of this section.
(b) An act or acts that “occurred within this state” include an oral or written statement made or published by a person outside of this state to any person in this state by means included in (a) of this subsection, or by means of interstate commerce or foreign commerce.
7.105.085. Out-of-state child custody jurisdictional issues
Jurisdictional issues regarding out-of-state proceedings involving the custody or residential placement of any child of the parties are governed by the uniform child custody jurisdiction and enforcement act, chapter 26.27 RCW.
7.105.100. Filing--Types of petitions
(1) There exists an action known as a petition for a protection order. The following types of petitions for a protection order may be filed:
(a) A petition for a domestic violence protection order, which must allege the existence of domestic violence committed against the petitioner or petitioners by an intimate partner or a family or household member. The petitioner may petition for relief on behalf of himself or herself and on behalf of family or household members who are minors or vulnerable adults. A petition for a domestic violence protection order must specify whether the petitioner and the respondent are intimate partners or family or household members. A petitioner who has been sexually assaulted or stalked by an intimate partner or a family or household member should, but is not required to, seek a domestic violence protection order, rather than a sexual assault protection order or a stalking protection order.
(b) A petition for a sexual assault protection order, which must allege the existence of nonconsensual sexual conduct or nonconsensual sexual penetration that was committed against the petitioner by the respondent. A petitioner who has been sexually assaulted by an intimate partner or a family or household member should, but is not required to, seek a domestic violence protection order, rather than a sexual assault protection order. A single incident of nonconsensual sexual conduct or nonconsensual sexual penetration is sufficient grounds for a petition for a sexual assault protection order. The petitioner may petition for a sexual assault protection order on behalf of:
(i) Himself or herself;
(ii) A minor child, where the petitioner is the parent, legal guardian, or custodian;
(iii) A vulnerable adult, where the petitioner is an interested person; or
(iv) Any other adult for whom the petitioner demonstrates to the court’s satisfaction that the petitioner is interested in the adult’s well-being, the court’s intervention is necessary, and the adult cannot file the petition because of age, disability, health, or inaccessibility.
(c) A petition for a stalking protection order, which must allege the existence of stalking committed against the petitioner or petitioners by the respondent. A petitioner who has been stalked by an intimate partner or a family or household member should, but is not required to, seek a domestic violence protection order, rather than a stalking protection order. The petitioner may petition for a stalking protection order on behalf of:
(i) Himself or herself;
(ii) A minor child, where the petitioner is the parent, legal guardian, or custodian;
(iii) A vulnerable adult, where the petitioner is an interested person; or
(iv) Any other adult for whom the petitioner demonstrates to the court’s satisfaction that the petitioner is interested in the adult’s well-being, the court’s intervention is necessary, and the adult cannot file the petition because of age, disability, health, or inaccessibility.
(d) A petition for a vulnerable adult protection order, which must allege that the petitioner, or person on whose behalf the petition is brought, is a vulnerable adult and that the petitioner, or person on whose behalf the petition is brought, has been abandoned, abused, financially exploited, or neglected, or is threatened with abandonment, abuse, financial exploitation, or neglect, by the respondent.
(e) A petition for an extreme risk protection order, which must allege that the respondent poses a significant danger of causing personal injury to self or others by having in the respondent’s custody or control, purchasing, possessing, accessing, receiving, or attempting to purchase or receive, a firearm. The petition must also identify information the petitioner is able to provide about the firearms, such as the number, types, and locations of any firearms the petitioner believes to be in the respondent’s current ownership, possession, custody, access, or control. A petition for an extreme risk protection order may be filed by (i) an intimate partner or a family or household member of the respondent; or (ii) a law enforcement agency.
(f) A petition for an antiharassment protection order, which must allege the existence of unlawful harassment committed against the petitioner or petitioners by the respondent. If a petitioner is seeking relief based on domestic violence, nonconsensual sexual conduct, nonconsensual sexual penetration, or stalking, the petitioner may, but is not required to, seek a domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking protection order, rather than an antiharassment order. The petitioner may petition for an antiharassment protection order on behalf of:
(i) Himself or herself;
(ii) A minor child, where the petitioner is the parent, legal guardian, or custodian;
(iii) A vulnerable adult, where the petitioner is an interested person; or
(iv) Any other adult for whom the petitioner demonstrates to the court’s satisfaction that the petitioner is interested in the adult’s well-being, the court’s intervention is necessary, and the adult cannot file the petition because of age, disability, health, or inaccessibility.
(2) With the exception of vulnerable adult protection orders, a person under 18 years of age who is 15 years of age or older may seek relief under this chapter as a petitioner and is not required to seek relief through a petition filed on his or her behalf. He or she may also petition on behalf of a family or household member who is a minor if chosen by the minor and capable of pursuing the minor’s stated interest in the action.
(3) A person under 15 years of age who is seeking relief under this chapter is required to seek relief by a person authorized as a petitioner under this section.
(4) If a petition for a protection order is filed by an interested person, the affidavit or declaration must also include a statement of why the petitioner qualifies as an interested person.
(5) A petition for any type of protection order must not be dismissed or denied on the basis that the conduct alleged by the petitioner would meet the criteria for the issuance of another type of protection order. If a petition meets the criteria for a different type of protection order other than the one sought by the petitioner, the court shall consider the petitioner’s preference, and enter a temporary protection order or set the matter for a hearing as appropriate under the law. The court’s decision on the appropriate type of order shall not be premised on alleviating any potential stigma on the respondent.
(6) The protection order petition must contain a section where the petitioner, regardless of petition type, may request specific relief provided for in RCW 7.105.310 that the petitioner seeks for himself or herself or for family or household members who are minors. The totality of selected relief, and any other relief the court deems appropriate for the petitioner, or family or household members who are minors, must be considered at the time of entry of temporary protection orders and at the time of entry of full protection orders.
(7) If a court reviewing the petition for a protection order or a request for a temporary protection order determines that the petition was not filed in the correct court, the court shall enter findings establishing the correct court, and direct the clerk to transfer the petition to the correct court and to provide notice of the transfer to all parties who have appeared.
(8) Upon filing a petition for a protection order, the petitioner may request that the court enter an ex parte temporary protection order and an order to surrender and prohibit weapons without notice until a hearing on a full protection order may be held. When requested, there shall be a rebuttable presumption to include the petitioner’s minor children as protected parties in the ex parte temporary domestic violence protection order until the full hearing to reduce the risk of harm to children during periods of heightened risk, unless there is good cause not to include the minor children. If the court denies the petitioner’s request to include the minor children, the court shall make written findings why the children should not be included, pending the full hearing. An ex parte temporary protection order shall be effective for a fixed period of time and shall be issued initially for a period not to exceed 14 days, which may be extended for good cause.
7.105.105. Filing--Provisions governing all petitions
The following apply to all petitions for protection orders under this chapter.
(1)(a) By January 1, 2023, county clerks on behalf of all superior courts and, by January 1, 2026, all courts of limited jurisdiction, must permit petitions for protection orders and all other filings in connection with the petition to be submitted as preferred by the petitioner either: (i) In person; (ii) remotely through an electronic submission process; or (iii) by mail for persons who are incarcerated or who are otherwise unable to file in person or remotely through an electronic system. The court or clerk must make available electronically to judicial officers any protection orders filed within the state. Judicial officers may not be charged for access to such documents. The electronic submission system must allow for petitions for protection orders and supportive documents to be submitted at any time of the day. When a petition and supporting documents for a protection order are submitted to the clerk after business hours, they must be processed as soon as possible on the next judicial day. Petitioners and respondents should not incur additional charges for electronic submission for petitions and documents filed pursuant to this section.
(b) By January 1, 2023, all superior courts’ systems and, by January 1, 2026, all limited jurisdiction courts’ systems, should allow for the petitioner to electronically track the progress of the petition for a protection order. Notification may be provided by text messaging or email, and should provide reminders of court appearances and alert the petitioner when the following occur: (i) The petition has been processed and is under review by a judicial officer; (ii) the order has been signed; (iii) the order has been transmitted to law enforcement for entry into the Washington crime information center system; (iv) proof of service upon the respondent has been filed with the court or clerk; (v) a receipt for the surrender of firearms has been filed with the court or clerk; and (vi) the respondent has filed a motion for the release of surrendered firearms. Respondents, once served, should be able to sign up for similar electronic notification. Petitioners and respondents should not be charged for electronic notification.
(2) The petition must be accompanied by a confidential document to be used by the courts and law enforcement to fully identify the parties and serve the respondent. This record will be exempt from public disclosure at all times, and restricted access to this form is governed by general rule 22 provisions governing access to the confidential information form. The petitioner is required to fill out the confidential party information form to the petitioner’s fullest ability. The respondent should be provided a blank confidential party information form at the time of service, and when the respondent first appears, the respondent must confirm with the court the respondent’s identifying and current contact information, including electronic means of contact, and file this with the court.
(3) A petition must be accompanied by a declaration signed under penalty of perjury stating the specific facts and circumstances for which relief is sought. Parties, attorneys, and witnesses may electronically sign sworn statements in all filings.
(4) The petitioner and the respondent must disclose the existence of any other litigation or of any other restraining, protection, or no-contact orders between the parties, to the extent that such information is known by the petitioner and the respondent. To the extent possible, the court shall take judicial notice of any existing restraining, protection, or no-contact orders between the parties before entering a protection order. The court shall not include provisions in a protection order that would allow the respondent to engage in conduct that is prohibited by another restraining, protection, or no-contact order between the parties that was entered in a different proceeding. The obligation to disclose the existence of any other litigation includes, but is not limited to, the existence of any other litigation concerning the custody or residential placement of a child of the parties as set forth in RCW 26.27.281. The court administrator shall verify for the court the terms of any existing protection order governing the parties.
(5) The petition may be made regardless of whether or not there is a pending lawsuit, complaint, petition, or other action between the parties, except in cases where the court has realigned the parties in accordance with RCW 7.105.210.
(6) Relief under this chapter must not be denied or delayed on the grounds that the relief is available in another action. The court shall not defer acting on a petition for a protection order nor grant a petitioner less than the full relief that the petitioner is otherwise entitled to under this chapter because there is, or could be, another proceeding involving the parties including, but not limited to, any potential or pending family law matter or criminal matter.
(7) A person’s right to petition for relief under this chapter is not affected by the person leaving his or her residence or household.
(8) A petitioner is not required to post a bond to obtain relief in any proceeding for a protection order.
(9)(a) No fees for service of process may be charged by a court or any public agency to petitioners seeking relief under this chapter. Except as provided in (b) of this subsection, courts may not charge petitioners any fees or surcharges the payment of which is a condition precedent to the petitioner’s ability to secure access to relief under this chapter. Petitioners shall be provided the necessary number of certified copies, forms, and instructional brochures free of charge, including a copy of the service packet that consists of all documents that are being served on the respondent. A respondent who is served electronically with a protection order shall be provided a certified copy of the order free of charge upon request.
(b) A filing fee may be charged for a petition for an antiharassment protection order except as follows:
(i) No filing fee may be charged to a petitioner seeking an antiharassment protection order against a person who has engaged in acts of stalking as defined in RCW 9A.46.110, a hate crime under RCW 9A.36.080(1)(c), or a single act of violence or threat of violence under RCW 7.105.010(36)(b), or from a person who has engaged in nonconsensual sexual conduct or penetration or conduct that would constitute a sex offense as defined in RCW 9A.44.128, or from a person who is a family or household member or intimate partner who has engaged in conduct that would constitute domestic violence; and
(ii) The court shall waive the filing fee if the court determines the petitioner is not able to pay the costs of filing.
(10) If the petition states that disclosure of the petitioner’s address or other identifying location information would risk harm to the petitioner or any member of the petitioner’s family or household, that address may be omitted from all documents filed with the court. If the petitioner has not disclosed an address under this subsection, the petitioner shall designate an alternative address or email address at which the respondent may serve the petitioner.
(11) Subject to the availability of amounts appropriated for this specific purpose, or as provided through alternative sources including, but not limited to, grants, local funding, or pro bono means, if the court deems it necessary, the court may appoint a guardian ad litem for a petitioner or a respondent who is under 18 years of age and who is not represented by counsel. If a guardian ad litem is appointed by the court for either or both parties, neither the petitioner nor the respondent shall be required by the court to pay any costs associated with the appointment.
(12) If a petitioner has requested an ex parte temporary protection order, because these are often emergent situations, the court shall prioritize review, either entering an order without a hearing or scheduling and holding an ex parte hearing in person, by telephone, by video, or by other electronic means on the day the petition is filed if possible. Otherwise, it must be heard no later than the following judicial day. The clerk shall ensure that the request for an ex parte temporary protection order is presented timely to a judicial officer, and signed orders will be returned promptly to the clerk for entry and to the petitioner as specified in this section.
(13) Courts shall not require a petitioner to file duplicative forms.
(14) The Indian child welfare act applies in the following manner.
(a) In a proceeding under this chapter where the petitioner seeks to protect a minor and the petitioner is not the minor’s parent as defined by RCW 13.38.040, the petition must contain a statement alleging whether the minor is or may be an Indian child as defined in RCW 13.38.040. If the minor is an Indian child, chapter 13.38 RCW and the federal Indian child welfare act, 25 U.S.C. Sec. 1901 et seq., shall apply. A party should allege in the petition if these laws have been satisfied in a prior proceeding and identify the proceeding.
(b) Every order entered in any proceeding under this chapter where the petitioner is not a parent of the minor or minors protected by the order must contain a finding that the federal Indian child welfare act or chapter 13.38 RCW does or does not apply, or if there is insufficient information to make a determination, the court must make a finding that a determination must be made before a full protection order may be entered. If there is reason to know the child is an Indian child, but the court does not have sufficient evidence to determine that the child is or is not an Indian child, 25 C.F.R. Sec. 23.107(b) applies. Where there is a finding that the federal Indian child welfare act or chapter 13.38 RCW does apply, the order must also contain a finding that all notice, evidentiary requirements, and placement preferences under the federal Indian child welfare act and chapter 13.38 RCW have been satisfied, or a finding that removal or placement of the child is necessary to prevent imminent physical damage or harm to the child pursuant to 25 U.S.C. Sec. 1922 and RCW 13.38.140. Where there is a finding that the federal Indian child welfare act or chapter 13.38 RCW does not apply, the order must also contain a finding as to why there is no reason to know the child may be an Indian child.
7.105.110. Filing--Provisions applicable to specified orders
The following apply only to the specific type of protection orders referenced in each subsection.
(1) The department of social and health services, in its discretion, may file a petition for a vulnerable adult protection order or a domestic violence protection order on behalf of, and with the consent of, any vulnerable adult. When the department has reason to believe a vulnerable adult lacks the ability or capacity to consent, the department, in its discretion, may seek relief on behalf of the vulnerable adult. Neither the department nor the state of Washington is liable for seeking or failing to seek relief on behalf of any persons under this section. The vulnerable adult shall not be held responsible for any violations of the order by the respondent.
(2)(a) If the petitioner for an extreme risk protection order is a law enforcement agency, the petitioner shall make a good faith effort to provide notice to an intimate partner or family or household member of the respondent and to any known third party who may be at risk of violence. The notice must state that the petitioner intends to petition the court for an extreme risk protection order or has already done so, and include referrals to appropriate resources, including behavioral health, domestic violence, and counseling resources. The petitioner must attest in the petition to having provided such notice, or attest to the steps that will be taken to provide such notice.
(b) Recognizing that an extreme risk protection order may need to be issued outside of normal business hours, courts shall allow law enforcement petitioners to petition after hours for a temporary extreme risk protection order using an on-call, after-hours judge, as is done for approval of after-hours search warrants.
7.105.115. Forms, instructions, etc.--Duties of the administrative office of the courts--Recommendations for filing and data collection
(1) By December 30, 2022, the administrative office of the courts shall:
(a) Develop and distribute standard forms for petitions and orders issued under this chapter, and facilitate the use of online forms for electronic filings.
(i) For all protection orders except extreme risk protection orders, the protection order must include, in a conspicuous location, a notice of criminal penalties resulting from a violation of the order, and the following statement: “You can be arrested even if the protected person or persons invite or allow you to violate the order. You alone are responsible for following the order. Only the court may change the order. Requests for changes must be made in writing.”
(ii) For extreme risk protection orders, the protection order must include, in a conspicuous location, a notice of criminal penalties resulting from a violation of the order, and the following statement: “You have the sole responsibility to avoid or refrain from violating this order’s provisions. Only the court may change the order. Requests for changes must be made in writing.”;
(b) Develop and distribute instructions and informational brochures regarding protection orders and a court staff handbook on the protection order process, which shall be made available online to view and download at no cost. Developing additional methods to inform the public about protection orders in understandable terms and in languages other than English through videos and social media should also be considered. The instructions, brochures, forms, and handbook must be prepared in consultation with civil legal aid, culturally specific advocacy programs, and domestic violence and sexual assault advocacy programs. The instructions must be designed to assist petitioners in completing the petition, and must include a sample of standard petition and protection order forms. The instructions and standard petition must include a means for the petitioner to identify, with only lay knowledge, the firearms the respondent may own, possess, receive, have access to, or have in the respondent’s custody or control. The instructions must provide pictures of types of firearms that the petitioner may choose from to identify the relevant firearms, or an equivalent means to allow petitioners to identify firearms without requiring specific or technical knowledge regarding the firearms. The court staff handbook must allow for the addition of a community resource list by the court clerk. The informational brochure must describe the use of, and the process for, obtaining, renewing, modifying, terminating, and enforcing protection orders as provided under this chapter, as well as the process for obtaining, modifying, terminating, and enforcing an antiharassment no-contact order as provided under chapter 9A.46 RCW, a domestic violence no-contact order as provided under chapter 10.99 RCW, a restraining order as provided under chapters 26.09, 26.26A, 26.26B, and 26.44 RCW, a foreign protection order as defined in chapter 26.52 RCW, and a Canadian domestic violence protection order as defined in RCW 26.55.010;
(c) Determine the significant non-English-speaking or limited English-speaking populations in the state. The administrative office of the courts shall then arrange for translation of the instructions and informational brochures required by this section, which must contain a sample of the standard petition and protection order forms, into the languages spoken by at least the top five significant non-English-speaking populations, and shall distribute a master copy of the translated instructions and informational brochures to all court clerks and to the Washington supreme court’s interpreter commission, minority and justice commission, and gender and justice commission. Such materials must be updated and distributed if needed due to relevant changes in the law;
(d)(i) Distribute a master copy of the petition and order forms, instructions, and informational brochures to all court clerks, and distribute a master copy of the petition and order forms to all superior, district, and municipal courts;
(ii) In collaboration with civil legal aid attorneys, domestic violence advocates, sexual assault advocates, elder abuse advocates, clerks, and judicial officers, develop and distribute a single petition form that a petitioner may use to file for any type of protection order authorized by this chapter, with the exception of extreme risk protection orders;
(iii) For extreme risk protection orders, develop and prepare:
(A) A standard petition and order form for an extreme risk protection order, as well as a standard petition and order form for an extreme risk protection order sought against a respondent under 18 years of age, titled “Extreme Risk Protection Order–Respondent Under 18 Years”;
(B) Pattern forms to assist in streamlining the process for those persons who are eligible to seal records relating to an order under (d)(i) of this subsection, including:
(I) A petition and declaration the respondent can complete to ensure that requirements for public sealing have been met; and
(II) An order sealing the court records relating to that order; and
(C) An informational brochure to be served on any respondent who is subject to a temporary or full protection order under (d)(iii)(A) of this subsection;
(e) Create a new confidential party information form to satisfy the purposes of the confidential information form and the law enforcement information sheet that will serve both the court’s and law enforcement’s data entry needs without requiring a redundant effort for the petitioner, and ensure the petitioner’s confidential information is protected for the purpose of safety. The form should be created with the presumption that it will also be used by the respondent to provide all current contact information needed by the court and law enforcement, and full identifying information for improved data entry. The form should also prompt the petitioner to disclose on the form whether the person who the petitioner is seeking to restrain has a disability, brain injury, or impairment requiring special assistance; and
(f) Update the instructions, brochures, standard petition and order for protection forms, and court staff handbook when changes in the law make an update necessary.
(2) By July 1, 2022, the administrative office of the courts, through the gender and justice commission of the Washington state supreme court, and with the support of the Washington state women’s commission, shall work with representatives of superior, district, and municipal court judicial officers, court clerks, and administrators, including those with experience in protection order proceedings, as well as advocates and practitioners with expertise in each type of protection order, and others with relevant expertise, to develop for the courts:
(a) Standards for filing evidence in protection order proceedings in a manner that protects victim safety and privacy, including evidence in the form of text messages, social media messages, voice mails, and other recordings, and the development of a sealed cover sheet for explicit or intimate images and recordings; and
(b) Requirements for private vendors who provide services related to filing systems for protection orders, as well as what data should be collected.
7.105.150. Service--Methods of service
(1) To minimize delays and the need for more hearings, which can hinder access to justice and undermine judicial economy, to lessen costs, to guarantee actual notice to the respondent, and to simplify and modernize processes for petitioners, respondents, law enforcement, and the courts, the following methods of service are authorized for protection order proceedings, including petitions, temporary protection orders, reissuances of temporary protection orders, full protection orders, motions to renew protection orders, and motions to modify or terminate protection orders.
(a)(i) Except as provided in (a)(iii) and (b)(i) of this subsection, personal service, consistent with court rules for civil proceedings, is required in: (A) Cases requiring the surrender of firearms, such as extreme risk protection orders and protection orders with orders to surrender and prohibit weapons; (B) cases that involve transferring the custody of a child or children from the respondent to the petitioner; (C) cases involving vacating the respondent from the parties’ shared residence; (D) cases involving a respondent who is incarcerated; and (E) cases where a petition for a vulnerable adult protection order is filed by someone other than the vulnerable adult.
(ii) Personal service in cases specified in (a)(i)(A) through (D) of this subsection must be made by law enforcement including, at a minimum, two timely attempts at personal service. To reduce risk of harm for cases requiring personal service, law enforcement should continue to attempt personal service up to the hearing date. Personal service for cases specified in (a)(i)(E) of this subsection and when used for other protection order cases must be made by law enforcement unless the petitioner elects to have the respondent served by a third party who is not a party to the action, is 18 years of age or older and competent to be a witness, and can provide sworn proof of service to the court as required.
(iii) In cases where personal service is required under this subsection, after two unsuccessful attempts at personal service, service shall be permitted by electronic means in accordance with (b) of this subsection.
(b)(i) Service by electronic means, including service by email, text message, social media applications, or other technologies, must be prioritized for all orders at the time of the issuance of temporary protection orders, except in cases where personal service is required under (a) of this subsection. For cases specified in (a)(i)(A) through (D) of this subsection, once firearms and concealed pistol licenses have been surrendered and verified by the court, or there is evidence the respondent does not possess firearms, the restrained party has been vacated from the shared residence, or the custody of the child or children has been transferred, per court order, or the respondent is no longer incarcerated, then subsequent motions and orders may be served electronically.
(ii) Service by electronic means must be made by a law enforcement agency, unless the petitioner elects to have the respondent served by any person who is not a party to the action, is 18 years of age or older and competent to be a witness, and can provide sworn proof of service to the court as required. Court authorization permitting electronic service is not required except in cases specified in (a)(i)(A) through (D) of this subsection. In those cases, either request of the petitioner, or good cause for granting an order for electronic service, such as two failed attempts at personal service, are required to authorize service by electronic means. No formal motion is necessary.
(iii) The respondent’s email address, number for text messaging, and username or other identification on social media applications and other technologies, if known or available, must be provided by the petitioner to law enforcement in the confidential information form, and attested to by the petitioner as being the legitimate, current, or last known contact information for the respondent.
(iv) Electronic service must be effected by transmitting copies of the petition and any supporting materials filed with the petition, notice of hearing, and any orders, or relevant materials for motions, to the respondent at the respondent’s electronic address or the respondent’s electronic account associated with email, text messaging, social media applications, or other technologies. Verification of notice is required and may be accomplished through read-receipt mechanisms, a response, a sworn statement from the person who effected service verifying transmission and any follow-up communications such as email or telephone contact used to further verify, or an appearance by the respondent at a hearing. Sworn proof of service must be filed with the court by the person who effected service.
(c) Service by mail is permitted when: (i) Personal service was required, there have been two unsuccessful attempts at personal service, and electronic service is not possible; or (ii) personal service is not required and there have been two unsuccessful attempts at personal or electronic service. If electronic service and personal service are not successful, the court shall affirmatively order service by mail without requiring additional motions to be filed by the petitioner. Service by mail must be made by any person who is not a party to the action and is 18 years of age or older and competent to be a witness, by mailing copies of the materials to be served to the party to be served at the party’s last known address or any other address determined by the court to be appropriate. Two copies must be mailed, postage prepaid, one by ordinary first-class mail and the other by a form of mail requiring a tracking or certified information showing when and where it was delivered. The envelopes must bear the return address where the petitioner may receive legal mail. Service is complete 10 calendar days after the mailing of two copies as prescribed in this section. Where service by mail is provided by a third party, the clerk shall forward proof of service by mail to the law enforcement agency in the county or municipality where the respondent resides.
(d) Service by publication is permitted only in those cases where all other means of service have been unsuccessful or are not possible due to lack of any known physical or electronic address of the respondent. Publication must be made in a newspaper of general circulation in the county where the petition was brought and in the county of the last known address of the respondent once a week for three consecutive weeks. The newspaper selected must be one of the three most widely circulated papers in the county. The publication of summons must not be made until the court orders service by publication under this section. Service of the summons is considered complete on the date of the third publication when publication has been made for three consecutive weeks. The summons must be signed by the petitioner. The summons must contain the date of the first publication, and shall require the respondent upon whom service by publication is desired to appear and answer the petition on the date set for the hearing. The summons must also contain a brief statement of the reason for the petition and a summary of the provisions under the temporary protection order. The summons must be essentially in the following form:
In the ………. court of the state of Washington for the county of ……….
………………,
Petitioner
vs.
No. ……
………………,
Respondent
The state of Washington to ………. (respondent):
You are hereby summoned to appear on the …. day of……, (year) …., at …. a.m./p.m., and respond to the petition. If you fail to respond, a protection order will be issued against you pursuant to the provisions of chapter 7.105 RCW, for a minimum of one year from the date you are required to appear. A temporary protection order has been issued against you, restraining you from the following: (Insert a brief statement of the provisions of the temporary protection order). A copy of the petition, notice of hearing, and temporary protection order has been filed with the clerk of this court.
…………….
Petitioner …….
(2) The court may authorize multiple methods of service permitted by this section and may consider use of any address determined by the court to be appropriate in order to authorize service that is reasonably probable to provide actual notice. The court shall favor speedy and cost-effective methods of service to promote prompt and accessible resolution of the merits of the petition.
(3) To promote judicial economy and reduce delays, for respondents who are able to be served electronically, the respondent, or the parent or guardian of the respondent for respondents under the age of 18 or the guardian or conservator of an adult respondent, shall be required to provide his or her electronic address or electronic account associated with an email, text messaging, social media application, or other technology by filing the confidential party information form referred to in RCW 7.105.115(1). This must occur at the earliest point at which the respondent, parent, guardian, or conservator is in contact with the court so that electronic service can be effected for all subsequent motions, orders, and hearings.
(4) If an order entered by the court recites that the respondent appeared before the court, either in person or remotely, the necessity for further service is waived and proof of service of that order is not necessary, including in cases where the respondent leaves the hearing before a final ruling is issued or signed. The court’s order, entered after a hearing, need not be served on a respondent who fails to appear before the court for the hearing, if material terms of the order have not changed from those contained in the temporary order, and it is shown to the court’s satisfaction that the respondent has previously been served with the temporary order.
(5) When the respondent for a protection order is under the age of 18 or is an individual subject to a guardianship or conservatorship under Title 11 RCW:
(a) When the respondent is a minor, service of a petition for a protection order, modification, or renewal, shall be completed, as defined in this chapter, upon both the respondent and the respondent’s parent or legal guardian.
(b) A copy of the protection order must be served on a parent, guardian, or conservator of the respondent at any address where the respondent resides, or the department of children, youth, and families in the case where the respondent is the subject of a dependency or court approved out-of-home placement. A minor respondent shall not be served at the minor respondent’s school unless no other address for service is known.
(c) For extreme risk protection orders, the court shall also provide a parent, guardian, or conservator of the respondent with written notice of the legal obligation to safely secure any firearm on the premises and the potential for criminal prosecution if a prohibited person were to obtain access to any firearm. This notice may be provided at the time the parent, guardian, or conservator of the respondent appears in court or may be served along with a copy of the order, whichever occurs first.
(6) When a petition for a vulnerable adult protection order is filed by someone other than the vulnerable adult, notice of the petition and hearing must be personally served upon the vulnerable adult. In addition to copies of all pleadings filed by the petitioner, the petitioner shall provide a written notice to the vulnerable adult using a standard notice form developed by the administrative office of the courts. The standard notice form must be designed to explain to the vulnerable adult in clear, plain language the purpose and nature of the petition and that the vulnerable adult has the right to participate in the hearing and to either support or object to the petition.
(7) The court shall not dismiss, over the objection of a petitioner, a petition for a protection order or a motion to renew a protection order based on the inability of law enforcement or the petitioner to serve the respondent, unless the court determines that all available methods of service have been attempted unsuccessfully or are not possible.
7.105.155. Service--Completion by law enforcement officer
When service is to be completed under this chapter by a law enforcement officer:
(1) The clerk of the court shall have a copy of any order issued under this chapter, the confidential information form, as well as the petition for a protection order and any supporting materials, electronically forwarded on or before the next judicial day to the law enforcement agency in the county or municipality where the respondent resides, as specified in the order, for service upon the respondent. If the respondent has moved from that county or municipality and personal service is not required, the law enforcement agency specified in the order may serve the order;
(2) Service of an order issued under this chapter must take precedence over the service of other documents by law enforcement unless they are of a similar emergency nature;
(3) Where personal service is required, the first attempt at service must occur within 24 hours of receiving the order from the court unless an emergency situation renders the service infeasible. If an emergency situation prevents a first attempt at service within 24 hours, law enforcement must attempt service as soon as possible. If the first attempt is not successful, no fewer than two additional attempts should be made to serve the order, particularly for respondents who present heightened risk of lethality or other risk of physical harm to the petitioner or petitioner’s family or household members. All attempts at service must be documented on a proof of service form and submitted to the court in a timely manner;
(4) If service cannot be completed within 10 calendar days, the law enforcement officer shall notify the petitioner. The petitioner shall provide information sufficient to permit notification. Law enforcement shall continue to attempt to complete service unless otherwise directed by the court. In the event that the petitioner does not provide a service address for the respondent or there is evidence that the respondent is evading service, the law enforcement officer shall use law enforcement databases to assist in locating the respondent;
(5) If the respondent is in a protected person’s presence at the time of contact for service, the law enforcement officer should take reasonable steps to separate the parties when possible prior to completing the service or inquiring about or collecting firearms. When the order requires the respondent to vacate the parties’ shared residence, law enforcement shall take reasonable steps to ensure that the respondent has left the premises and is on notice that the respondent’s return is a violation of the terms of the order. The law enforcement officer shall provide the respondent with copies of all forms with the exception of the confidential information form completed by the protected party and the proof of service form;
(6) Any law enforcement officer who serves a protection order on a respondent with the knowledge that the respondent requires special assistance due to a disability, brain injury, or impairment shall make a reasonable effort to accommodate the needs of the respondent to the extent practicable without compromise to the safety of the petitioner;
(7) Proof of service must be submitted to the court on the proof of service form. The form must include the date and time of service and each document that was served in order for the service to be complete, along with any details such as conduct at the time of service, threats, or avoidance of service, as well as statements regarding possession of firearms, including any denials of ownership despite positive purchase history, active concealed pistol license, or sworn statements in the petition that allege the respondent’s access to, or possession of, firearms; or
(8) If attempts at service were not successful, the proof of service form or the form letter showing that the order was not served, and stating the reason it was not served, must be returned to the court by the next judicial day following the last unsuccessful attempt at service. Each attempt at service must be noted and reflected in computer aided dispatch records, with the date, time, address, and reason service was not completed.
7.105.160. Service--Materials
The following materials must be served, depending on the type of relief sought.
(1) If the petitioner is seeking a hearing on a petition for a protection order, the respondent must be served with the petition for a protection order, any supporting declarations or other materials, the notice of hearing, any temporary protection order issued by the court, any temporary order to surrender and prohibit weapons issued by the court, and a blank confidential party information form as referred to in RCW 7.105.115(1). The respondent shall confirm with the court during his or her first appearance all necessary contact and identifying information, and file the form with the court.
(2) If the petitioner is seeking the renewal or reissuance of a protection order, the respondent must be served with the motion to renew or reissue the protection order, any supporting declarations or other materials, and the notice of hearing.
(3) If either party is seeking to modify or terminate a protection order, the other party must be served with the motion to modify or terminate the protection order, any supporting declarations or other materials, and the notice of hearing.
(4) For any other motion filed by a party with the court, the other party must be served with all materials the moving party submitted to the court and with any notice of hearing issued by the court related to the motion.
7.105.165. Service--Timing
(1) Unless waived by the nonmoving party, service must be completed on the nonmoving party not less than five judicial days before the hearing date. If service cannot be made, the court shall set a new hearing date and shall either require an additional attempt at obtaining service or permit service by other means authorized in this chapter. The court shall not require more than two attempts at obtaining service before permitting service by other means authorized in this chapter unless the moving party requests additional time to attempt service.
(2) Service is completed on the day the respondent is served personally, on the date of transmission for electronic service, on the 10th calendar day after mailing for service by mail, or on the date of the third publication when publication has been made for three consecutive weeks for service by publication.
(3) If the nonmoving party was served before the hearing, but less than five judicial days before the hearing, it is not necessary to re-serve materials that the nonmoving party already received, but any new notice of hearing and reissued order must be served on the nonmoving party. This additional service may be made by mail as an alternative to other authorized methods of service under this chapter. If done by mail, this additional service is considered completed on the third calendar day after mailing.
(4) Where electronic service was not complete because there was no verification of notice, and service by mail or publication has been authorized, copies must also be sent by electronic means to any known electronic addresses.
7.105.200. Hearings--Procedure
In hearings under this chapter, the following apply:
(1) Hearings under this chapter are special proceedings. The procedures established under this chapter for protection order hearings supersede inconsistent civil court rules. Courts should evaluate the needs and procedures best suited to individual hearings based on consideration of the totality of the circumstances, including disparities that may be apparent in the parties’ resources and representation by counsel.
(2)(a) Courts shall prioritize hearings on petitions for ex parte temporary protection orders over less emergent proceedings.
(b) For extreme risk protection order hearings where a law enforcement agency is the petitioner, the court shall prioritize scheduling because of the importance of immediate temporary removal of firearms in situations of extreme risk and the goal of minimizing the time law enforcement must otherwise wait for a particular case to be called, which can hinder their other patrol and supervisory duties. Courts also may allow a law enforcement petitioner to participate remotely, or allow another representative from that law enforcement agency or the prosecutor’s office to present the information to the court if personal presence of the petitioning officer is not required for testimonial purposes.
(3) If the respondent does not appear for the full hearing and there is no proof of timely and proper service on the respondent, the court shall reissue any temporary protection order previously issued and reset the hearing date. If a temporary protection order is reissued, the court shall reset the hearing date not later than 14 days from the reissue date. If a temporary protection order is reissued and the court permits service by mail or by publication, the court shall reset the hearing date not later than 30 days from the date of the order authorizing such service. These time frames may be extended for good cause.
(4) When considering any request to stay, continue, or delay a hearing under this chapter because of the pendency of a parallel criminal investigation or prosecution of the respondent, courts shall apply a rebuttable presumption against such delay and give due recognition to the purpose of this chapter to provide victims quick and effective relief. Courts must consider on the record the following factors:
(a) The extent to which a defendant’s Fifth Amendment rights are or are not implicated, given the special nature of protection order proceedings, which burden a defendant’s Fifth Amendment privilege substantially less than do other civil proceedings;
(b) Similarities between the civil and criminal cases;
(c) Status of the criminal case;
(d) The interests of the petitioners in proceeding expeditiously with litigation and the potential prejudice and risk to petitioners of a delay;
(e) The burden that any particular aspect of the proceeding may impose on respondents;
(f) The convenience of the court in the management of its cases and the efficient use of judicial resources;
(g) The interests of persons not parties to the civil litigation; and
(h) The interest of the public in the pending civil and criminal litigation.
(5) Hearings may be conducted upon the information provided in the sworn petition, live testimony of the parties should they choose to testify, and any additional sworn declarations. Live testimony of witnesses other than the parties may be requested by a party, but shall not be permitted unless the court finds that live testimony of witnesses other than the parties is necessary and material. If either party requests a continuance to allow for proper notice of witnesses or to afford a party time to seek counsel, the court may continue the hearing. In considering the request, the court should consider the rebuttable presumption against delay and the purpose of this chapter to provide victims quick and effective relief.
(6) If the court continues a hearing for any reason, the court shall reissue any temporary orders, including orders to surrender and prohibit weapons, issued with or without notice.
(7) Prehearing discovery under the civil court rules, including, but not limited to, depositions, requests for production, or requests for admission, is disfavored and only permitted if specifically authorized by the court for good cause shown upon written motion of a party filed six judicial days prior to the hearing and served prior to the hearing.
(8) The rules of evidence need not be applied, other than with respect to privileges, the requirements of the rape shield statute under RCW 9A.44.020, and evidence rules 412 and 413.
(9)(a) The prior sexual activity or the reputation of the petitioner is inadmissible except:
(i) As evidence concerning the past sexual conduct of the petitioner with the respondent when this evidence is offered by the respondent upon the issue of whether the petitioner consented to the sexual conduct alleged for the purpose of a protection order; or
(ii) When constitutionally required to be admitted.
(b) To determine admissibility, a written motion must be made six judicial days prior to the protection order hearing. The motion must include an offer of proof of the relevancy of the proposed evidence and reasonably specific information as to the date, time, and place of the past sexual conduct between the petitioner and the respondent. If the court finds that the offer of proof is relevant to the issue of the victim’s consent, the court shall conduct a hearing in camera. The court may not admit evidence under this subsection unless it determines at the hearing that the evidence is relevant and the probative value of the evidence outweighs the danger of unfair prejudice. The evidence shall be admissible at the hearing to the extent an order made by the court specifies the evidence that may be admitted. If the court finds that the motion and related documents should be sealed pursuant to court rule and governing law, it may enter an order sealing the documents.
(10) When a petitioner has alleged incapacity to consent to sexual conduct or sexual penetration due to intoxicants, alcohol, or other condition, the court must determine on the record whether the petitioner had the capacity to consent.
(11) Courts shall not require parties to submit duplicate or working copies of pleadings or other materials filed with the court, unless the document or documents cannot be scanned or are illegible.
(12) Courts shall, if possible, have petitioners and respondents in protection order proceedings gather in separate locations and enter and depart the court room at staggered times. Where the option is available, for safety purposes, the court should arrange for petitioners to leave the court premises first and to have court security escort petitioners to their vehicles or transportation.
7.105.205. Hearings--Remote hearings
(1) Hearings on protection orders, including hearings concerning temporary protection orders, full protection orders, compliance, reissuance, renewal, modification, or termination, may be conducted in person or remotely in order to enhance access for all parties.
(2) In the court’s discretion, parties, witnesses, and others authorized by this chapter to participate in protection order proceedings may attend a hearing on a petition for a protection order, or any hearings conducted pursuant to this chapter, in person or remotely, including by telephone, video, or other electronic means where possible. No later than three judicial days before the hearing, the parties may request to appear at the hearing, with witnesses, remotely by telephone, video, or other electronic means. The court shall grant any request for a remote appearance unless the court finds good cause to require in-person attendance or attendance through a specific means.
(3) Courts shall require assurances of the identity of persons who appear by telephone, video, or other electronic means. Courts may not charge fees for remote appearances.
(4) Courts shall not post or stream proceedings or recordings of protection order hearings online unless (a) a waiver has been received from all parties, or (b) the hearing is being conducted online and members of the public do not have in-person access to observe or listen to the hearing. Unless the court orders a hearing to be closed to the public consistent with the requirements of Washington law, courts should provide access to members of the public who wish to observe or listen to a hearing conducted by telephone, video, or other electronic means.
(5) If a hearing is held with any parties or witnesses appearing remotely, the following apply:
(a) Courts should include directions to access a hearing remotely in the order setting the hearing and in any order granting a party’s request for a remote appearance. Such orders shall also include directions to request an interpreter and accommodations for disabilities;
(b) Courts should endeavor to give a party or witness appearing by telephone no more than a one-hour waiting time by the court for the hearing to begin. For remote hearings, if the court anticipates the parties or witnesses will need to wait longer than one hour to be called or connected, the court should endeavor to inform them of the estimated start time of the hearing;
(c) Courts should inform the parties before the hearing begins that the hearing is being recorded by the court, in what manner the public is able to view the hearing, how a party may obtain a copy of the recording of the hearing, and that recording or broadcasting any portion of the hearing by any means other than the court record is strictly prohibited without prior court approval;
(d) To minimize trauma, while allowing remote hearings to be observed by the public, courts should take appropriate measures to prevent members of the public or the parties from harassing or intimidating any party or witness to a case. Such practices may include, but are not limited to, disallowing members of the public from communicating with the parties or with the court during the hearing, ensuring court controls over microphone and viewing settings, and announcing limitations on allowing others to record the hearing;
(e) Courts shall use technology that accommodates American sign language and other languages;
(f) To help ensure that remote access does not undermine personal safety or privacy, or introduce other risks, courts should protect the privacy of telephone numbers, emails, and other contact information for parties, witnesses, and others authorized by this chapter to participate in protection order proceedings, and inform them of these safety considerations. Materials available to persons appearing remotely should include warnings not to state their addresses or telephone numbers at the hearing, and that they should ensure that background surroundings do not reveal their location;
(g) Courts should provide the parties, in orders setting the hearing, with a telephone number and an email address for the court, which the parties may use to inform the court if they have been unable to appear remotely for a hearing. Before dismissing or granting a petition due to the petitioner or respondent not appearing for a remote hearing, or the court not being able to reach the party via telephone or video, the court shall check for any notifications to the court regarding issues with remote access or other technological difficulties. If any party has provided such notification to the court, the court shall not dismiss or grant the petition, but shall reset the hearing by continuing it and reissuing any temporary order in place. If a party was unable to provide the notification regarding issues with remote access or other technological difficulties on the day of the hearing prior to the court’s ruling, that party may seek relief via a motion for reconsideration; and
(h) A party attending a hearing remotely who is unable to participate in the hearing outside the presence of others who reside with the party, but who are not part of the proceeding including, but not limited to, children, and who asserts that the presence of those individuals may hinder the party’s testimony or the party’s ability to fully and meaningfully participate in the hearing, may request a continuance on that basis. Such requests may be granted in the court’s discretion. In considering the request, the court may consider the rebuttable presumption against delay and the purpose of this chapter to provide victims quick and effective relief.
7.105.210. Realignment of parties--Domestic violence and antiharassment protection order proceedings
In proceedings where the petitioner is seeking a domestic violence protection order or an antiharassment protection order, the court may realign the designation of the parties as “petitioner” and “respondent” where the court finds that the original petitioner is the abuser or harasser and the original respondent is the victim of domestic violence or unlawful harassment. The court may issue a temporary protection order in accordance with this chapter until the victim is able to prepare a petition for a protection order in accordance with this chapter.
7.105.215. Hearings--Extreme risk protection orders
For extreme risk protection order hearings, the following also apply.
(1) The court may:
(a) Examine under oath the petitioner, the respondent, and any witnesses they may produce, or, in lieu of examination, consider sworn declarations of the petitioner, the respondent, and any witnesses they may produce; and
(b) Ensure that a reasonable search has been conducted for criminal history records and civil protection order history related to the respondent.
(2) During the hearing, the court shall consider whether a behavioral health evaluation is appropriate, and may order such evaluation if appropriate.
(3) In determining whether grounds for an extreme risk protection order exist, the court may consider any relevant evidence including, but not limited to, any of the following:
(a) A recent act or threat of violence by the respondent against self or others, whether or not such violence or threat of violence involves a firearm;
(b) A pattern of acts or threats of violence by the respondent within the past 12 months including, but not limited to, acts or threats of violence by the respondent against self or others;
(c) Any behaviors that present an imminent threat of harm to self or others;
(d) A violation by the respondent of a protection order or a no-contact order issued;
(e) A previous or existing extreme risk protection order issued against the respondent;
(f) A violation of a previous or existing extreme risk protection order issued against the respondent;
(g) A conviction of the respondent for a crime that constitutes domestic violence as defined in RCW 10.99.020;
(h) A conviction of the respondent under RCW 9A.36.080;
(i) The respondent’s ownership of, access to, or intent to possess, firearms;
(j) The unlawful or reckless use, display, or brandishing of a firearm by the respondent;
(k) The history of use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force by the respondent against another person, or the respondent’s history of stalking another person;
(l) Any prior arrest of the respondent for a felony offense or violent crime;
(m) Corroborated evidence of the abuse of controlled substances or alcohol by the respondent; and
(n) Evidence of recent acquisition of firearms by the respondent.
7.105.220. Hearings--Vulnerable adult protection orders
For vulnerable adult protection order hearings, the following also apply.
(1) When a petition for a vulnerable adult protection order is filed by someone other than the vulnerable adult or the vulnerable adult’s guardian, conservator, or person acting under a protective arrangement, or both, and the vulnerable adult for whom protection is sought advises the court at the hearing that the vulnerable adult does not want all or part of the protection sought in the petition, then the court may dismiss the petition or the provisions that the vulnerable adult objects to and any existing vulnerable adult protection order, or the court may take additional testimony or evidence, or order additional evidentiary hearings to determine whether the vulnerable adult is unable, due to incapacity, undue influence, or duress, to protect his or her person or estate in connection with the issues raised in the petition or order. If an additional evidentiary hearing is ordered and the court determines that there is reason to believe that there is a genuine issue about whether the vulnerable adult is unable to protect his or her person or estate in connection with the issues raised in the petition or order, the court may issue a temporary protection order of the vulnerable adult pending a decision after the evidentiary hearing.
(2) Pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, an evidentiary hearing on the issue of whether the vulnerable adult is unable, due to incapacity, undue influence, or duress, to protect his or her person or estate in connection with the issues raised in the petition or order, must be held within 14 days of entry of the temporary protection order. If the court did not enter a temporary protection order, the evidentiary hearing must be held within 14 days of the prior hearing on the petition. Notice of the time and place of the evidentiary hearing must be served upon the vulnerable adult and the respondent not less than five judicial days before the hearing. If timely service cannot be made, the court may set a new hearing date. A hearing under this subsection is not necessary if the vulnerable adult has been determined to be subject to a guardianship, conservatorship, or other protective arrangement under chapter 11.130 RCW. If a hearing is scheduled under this subsection, the protection order must remain in effect pending the court’s decision at the subsequent hearing.
(3) At the hearing held pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, the court shall give the vulnerable adult, the respondent, the petitioner, and, in the court’s discretion, other interested persons, the opportunity to testify and submit relevant evidence.
(4) If the court determines that the vulnerable adult is capable of protecting his or her person or estate in connection with the issues raised in the petition, and the vulnerable adult continues to object to the protection order, the court shall dismiss the order or may modify the order if agreed to by the vulnerable adult. If the court determines that the vulnerable adult is not capable of protecting his or her person or estate in connection with the issues raised in the petition or order, and that the vulnerable adult continues to need protection, the court shall order relief consistent with this chapter as it deems necessary for the protection of the vulnerable adult. In the entry of any order that is inconsistent with the expressed wishes of the vulnerable adult, the court’s order is governed by the legislative findings contained in RCW 7.105.900.
7.105.225. Grant of order, denial of order, and improper grounds
(1) The court shall issue a protection order if it finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the petitioner has proved the required criteria specified in (a) through (f) of this subsection for obtaining a protection order under this chapter.
(a) For a domestic violence protection order, that the petitioner has been subjected to domestic violence by the respondent.
(b) For a sexual assault protection order, that the petitioner has been subjected to nonconsensual sexual conduct or nonconsensual sexual penetration by the respondent.
(c) For a stalking protection order, that the petitioner has been subjected to stalking by the respondent.
(d) For a vulnerable adult protection order, that the petitioner has been abandoned, abused, financially exploited, or neglected, or is threatened with abandonment, abuse, financial exploitation, or neglect by the respondent.
(e) For an extreme risk protection order, that the respondent poses a significant danger of causing personal injury to self or others by having in the respondent’s custody or control, purchasing, possessing, accessing, receiving, or attempting to purchase or receive, a firearm.
(f) For an antiharassment protection order, that the petitioner has been subjected to unlawful harassment by the respondent.
(2) The court may not deny or dismiss a petition for a protection order on the grounds that:
(a) The petitioner or the respondent is a minor, unless provisions in this chapter specifically limit relief or remedies based upon a party’s age;
(b) The petitioner did not report the conduct giving rise to the petition to law enforcement;
(c) A no-contact order or a restraining order that restrains the respondent’s contact with the petitioner has been issued in a criminal proceeding or in a domestic relations proceeding;
(d) The relief sought by the petitioner may be available in a different action or proceeding, or criminal charges are pending against the respondent;
(e) The conduct at issue did not occur recently or because of the passage of time since the last incident of conduct giving rise to the petition; or
(f) The respondent no longer lives near the petitioner.
(3) In proceedings where the petitioner alleges that the respondent engaged in nonconsensual sexual conduct or nonconsensual sexual penetration, the court shall not require proof of physical injury on the person of the petitioner or any other forensic evidence. Denial of a remedy to the petitioner may not be based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:
(a) The respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;
(b) The petitioner was voluntarily intoxicated; or
(c) The petitioner engaged in limited consensual sexual touching.
(4) In proceedings where the petitioner alleges that the respondent engaged in stalking, the court may not require proof of the respondent’s intentions regarding the acts alleged by the petitioner.
(5) If the court declines to issue a protection order, the court shall state in writing the particular reasons for the court’s denial. If the court declines a request to include one or more of the petitioner’s family or household member who is a minor or a vulnerable adult in the order, the court shall state the reasons for that denial in writing. The court shall also explain from the bench:
(a) That the petitioner may refile a petition for a protection order at any time if the petitioner has new evidence to present that would support the issuance of a protection order;
(b) The parties’ rights to seek revision, reconsideration, or appeal of the order; and
(c) The parties’ rights to have access to the court transcript or recording of the hearing.
(6) A court’s ruling on a protection order must be filed by the court in writing and must be made by the court on the mandatory form developed by the administrative office of the courts.
7.105.235. Compliance hearings
For compliance hearings:
(1) Only the respondent is required to appear if the court is reviewing compliance with any conditions of the order. The petitioner may appear at such hearing and provide evidence to the court regarding the respondent’s compliance with the order. The petitioner may also file a declaration in response to the respondent’s representation of compliance with any conditions of the order. After reviewing such a declaration by the petitioner, the court may ask the petitioner to appear at the hearing or provide additional declaration or documentation to address disputed issues.
(2) Any orders entered by the court pursuant to a compliance hearing must be served on the respondent if the respondent failed to appear at the hearing at which the court entered the orders.
(3) The court shall use its best efforts to notify the petitioner of the outcome of the compliance hearing including, but not limited to, informing the petitioner on whether the respondent is found to be out of compliance with an order to surrender and prohibit weapons. Such notice should be provided to the petitioner by electronic means if possible, but may also be made by telephone or another method that allows notification to be provided without unnecessary delay.
7.105.240. Appointment of counsel for petitioner
Subject to the availability of amounts appropriated for this specific purpose, or as provided through alternative sources including, but not limited to, grants, local funding, or pro bono means, the court may appoint counsel to represent the petitioner if the respondent is represented by counsel.
7.105.250. Protection order advocates and support persons
(1) Whether or not the petitioner has retained an attorney, a sexual assault or domestic violence advocate, as defined in RCW 5.60.060, shall be allowed to accompany the petitioner, or appear remotely with the petitioner, and confer with the petitioner during court proceedings. The sexual assault or domestic violence advocate shall not provide legal representation nor interpretation services. Court administrators shall allow sexual assault and domestic violence advocates to assist petitioners with their protection orders. Sexual assault and domestic violence advocates are not engaged in the unauthorized practice of law when providing assistance of the types specified in this section. Unless the sexual assault or domestic violence advocate seeks to speak directly to the court, advocates shall not be required to be identified on the record beyond stating their role as a sexual assault or domestic violence advocate and identifying the program for which they work or volunteer for. Communications between the petitioner and a sexual assault and domestic violence advocate are protected as provided by RCW 5.60.060.
(2) Whether or not the petitioner has retained an attorney, a protection order advocate must be allowed to accompany the petitioner to any legal proceeding including, but not limited to, sitting or standing next to the petitioner, appearing remotely with the petitioner, and conferring with the petitioner during court proceedings, or addressing the court when invited to do so.
(a) For purposes of this section, “protection order advocate” means any employee or volunteer from a program that provides, as some part of its services, information, advocacy, counseling, or support to persons seeking protection orders.
(b) The protection order advocate shall not provide legal representation nor interpretation services.
(c) Unless a protection order advocate seeks to speak directly to the court, protection order advocates shall not be required to be identified on the record beyond stating his or her role as a protection order advocate and identifying the program for which he or she works or volunteers.
(d) A protection order advocate who is not employed by, or under the direct supervision of, a law enforcement agency, a prosecutor’s office, the child protective services section of the department of children, youth, and families as defined in RCW 26.44.020, or other governmental entity, has the same privileges, rights, and responsibilities as a sexual assault advocate and domestic violence advocate under RCW 5.60.060.
(3) Whether or not the petitioner has retained an attorney or has an advocate, the petitioner shall be allowed a support person to accompany the petitioner to any legal proceeding including, but not limited to, sitting or standing next to the petitioner, appearing remotely with the petitioner, and conferring with the petitioner during court proceedings. The support person may be any third party of the petitioner’s choosing, provided that:
(a) The support person shall not provide legal representation nor interpretation services; and
(b) A support person who is not employed by, or under the direct supervision of, a law enforcement agency, a prosecutor’s office, the child protective services section of the department of children, youth, and families as defined in RCW 26.44.020, or other government entity, may not, without the consent of the petitioner, be examined as to any communication between the petitioner and the support person regarding the petition.
7.105.300. Application--RCW 7.105.305 through 7.105.325
RCW 7.105.305 through 7.105.325 apply to all orders other than extreme risk protection orders.
7.105.305. Ex parte temporary protection orders--Other than for extreme risk protection orders
(1) Where it appears from the petition and any additional evidence that the respondent has engaged in conduct against the petitioner that serves as a basis for a protection order under this chapter, and the petitioner alleges that serious immediate harm or irreparable injury could result if an order is not issued immediately without prior notice to the respondent, the court may grant an ex parte temporary protection order, pending a full hearing. The court has broad discretion to grant such relief as the court deems proper, including the forms of relief listed in RCW 7.105.310, provided that the court shall not order a form of relief listed in RCW 7.105.310 if it would not be feasible or appropriate for the respondent to comply with such a requirement before a full hearing may be held on the petition for a protection order. If the court does not order all the relief requested by the petitioner in an ex parte temporary protection order, the court shall still consider ordering such relief at the full hearing on the petition for a protection order. In issuing the order, the court shall consider the provisions of RCW 9.41.800, and order the respondent to surrender, and prohibit the respondent from accessing, having in his or her custody or control, possessing, purchasing, attempting to purchase or receive, or receiving, all firearms, dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license, as required in RCW 9.41.800.
(2) Any order issued under this section must contain the date, time of issuance, and expiration date.
(3) The court may issue an ex parte temporary protection order on the petition with or without a hearing. If an ex parte temporary protection order is denied, the court shall still set a full hearing unless the court determines the petition does not contain prima facie allegations to support the issuance of any type of protection order. If the court declines to issue an ex parte temporary protection order as requested or declines to set a hearing, the court shall state the reasons in writing. The court’s denial of a motion for an ex parte temporary protection order shall be filed with the court.
(4) If a full hearing is set on a petition that is filed before close of business on a judicial day, the hearing must be set not later than 14 days from the date of the filing of the petition. If a full hearing is set on a petition that is submitted after close of business on a judicial day or is submitted on a nonjudicial day, the hearing must be set not later than 14 days from the first judicial day after the petition is filed, which may be extended for good cause.
(5) If the court does not set a full hearing, the petitioner may file an amended petition within 14 days of the court’s denial. If the court determines the amended petition does not contain prima facie allegations to support the issuance of any type of protection order or if the petitioner fails to file an amended petition within the required time, the court may enter an order dismissing the petition.
(6) A petitioner may not obtain an ex parte temporary antiharassment protection order against a respondent if the petitioner has previously obtained two such ex parte orders against the same respondent, but has failed to obtain the issuance of a civil antiharassment protection order, unless good cause for such failure can be shown.
7.105.310. Relief for temporary and full protection orders--Other than for extreme risk protection orders
(1) In issuing any type of protection order, other than an ex parte temporary antiharassment protection order as limited by subsection (2) of this section, and other than an extreme risk protection order, the court shall have broad discretion to grant such relief as the court deems proper, including an order that provides relief as follows:
(a) Restrain the respondent from committing any of the following acts against the petitioner and other persons protected by the order: Domestic violence; nonconsensual sexual conduct or nonconsensual sexual penetration; sexual abuse; stalking; acts of abandonment, abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation against a vulnerable adult; and unlawful harassment;
(b) Restrain the respondent from making any attempts to have contact, including nonphysical contact, with the petitioner or the petitioner’s family or household members who are minors or other members of the petitioner’s household, either directly, indirectly, or through third parties regardless of whether those third parties know of the order;
(c) Exclude the respondent from the residence that the parties share;
(d) Exclude the respondent from the residence, workplace, or school of the petitioner; or from the day care or school of a minor child;
(e) Restrain the respondent from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance from a specified location including, but not limited to, a residence, school, day care, workplace, the protected party’s person, and the protected party’s vehicle. The specified distance shall presumptively be at least 1,000 feet, unless the court for good cause finds that a shorter specified distance is appropriate;
(f) If the parties have children in common, make residential provisions with regard to their minor children on the same basis as is provided in chapter 26.09 RCW. However, parenting plans as specified in chapter 26.09 RCW must not be required under this chapter. The court may not delay or defer relief under this chapter on the grounds that the parties could seek a parenting plan or modification to a parenting plan in a different action. A protection order must not be denied on the grounds that the parties have an existing parenting plan in effect. A protection order may suspend the respondent’s contact with the parties’ children under an existing parenting plan, subject to further orders in a family law proceeding;
(g) Order the respondent to participate in a state-certified domestic violence perpetrator treatment program approved under RCW 43.20A.735 or a state-certified sex offender treatment program approved under RCW 18.155.070;
(h) Order the respondent to obtain a mental health or chemical dependency evaluation. If the court determines that a mental health evaluation is necessary, the court shall clearly document the reason for this determination and provide a specific question or questions to be answered by the mental health professional. The court shall consider the ability of the respondent to pay for an evaluation. Minors are presumed to be unable to pay. The parent or legal guardian is responsible for costs unless the parent or legal guardian demonstrates inability to pay;
(i) In cases where the petitioner and the respondent are students who attend the same public or private elementary, middle, or high school, the court, when issuing a protection order and providing relief, shall consider, among the other facts of the case, the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger, emotional distress, or educational disruption to the petitioner, and the financial difficulty and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public or private elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner. If a minor respondent is prohibited attendance at the minor’s assigned public school, the school district must provide the student comparable educational services in another setting. In such a case, the district shall provide transportation at no cost to the respondent if the respondent’s parent or legal guardian is unable to pay for transportation. The district shall put in place any needed supports to ensure successful transition to the new school environment. The court shall send notice of the restriction on attending the same school as the petitioner to the public or private school the respondent will attend and to the school the petitioner attends;
(j) Require the respondent to pay the administrative court costs and service fees, as established by the county or municipality incurring the expense, and to reimburse the petitioner for costs incurred in bringing the action, including reasonable attorneys’ fees or limited license legal technician fees when such fees are incurred by a person licensed and practicing in accordance with state supreme court admission and practice rule 28, the limited practice rule for limited license legal technicians. Minors are presumed to be unable to pay. The parent or legal guardian is responsible for costs unless the parent or legal guardian demonstrates inability to pay;
(k) Restrain the respondent from harassing, following, monitoring, keeping under physical or electronic surveillance, cyber harassment as defined in RCW 9A.90.120, and using telephonic, audiovisual, or other electronic means to monitor the actions, location, or communication of the petitioner or the petitioner’s family or household members who are minors or other members of the petitioner’s household. For the purposes of this subsection, “communication” includes both “wire communication” and “electronic communication” as defined in RCW 9.73.260;
(l) Other than for respondents who are minors, require the respondent to submit to electronic monitoring. The order must specify who shall provide the electronic monitoring services and the terms under which the monitoring must be performed. The order also may include a requirement that the respondent pay the costs of the monitoring. The court shall consider the ability of the respondent to pay for electronic monitoring;
(m) Consider the provisions of RCW 9.41.800, and order the respondent to surrender, and prohibit the respondent from accessing, having in his or her custody or control, possessing, purchasing, attempting to purchase or receive, or receiving, all firearms, dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license, as required in RCW 9.41.800;
(n) Order possession and use of essential personal effects. The court shall list the essential personal effects with sufficient specificity to make it clear which property is included. Personal effects may include pets. The court may order that a petitioner be granted the exclusive custody or control of any pet owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by the petitioner, respondent, or minor child residing with either the petitioner or respondent, and may prohibit the respondent from interfering with the petitioner’s efforts to obtain the pet. The court may also prohibit the respondent from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance of specified locations where the pet is regularly found;
(o) Order use of a vehicle;
(p) Enter an order restricting the respondent from engaging in abusive litigation as set forth in chapter 26.51 RCW or in frivolous filings against the petitioner, making harassing or libelous communications about the petitioner to third parties, or making false reports to investigative agencies. A petitioner may request this relief in the petition or by separate motion. A petitioner may request this relief by separate motion at any time within five years of the date the protection order is entered even if the order has since expired. A stand-alone motion for an order restricting abusive litigation may be brought by a party who meets the requirements of chapter 26.51 RCW regardless of whether the party has previously sought a protection order under this chapter, provided the motion is made within five years of the date the order that made a finding of domestic violence was entered. In cases where a finding of domestic violence was entered pursuant to an order under chapter 26.09, *26.26, or 26.26A RCW, a motion for an order restricting abusive litigation may be brought under the family law case or as a stand-alone action filed under this chapter, when it is not reasonable or practical to file under the family law case;
(q) Restrain the respondent from committing acts of abandonment, abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation against a vulnerable adult;
(r) Require an accounting by the respondent of the disposition of the vulnerable adult’s income or other resources;
(s) Restrain the transfer of either the respondent’s or vulnerable adult’s property, or both, for a specified period not exceeding 90 days;
(t) Order financial relief and restrain the transfer of jointly owned assets;
(u) Restrain the respondent from possessing or distributing intimate images, as defined in RCW 9A.86.010, depicting the petitioner including, but not limited to, requiring the respondent to: Take down and delete all intimate images and recordings of the petitioner in the respondent’s possession or control; and cease any and all disclosure of those intimate images. The court may also inform the respondent that it would be appropriate to ask third parties in possession or control of the intimate images of this protection order to take down and delete the intimate images so that the order may not inadvertently be violated; or
(v) Order other relief as it deems necessary for the protection of the petitioner and other family or household members who are minors or vulnerable adults for whom the petitioner has sought protection, including orders or directives to a law enforcement officer, as allowed under this chapter.
(2) In an antiharassment protection order proceeding, the court may grant the relief specified in subsection (1)(c), (f), and (t) of this section only as part of a full antiharassment protection order.
(3) The court in granting a temporary antiharassment protection order or a civil antiharassment protection order shall not prohibit the respondent from exercising constitutionally protected free speech. Nothing in this section prohibits the petitioner from utilizing other civil or criminal remedies to restrain conduct or communications not otherwise constitutionally protected.
(4) The court shall not take any of the following actions in issuing a protection order.
(a) The court may not order the petitioner to obtain services including, but not limited to, drug testing, victim support services, a mental health assessment, or a psychological evaluation.
(b) The court shall not issue a full protection order to any party except upon notice to the respondent and the opportunity for a hearing pursuant to a petition or counter-petition filed and served by the party seeking relief in accordance with this chapter. Except as provided in RCW 7.105.210, the court shall not issue a temporary protection order to any party unless the party has filed a petition or counter-petition for a protection order seeking relief in accordance with this chapter.
(c) Under no circumstances shall the court deny the petitioner the type of protection order sought in the petition on the grounds that the court finds that a different type of protection order would have a less severe impact on the respondent.
(5) The order shall specify the date the order expires, if any. For permanent orders, the court shall set the date to expire 99 years from the issuance date. The order shall also state whether the court issued the protection order following personal service, service by electronic means, service by mail, or service by publication, and whether the court has approved service by mail or publication of an order issued under this section.
7.105.315. Duration of full protection orders--Other than for extreme risk protection orders
(1) When issuing an order after notice to the respondent and a hearing, the court may either grant relief for a fixed period of time or enter a permanent order of protection. Other than for antiharassment orders, the court shall not grant relief for less than one year unless the petitioner has specifically requested relief for a shorter period of time.
(2)(a) If a protection order restrains the respondent from contacting the respondent’s minor children, the restraint must be for a fixed period not to exceed one year. This limitation is not applicable to protection orders issued under chapter 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW.
(b) If the petitioner has petitioned for relief on behalf of the respondent’s minor children, the court shall advise the petitioner that if the petitioner wants to continue protection for a period beyond one year, the petitioner may either petition for renewal pursuant to the provisions of this chapter or may seek relief pursuant to the provisions of chapter 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW.
7.105.325. Entry of protection order data--Other than for extreme risk protection orders
(1) The clerk of the court shall enter any protection order, including temporary protection orders, issued under this chapter into a statewide judicial information system on the same day such order is issued, if possible, but no later than the next judicial day.
(2) A copy of a protection order granted under this chapter, including temporary protection orders, must be forwarded immediately by the clerk of the court, by electronic means if possible, to the law enforcement agency specified in the order. Upon receipt of the order, the law enforcement agency shall immediately enter the order into any computer-based criminal intelligence information system available in this state used by law enforcement agencies to list outstanding warrants. The order must remain in the computer until the expiration date specified on the order. If the court has entered an order that prohibits the respondent from possessing or purchasing a firearm, the law enforcement agency shall also enter the order into the national instant criminal background check system and any other federal or state computer-based systems used by law enforcement or others to identify prohibited purchasers of firearms. The order must remain in each system for the period stated in the order, and the law enforcement agency shall only expunge orders from the systems that have expired or terminated. Entry into the computer-based criminal intelligence information system constitutes notice to all law enforcement agencies of the existence of the order. The order is fully enforceable in any county in the state.
(3) The information entered into the computer-based criminal intelligence information system must include notice to law enforcement on whether the order was personally served, served by electronic means, served by publication, or served by mail.
(4) If a law enforcement agency receives a protection order for entry or service, but the order falls outside the agency’s jurisdiction, the agency may enter and serve the order or may immediately forward it to the appropriate law enforcement agency for entry and service, and shall provide documentation back to the court verifying which law enforcement agency has entered and will serve the order.
7.105.330. Temporary protection orders--Extreme risk protection orders
(1) In considering whether to issue a temporary extreme risk protection order, the court shall consider all relevant evidence, including the evidence described in RCW 7.105.215.
(2) If a court finds there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent poses a significant danger of causing personal injury to self or others in the near future by having in the respondent’s custody or control, purchasing, possessing, accessing, receiving, or attempting to purchase or receive, a firearm, the court shall issue a temporary extreme risk protection order.
(3) A temporary extreme risk protection order must include:
(a) A statement of the grounds asserted for the order;
(b) The date and time the order was issued;
(c) The date and time the order expires;
(d) The address of the court in which any responsive pleading should be filed;
(e) The date and time of the scheduled hearing;
(f) A description of the requirements for the surrender of firearms under RCW 7.105.340; and
(g) The following statement: “To the subject of this protection order: This order is valid until the date and time noted above. You are required to surrender all firearms in your custody, control, or possession. You may not have in your custody or control, access, possess, purchase, receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, a firearm, or a concealed pistol license, while this order is in effect. You must surrender to the (insert name of local law enforcement agency) all firearms in your custody, control, or possession, and any concealed pistol license issued to you under RCW 9.41.070 immediately. A hearing will be held on the date and at the time noted above to determine if an extreme risk protection order should be issued. Failure to appear at that hearing may result in a court making an order against you that is valid for one year. You may seek the advice of an attorney as to any matter connected with this order.”
(4) A temporary extreme risk protection order issued expires upon the full hearing on the petition for an extreme risk protection order, unless reissued by the court.
(5) A temporary extreme risk protection order must be served by a law enforcement officer in the same manner as provided for in RCW 7.105.155 for service of the notice of hearing and petition, and must be served concurrently with the notice of hearing and petition.
(6) If the court declines to issue a temporary extreme risk protection order, the court shall state the particular reasons for the court’s denial.
7.105.335. Full orders--Extreme risk protection orders
(1) An extreme risk protection order issued after notice and a hearing must include:
(a) A statement of the grounds supporting the issuance of the order;
(b) The date and time the order was issued;
(c) The date and time the order expires;
(d) Whether a behavioral health evaluation of the respondent is required;
(e) The address of the court in which any responsive pleading should be filed;
(f) A description of the requirements for the surrender of firearms under RCW 7.105.340; and
(g) The following statement: “To the subject of this protection order: This order will last until the date and time noted above. If you have not done so already, you must surrender to the (insert name of local law enforcement agency) all firearms in your custody, control, or possession, and any concealed pistol license issued to you under RCW 9.41.070 immediately. You may not have in your custody or control, access, possess, purchase, receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, a firearm, or a concealed pistol license, while this order is in effect. You have the right to request one hearing to terminate this order every 12-month period that this order is in effect, starting from the date of this order and continuing through any renewals. You may seek the advice of an attorney as to any matter connected with this order.”
(2) When the court issues an extreme risk protection order, the court shall inform the respondent that the respondent is entitled to request termination of the order in the manner prescribed by RCW 7.105.505. The court shall provide the respondent with a form to request a termination hearing.
7.105.340. Surrender of firearms--Extreme risk protection orders
(1) Upon the issuance of any extreme risk protection order under this chapter, including a temporary extreme risk protection order, the court shall:
(a) Order the respondent to surrender to the local law enforcement agency all firearms in the respondent’s custody, control, or possession, or subject to the respondent’s immediate possession or control, and any concealed pistol license issued under RCW 9.41.070; and
(b) Other than for ex parte temporary protection orders, direct law enforcement to revoke any concealed pistol license issued to the respondent.
(2) The law enforcement officer serving any extreme risk protection order under this chapter, including a temporary extreme risk protection order, shall request that the respondent immediately surrender all firearms in the respondent’s custody, control, or possession, and any concealed pistol license issued under RCW 9.41.070, and conduct any search permitted by law for such firearms. The law enforcement officer shall take possession of all firearms belonging to the respondent that are surrendered, in plain sight, or discovered pursuant to a lawful search. If the order is entered in open court and the respondent appears in person, the respondent must be provided a copy and further service is not required. If the respondent refuses to accept a copy, an agent of the court may indicate on the record that the respondent refused to accept a copy of the order. If the respondent appears remotely for the hearing, or leaves the hearing before a final ruling is issued or order signed, and the court believes the respondent has sufficient notice such that additional service is not necessary, the order must recite that the respondent appeared before the court, has actual notice of the order, the necessity for further service is waived, and proof of service of the order is not necessary. The court shall enter the service and receipt into the record. A copy of the order and service must be transmitted immediately to law enforcement. The respondent must immediately surrender all firearms and any concealed pistol license, not previously surrendered, in a safe manner to the control of the local law enforcement agency on the day of the hearing at which the respondent was present in person or remotely. If the respondent is in custody, arrangements to recover the firearms must be made prior to release. Alternatively, if personal service by a law enforcement officer is not possible, and the respondent did not appear in person or remotely at the hearing, the respondent shall surrender the firearms in a safe manner to the control of the local law enforcement agency within 24 hours of being served with the order by alternate service.
(3) At the time of surrender, a law enforcement officer taking possession of a firearm or concealed pistol license shall issue a receipt identifying all firearms that have been surrendered and provide a copy of the receipt to the respondent. Within 72 hours after service of the order, the officer serving the order shall file the original receipt with the court and shall ensure that the officer’s law enforcement agency retains a copy of the receipt.
(4) Upon the sworn statement or testimony of the petitioner or of any law enforcement officer alleging that the respondent has failed to comply with the surrender of firearms as required by an order issued under this chapter, the court shall determine whether probable cause exists to believe that the respondent has failed to surrender all firearms in the respondent’s possession, custody, or control. If probable cause for a violation of the order exists, the court shall issue a warrant describing the firearms and authorizing a search of the locations where the firearms are reasonably believed to be and the seizure of any firearms discovered pursuant to such search.
(5) If a person other than the respondent claims title to any firearms surrendered pursuant to this section, and that person is determined by the law enforcement agency to be the lawful owner of the firearm, the firearm must be returned to that person, provided that:
(a) The firearm is removed from the respondent’s custody, control, or possession, and the lawful owner provides written verification to the court regarding how the lawful owner will safely store the firearm in a manner such that the respondent does not have access to, or control of, the firearm for the duration of the order;
(b) The court advises the lawful owner of the penalty for failure to do so; and
(c) The firearm is not otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner.
(6) Upon the issuance of a one-year extreme risk protection order, the court shall order a new compliance review hearing date and require the respondent to appear not later than three judicial days from the issuance of the order. The court shall require a showing that the respondent has surrendered any firearms in the respondent’s custody, control, or possession, and any concealed pistol license issued under RCW 9.41.070 to a law enforcement agency. The compliance review hearing is not required upon a satisfactory showing on which the court can otherwise enter findings on the record that the respondent has timely and completely surrendered all firearms in the respondent’s custody, control, or possession, and any concealed pistol license issued under RCW 9.41.070 to a law enforcement agency, and is in compliance with the order. If the court does not have a sufficient record before it on which to make such a finding, the court must set a review hearing to occur as soon as possible, at which the respondent must be present and provide proof of compliance with the court’s order.
(7)(a) If a court finds at the compliance review hearing, or any other hearing where compliance with the order is addressed, that there is probable cause to believe the respondent was aware of, and failed to fully comply with, the order, failed to appear at the compliance review hearing, or violated the order after the court entered findings of compliance, pursuant to its authority under chapter 7.21 RCW, the court may initiate a contempt proceeding on its own motion, or upon the motion of the prosecutor, city attorney, or the petitioner’s counsel, to impose remedial sanctions, and issue an order requiring the respondent to appear, provide proof of compliance with the order, and show cause why the respondent should not be held in contempt of court.
(b) If the respondent is not present in court at the compliance review hearing or if the court issues an order to appear and show cause after a compliance review hearing, the clerk of the court shall electronically transmit a copy of the order to show cause to the law enforcement agency where the respondent resides for personal service or service in the manner provided in the civil rules of superior court or applicable statute.
(c) The order to show cause served upon the respondent shall state the date, time, and location of the hearing, and shall include a warning that the respondent may be held in contempt of court if the respondent fails to promptly comply with the terms of the extreme risk protection order and a warning that an arrest warrant could be issued if the respondent fails to appear on the date and time provided in the order to show cause.
(d)(i) At the show cause hearing, the respondent must be present and provide proof of compliance with the extreme risk protection order and demonstrate why the relief requested should not be granted.
(ii) The court shall take judicial notice of the receipt filed with the court by the law enforcement agency pursuant to subsection (3) of this section. The court shall also provide sufficient notice to the law enforcement agency of the hearing. Upon receiving notice pursuant to this subsection, a law enforcement agency must:
(A) Provide the court with a complete list of firearms surrendered by the respondent or otherwise belonging to the respondent that are in the possession of the law enforcement agency; and
(B) Provide the court with verification that any concealed pistol license issued to the respondent has been surrendered and that a law enforcement agency with authority to revoke the license has been notified.
(iii) If the law enforcement agency has a reasonable suspicion that the respondent is not in full compliance with the terms of the order, the law enforcement agency must submit the basis for its belief to the court, and may do so through the filing of an affidavit.
(e) If the court finds the respondent in contempt, the court may impose remedial sanctions designed to ensure swift compliance with the order to surrender and prohibit weapons.
(f) The court may order a respondent found in contempt of the order to pay for any losses incurred by a party in connection with the contempt proceeding, including reasonable attorneys’ fees, service fees, and other costs. The costs of the proceeding must not be borne by the petitioner.
(8)(a) To help ensure that accurate and comprehensive information about firearms compliance is provided to judicial officers, a representative from either the prosecuting attorney’s office or city attorney’s office, or both, from the relevant jurisdiction may appear and be heard or submit written information at any hearing that concerns compliance with an extreme risk protection order.
(b) Either the prosecuting attorney’s office or city attorney’s office, or both, from the relevant jurisdiction may designate an advocate or a staff person from their office who is not an attorney to appear on behalf of their office. Such appearance does not constitute the unauthorized practice of law.
(9)(a) An extreme risk protection order must state that the act of voluntarily surrendering firearms, or providing testimony relating to the surrender of firearms, pursuant to such an order, may not be used against the respondent in any criminal prosecution under this chapter, chapter 9.41 RCW, or RCW 9A.56.310.
(b) To provide relevant information to the court to determine compliance with the order, the court may allow the prosecuting attorney or city attorney to question the respondent regarding compliance.
(10) All law enforcement agencies must develop and implement policies and procedures regarding the acceptance, storage, and return of firearms required to be surrendered under this chapter. Any surrendered firearms must be handled and stored properly to prevent damage or degradation in appearance or function, and the condition of the surrendered firearms documented, including by digital photograph. A law enforcement agency holding any surrendered firearm or concealed pistol license shall comply with the provisions of RCW 9.41.340 and 9.41.345 before the return of the firearm or concealed pistol license to the owner or individual from whom it was obtained.
7.105.345. Firearms return and disposal--Extreme risk protection orders
(1) If an extreme risk protection order is terminated or expires without renewal, a law enforcement agency holding any firearm that has been surrendered pursuant to this chapter shall return any surrendered firearm requested by a respondent only after confirming, through a background check, that the respondent is currently eligible to own or possess firearms under federal and state law, and after confirming with the court that the extreme risk protection order has terminated or has expired without renewal.
(2) A law enforcement agency must, if requested, provide prior notice of the return of a firearm to a respondent to family or household members and to an intimate partner of the respondent in the manner provided in RCW 9.41.340 and 9.41.345.
(3) Any firearm surrendered by a respondent pursuant to RCW 7.105.340 that remains unclaimed by the lawful owner shall be disposed of in accordance with the law enforcement agency’s policies and procedures for the disposal of firearms in police custody.
7.105.350. Reporting of orders--Extreme risk protection orders
(1) The clerk of the court shall enter any extreme risk protection order, including temporary extreme risk protection orders, issued under this chapter into a statewide judicial information system on the same day such order is issued, if possible, but no later than the next judicial day.
(2) A copy of an extreme risk protection order granted under this chapter, including temporary extreme risk protection orders, must be forwarded immediately by the clerk of the court, by electronic means if possible, to the law enforcement agency specified in the order. Upon receipt of the order, the law enforcement agency shall immediately enter the order into the national instant criminal background check system, any other federal or state computer-based systems used by law enforcement or others to identify prohibited purchasers of firearms, and any computer-based criminal intelligence information system available in this state used by law enforcement agencies to list outstanding warrants. The order must remain in each system for the period stated in the order, and the law enforcement agency shall only expunge orders from the systems that have expired or terminated. Entry into the computer-based criminal intelligence information system constitutes notice to all law enforcement agencies of the existence of the order. The order is fully enforceable in any county in the state.
(3) The information entered into the computer-based criminal intelligence information system must include notice to law enforcement whether the order was personally served, served by electronic means, served by publication, or served by mail.
(4) If a law enforcement agency receives a protection order for entry or service, but the order falls outside the agency’s jurisdiction, the agency may enter and serve the order or may immediately forward it to the appropriate law enforcement agency for entry and service, and shall provide documentation back to the court verifying which law enforcement agency has entered and will serve the order.
(5) The issuing court shall, within three judicial days after the issuance of any extreme risk protection order, including a temporary extreme risk protection order, forward a copy of the respondent’s driver’s license or identicard, or comparable information, along with the date of order issuance, to the department of licensing. Upon receipt of the information, the department of licensing shall determine if the respondent has a concealed pistol license. If the respondent does have a concealed pistol license, the department of licensing shall immediately notify a law enforcement agency that the court has directed the revocation of the license. The law enforcement agency, upon receipt of such notification, shall immediately revoke the license.
(6) If an extreme risk protection order is terminated before its expiration date, the clerk of the court shall forward on the same day a copy of the termination order to the department of licensing and the law enforcement agency specified in the termination order. Upon receipt of the order, the law enforcement agency shall promptly remove the order from any computer-based system in which it was entered pursuant to subsection (2) of this section.
7.105.355. Sealing of records--Extreme risk protection orders
(1) A respondent under the age of 18, or a respondent whose extreme risk protection order was based solely on threats of self-harm by the respondent, may petition the court to have the court records sealed from public view at the time of the issuance of the full order, at any time during the life of the order, or at any time after its expiration.
(2) The court shall seal the court records from public view if there are no other active protection orders against the restrained party, there are no pending violations of the order, and there is evidence of full compliance with the surrender of firearms as ordered by the extreme risk protection order.
(3) Nothing in this section changes the requirement for the order to be entered into, and maintained in, computer-based systems as required in RCW 7.105.350.
7.105.360. Certain findings and information in orders
(1) Orders issued by the court following a hearing must identify the persons who participated in the hearing and whether each person appeared in person, by telephone, by video, or by other electronic means. If the respondent appeared at the hearing, the order must identify that the respondent has knowledge of the court’s order.
(2) Courts shall not accept agreed orders unless there are findings indicating whether the respondent is a credible threat to the physical safety of the protected person or child.
(3) The court shall ensure that in issuing protection orders, including, but not limited to, orders to reissue temporary protection orders and orders to renew protection orders, the court specifies whether the respondent is ordered to surrender, and prohibited from possessing, firearms and dangerous weapons.
(4) If the court issued a temporary protection order that included a temporary order to surrender and prohibit weapons, the temporary order to surrender and prohibit weapons must automatically reissue with the temporary protection order. If the court determines by a preponderance of the evidence that irreparable injury to the petitioner will not result through the modification or termination of the order to surrender and prohibit weapons as originally entered, then the court must make specific findings.
(5) If the court has information regarding any of the respondent’s known aliases, that information must be included in the protection order.
7.105.365. Errors in protection orders
After a protection order is issued, the court may correct clerical or technical errors in the order at any time. The court may correct errors either on the court’s own initiative or upon notice to the court of an error. If the court corrects an error in an order, the court shall provide notice of the correction to the parties and the person who notified the court of the error, and shall provide a copy of the corrected order. The court shall direct the clerk to forward the corrected order on or before the next judicial day to the law enforcement agency specified in the order.
7.105.400. Reissuance of temporary protection orders
(1) A temporary protection order issued under this chapter may be reissued for the following reasons:
(a) Agreement of the parties;
(b) To provide additional time to effect service of the temporary protection order on the respondent; or
(c) If the court, in writing, finds good cause to reissue the order.
(2) Any temporary orders to surrender and prohibit weapons must also be automatically reissued with the temporary protection order.
(3) To ensure that a petitioner is not delayed in receiving a hearing on a petition for a protection order, there is a rebuttable presumption that a temporary protection order should not be reissued more than once or for more than 30 days at the request of the respondent, absent agreement of the parties, good cause, or the need to provide additional time to effect service.
(4) When considering any request to stay, continue, or delay a hearing under this chapter because of the pendency of a parallel criminal investigation or prosecution of the respondent, courts shall apply a rebuttable presumption against such delay and give due recognition to the purpose of this chapter to provide victims quick and effective relief. Courts must consider on the record the following factors:
(a) The extent to which a defendant’s Fifth Amendment rights are or are not implicated, given the special nature of protection order proceedings which burden a defendant’s Fifth Amendment privilege substantially less than do other civil proceedings;
(b) Similarities between the civil and criminal cases;
(c) Status of the criminal case;
(d) The interests of the petitioners in proceeding expeditiously with litigation and the potential prejudice and risk to petitioners of a delay;
(e) The burden that any particular aspect of the proceeding may impose on respondents;
(f) The convenience of the court in the management of its cases and the efficient use of judicial resources;
(g) The interests of persons not parties to the civil litigation; and
(h) The interest of the public in the pending civil and criminal litigation.
(5) Courts shall not require a petitioner to complete a new confidential information form when a temporary protection order is reissued or when a full order for a fixed time period is entered, unless the petitioner indicates that the information needs to be updated or amended. The clerk shall transmit the order to the law enforcement agency identified in the order for service, along with a copy of the confidential party information form received from the respondent, if available, or the petitioner’s confidential party information form to assist law enforcement in serving the order.
7.105.405. Renewal of protection orders--Other than extreme risk protection orders
The following provisions apply to the renewal of all full protection orders issued under this chapter, with the exception of the renewal of extreme risk protection orders.
(1) If the court grants a protection order for a fixed time period, the petitioner may file a motion to renew the order at any time within the 90 days before the order expires. The motion for renewal must state the reasons the petitioner seeks to renew the protection order. Upon receipt of a motion for renewal, the court shall order a hearing, which must be not later than 14 days from the date of the order. Service must be made on the respondent not less than five judicial days before the hearing, as provided in RCW 7.105.150.
(2) If the motion for renewal is uncontested and the petitioner seeks no modification of the order, the order may be renewed on the basis of the petitioner’s motion and statement of the reason for the requested renewal.
(3) The petitioner bears no burden of proving that he or she has a current reasonable fear of harm by the respondent.
(4) The court shall grant the motion for renewal unless the respondent proves by a preponderance of the evidence that there has been a substantial change in circumstances and the following:
(a) For a domestic violence protection order, that the respondent proves that the respondent will not resume acts of domestic violence against the petitioner or the petitioner’s family or household members who are minors or vulnerable adults when the order expires;
(b) For a sexual assault protection order, that the respondent proves that the respondent will not engage in, or attempt to engage in, physical or nonphysical contact with the petitioner when the order expires;
(c) For a stalking protection order, that the respondent proves that the respondent will not resume acts of stalking against the petitioner or the petitioner’s family or household members when the order expires;
(d) For a vulnerable adult protection order, that the respondent proves that the respondent will not resume acts of abandonment, abuse, financial exploitation, or neglect against the vulnerable adult when the order expires; or
(e) For an antiharassment protection order, that the respondent proves that the respondent will not resume harassment of the petitioner when the order expires.
(5) In determining whether there has been a substantial change in circumstances, the court may consider the following unweighted factors, and no inference is to be drawn from the order in which the factors are listed:
(a) Whether the respondent has committed or threatened sexual assault; domestic violence; stalking; abandonment, abuse, financial exploitation, or neglect of a vulnerable adult; or other harmful acts against the petitioner or any other person since the protection order was entered;
(b) Whether the respondent has violated the terms of the protection order and the time that has passed since the entry of the order;
(c) Whether the respondent has exhibited suicidal ideation or attempts since the protection order was entered;
(d) Whether the respondent has been convicted of criminal activity since the protection order was entered;
(e) Whether the respondent has either: Acknowledged responsibility for acts of sexual assault, domestic violence, or stalking, or acts of abandonment, abuse, financial exploitation, or neglect of a vulnerable adult, or behavior that resulted in the entry of the protection order; or successfully completed state-certified perpetrator treatment or counseling since the protection order was entered;
(f) Whether the respondent has a continuing involvement with drug or alcohol abuse, if such abuse was a factor in the protection order; and
(g) Other factors relating to a substantial change in circumstances.
(6) The court shall not deny a motion to renew a protection order for any of the following reasons:
(a) The respondent has not violated the protection order previously issued by the court;
(b) The petitioner or the respondent is a minor;
(c) The petitioner did not report the conduct giving rise to the protection order, or subsequent violations of the protection order, to law enforcement;
(d) A no-contact order or a restraining order that restrains the respondent’s contact with the petitioner has been issued in a criminal proceeding or in a domestic relations proceeding;
(e) The relief sought by the petitioner may be available in a different action or proceeding;
(f) The passage of time since the last incident of conduct giving rise to the issuance of the protection order; or
(g) The respondent no longer lives near the petitioner.
(7) The terms of the original protection order must not be changed on a motion for renewal unless the petitioner has requested the change.
(8) The court may renew the protection order for another fixed time period of no less than one year, or may enter a permanent order as provided in this section.
(9) If the protection order includes the parties’ children, a renewed protection order may be issued for more than one year, subject to subsequent orders entered in a proceeding under chapter 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW.
(10) The court may award court costs, service fees, and reasonable attorneys’ fees to the petitioner as provided in RCW 7.105.310.
(11) If the court declines to renew the protection order, the court shall state, in writing in the order, the particular reasons for the court’s denial. If the court declines to renew a protection order that had restrained the respondent from having contact with children protected by the order, the court shall determine on the record whether the respondent and the children should undergo reunification therapy. Any reunification therapy provider should be made aware of the respondent’s history of domestic violence and should have training and experience in the dynamics of intimate partner violence.
(12) In determining whether there has been a substantial change in circumstances for respondents under the age of 18, or in determining the appropriate duration for an order, the court shall consider the circumstances surrounding the respondent’s youth at the time of the initial behavior alleged in the petition for a protection order. The court shall consider developmental factors, including the impact of time of a youth’s development, and any information the minor respondent presents about his or her personal progress or change in circumstances.
7.105.410. Renewal--Extreme risk protection orders
The following provisions apply to the renewal of extreme risk protection orders.
(1) The court must notify the petitioner of the impending expiration of an extreme risk protection order. Notice must be received by the petitioner 105 calendar days before the date the order expires.
(2) An intimate partner or family or household member of a respondent, or a law enforcement agency, may by motion request a renewal of an extreme risk protection order at any time within 90 days before the expiration of the order.
(a) Upon receipt of the motion to renew, the court shall order that a hearing be held not later than 14 days from the date the order issues.
(b) In determining whether to renew an extreme risk protection order issued under this section, the court shall consider all relevant evidence presented by the petitioner and follow the same procedure as provided in RCW 7.105.215.
(c) If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the requirements for the issuance of an extreme risk protection order as provided in RCW 7.105.215 continue to be met, the court shall renew the order. However, if, after notice, the motion for renewal is uncontested and the petitioner seeks no modification of the order, the order may be renewed on the basis of the petitioner’s motion and statement of the reason for the requested renewal.
(d) The renewal of an extreme risk protection order has a duration of one year, subject to termination as provided in RCW 7.105.505 or further renewal by order of the court.
7.105.450. Enforcement and penalties--Other than antiharassment protection orders and extreme risk protection orders
(1)(a) Whenever a domestic violence protection order, a sexual assault protection order, a stalking protection order, or a vulnerable adult protection order is granted under this chapter, or an order is granted under chapter 9A.40, 9A.44, 9A.46, 9A.88, 9.94A, 10.77, 10.99, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW, or there is a valid foreign protection order as defined in RCW 26.52.020, or there is a Canadian domestic violence protection order as defined in RCW 26.55.010, and the respondent or person to be restrained knows of the order, a violation of any of the following provisions of the order is a gross misdemeanor, except as provided in subsections (4) and (5) of this section:
(i) The restraint provisions prohibiting acts or threats of violence against, or stalking of, a protected party, or the restraint provisions prohibiting contact with a protected party;
(ii) A provision excluding the person from a residence, workplace, school, or day care;
(iii) A provision prohibiting the person from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance of a location, a protected party’s person, or a protected party’s vehicle;
(iv) A provision prohibiting interfering with the protected party’s efforts to remove a pet owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by the petitioner, the respondent, or a minor child residing with either the petitioner or the respondent; or
(v) A provision of a foreign protection order or a Canadian domestic violence protection order specifically indicating that a violation will be a crime.
(b) Upon conviction, and in addition to any other penalties provided by law, the court:
(i) May require that the respondent submit to electronic monitoring. The court shall specify who must provide the electronic monitoring services and the terms under which the monitoring must be performed. The order also may include a requirement that the respondent pay the costs of the monitoring. The court shall consider the ability of the convicted person to pay for electronic monitoring; and
(ii) Shall impose a fine of $15, in addition to any penalty or fine imposed, for a violation of a domestic violence protection order issued under this chapter. Revenue from the $15 fine must be remitted monthly to the state treasury for deposit in the domestic violence prevention account.
(2) A law enforcement officer shall arrest without a warrant and take into custody a person whom the law enforcement officer has probable cause to believe has violated a domestic violence protection order, a sexual assault protection order, a stalking protection order, or a vulnerable adult protection order, or an order issued under chapter 9A.40, 9A.44, 9A.46, 9A.88, 9.94A, 10.77, 10.99, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW, or a valid foreign protection order as defined in RCW 26.52.020, or a Canadian domestic violence protection order as defined in RCW 26.55.010, that restrains the person or excludes the person from a residence, workplace, school, or day care, or prohibits the person from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance of a location, a protected party’s person, or a protected party’s vehicle, if the person restrained knows of the order. Presence of the order in the law enforcement computer-based criminal intelligence information system is not the only means of establishing knowledge of the order.
(3) A violation of a domestic violence protection order, a sexual assault protection order, a stalking protection order, or a vulnerable adult protection order, or an order issued under chapter 9A.40, 9A.44, 9A.46, 9A.88, 9.94A, 10.77, 10.99, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW, or a valid foreign protection order as defined in RCW 26.52.020, or a Canadian domestic violence protection order as defined in RCW 26.55.010, shall also constitute contempt of court, and is subject to the penalties prescribed by law.
(4) Any assault that is a violation of a domestic violence protection order, a sexual assault protection order, a stalking protection order, or a vulnerable adult protection order, or an order issued under chapter 9A.40, 9A.44, 9A.46, 9A.88, 9.94A, 10.77, 10.99, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW, or a valid foreign protection order as defined in RCW 26.52.020, or a Canadian domestic violence protection order as defined in RCW 26.55.010, and that does not amount to assault in the first or second degree under RCW 9A.36.011 or 9A.36.021 is a class C felony, and any conduct in violation of such an order that is reckless and creates a substantial risk of death or serious physical injury to another person is a class C felony.
(5) A violation of a domestic violence protection order, a sexual assault protection order, a stalking protection order, or a vulnerable adult protection order, or a court order issued under chapter 9A.40, 9A.44, 9A.46, 9A.88, 9.94A, 10.77, 10.99, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW, or a valid foreign protection order as defined in RCW 26.52.020, or a Canadian domestic violence protection order as defined in RCW 26.55.010, is a class C felony if the offender has at least two previous convictions for violating the provisions of a domestic violence protection order, a sexual assault protection order, a stalking protection order, or a vulnerable adult protection order, or an order issued under chapter 9A.40, 9A.44, 9A.46, 9A.88, 9.94A, 10.77, 10.99, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW, or a valid foreign protection order as defined in RCW 26.52.020, or a Canadian domestic violence protection order as defined in RCW 26.55.010. The previous convictions may involve the same victim or other victims specifically protected by the orders the offender violated.
(6)(a) A defendant arrested for violating a domestic violence protection order, sexual assault protection order, stalking protection order, or vulnerable adult protection order, or an order granted under chapter 9A.40, 9A.44, 9A.46, 9A.88, 9.94A, 10.77, 10.99, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW, or a valid foreign protection order as defined in RCW 26.52.020, or a Canadian domestic violence protection order as defined in RCW 26.55.010, is required to appear in person before a magistrate within one judicial day after the arrest. At the time of the appearance, the court shall determine the necessity of imposing a no-contact order or other conditions of pretrial release.
(b) A defendant who is charged by citation, complaint, or information with violating any protection order identified in (a) of this subsection and not arrested shall appear in court for arraignment in person as soon as practicable, but in no event later than 14 days after the next day on which court is in session following the issuance of the citation or the filing of the complaint or information.
(7) Upon the filing of an affidavit by the petitioner or any law enforcement officer alleging that the respondent has violated a domestic violence protection order, a sexual assault protection order, a stalking protection order, or a vulnerable adult protection order, or an order granted under chapter 9A.40, 9A.44, 9A.46, 9A.88, 9.94A, 10.77, 10.99, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW, or a valid foreign protection order as defined in RCW 26.52.020, or a Canadian domestic violence protection order as defined in RCW 26.55.010, the court may issue an order to the respondent, requiring the respondent to appear and show cause within 14 days as to why the respondent should not be found in contempt of court and punished accordingly. The hearing may be held in the court of any county or municipality in which the petitioner or respondent temporarily or permanently resides at the time of the alleged violation.
(8) Appearances required under this section are mandatory and cannot be waived.
7.105.455. Enforcement and penalties--Antiharassment protection orders
(1) When the court issues an antiharassment protection order under this chapter, the court shall advise the petitioner that the respondent may not be subjected to the penalties set forth in this section for a violation of the order unless the respondent knows of the order.
(2) A willful disobedience by a respondent age 18 years or over of any of the following provisions of an antiharassment protection order issued under this chapter is a gross misdemeanor:
(a) The restraint provisions prohibiting acts or threats of violence against, or unlawful harassment or stalking of, a protected party, or restraint provisions prohibiting contact with a protected party;
(b) A provision excluding the person from a residence, workplace, school, or day care;
(c) A provision prohibiting the person from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance of a location, a protected party’s person, or a protected party’s vehicle; or
(d) A provision prohibiting interfering with the protected party’s efforts to remove a pet owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by the petitioner, respondent, or a minor child residing with either the petitioner or the respondent.
(3) Any respondent age 18 years or over who willfully disobeys the terms of any antiharassment protection order issued under this chapter may also, in the court’s discretion, be found in contempt of court and subject to penalties under chapter 7.21 RCW.
(4) Any respondent under the age of 18 years who willfully disobeys the terms of an antiharassment protection order issued under this chapter may, in the court’s discretion, be found in contempt of court and subject to the sanction specified in RCW 7.21.030(4), provided that the sanction specified in RCW 7.21.030(4) may be imposed only for willful disobedience of the provisions listed in subsection (2) of this section.
(5) A defendant arrested for violating any antiharassment protection order issued under this chapter is required to appear in person before a magistrate within one judicial day after the arrest. At the time of the appearance, the court shall determine the necessity of imposing a no-contact order or other conditions of pretrial release in accordance with RCW 9A.46.050.
(6) A defendant who is charged by citation, complaint, or information with violating any antiharassment protection order issued under this chapter and not arrested shall appear in court for arraignment in accordance with RCW 9A.46.050.
(7) Appearances required under this section are mandatory and cannot be waived.
7.105.460. Enforcement and penalties--Extreme risk protection orders--False petitions
(1) Any person who files a petition for an extreme risk protection order knowing the information in such petition to be materially false, or with the intent to harass the respondent, is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
(2)(a) Except as provided in (b) of this subsection, any person who has in his or her custody or control, accesses, purchases, possesses, or receives, or attempts to purchase or receive, a firearm with knowledge that he or she is prohibited from doing so by an extreme risk protection order is guilty of a gross misdemeanor, and further is prohibited from having in his or her custody or control, accessing, purchasing, possessing, or receiving, or attempting to purchase or receive, a firearm for a period of five years from the date the existing order expires.
(b) A person is guilty of a class C felony for a violation under (a) of this subsection if the person has two or more previous convictions for violating an order issued under this chapter.
7.105.500. Modification or termination--Other than extreme risk protection orders and vulnerable adult protection orders
This section applies to modification or termination of domestic violence protection orders, sexual assault protection orders, stalking protection orders, and antiharassment protection orders.
(1) Upon a motion with notice to all parties and after a hearing, the court may modify the terms of an existing protection order or terminate an existing order.
(2) A respondent’s motion to modify or terminate an existing protection order must include a declaration setting forth facts supporting the requested order for modification or termination. The nonmoving parties to the proceeding may file opposing declarations. All motions to modify or terminate shall be based on the written materials and evidence submitted to the court. The court shall set a hearing only if the court finds that adequate cause is established. If the court finds that the respondent established adequate cause, the court shall set a date for hearing the respondent’s motion, which must be at least 14 days from the date the court finds adequate cause.
(3) Upon the motion of a respondent, the court may not modify or terminate an existing protection order unless the respondent proves by a preponderance of the evidence that there has been a substantial change in circumstances such that the respondent will not resume, engage in, or attempt to engage in, the following acts against the petitioner or those persons protected by the protection order if the order is terminated or modified:
(a) Acts of domestic violence, in cases involving domestic violence protection orders;
(b) Physical or nonphysical contact, in cases involving sexual assault protection orders;
(c) Acts of stalking, in cases involving stalking protection orders; or
(d) Acts of unlawful harassment, in cases involving antiharassment protection orders.
The petitioner bears no burden of proving that he or she has a current reasonable fear of harm by the respondent.
(4) In determining whether there has been a substantial change in circumstances, the court may consider the following unweighted factors, and no inference is to be drawn from the order in which the factors are listed:
(a) Whether the respondent has committed or threatened sexual assault, domestic violence, stalking, or other harmful acts against the petitioner or any other person since the protection order was entered;
(b) Whether the respondent has violated the terms of the protection order and the time that has passed since the entry of the order;
(c) Whether the respondent has exhibited suicidal ideation or attempts since the protection order was entered;
(d) Whether the respondent has been convicted of criminal activity since the protection order was entered;
(e) Whether the respondent has either acknowledged responsibility for acts of sexual assault, domestic violence, stalking, or behavior that resulted in the entry of the protection order, or successfully completed state-certified perpetrator treatment or counseling since the protection order was entered;
(f) Whether the respondent has a continuing involvement with drug or alcohol abuse, if such abuse was a factor in the protection order;
(g) Whether the petitioner consents to terminating the protection order, provided that consent is given voluntarily and knowingly; or
(h) Other factors relating to a substantial change in circumstances.
(5) In determining whether there has been a substantial change in circumstances, the court may not base its determination on the fact that time has passed without a violation of the order.
(6) Regardless of whether there is a substantial change in circumstances, the court may decline to terminate a protection order if it finds that the acts of domestic violence, sexual assault, stalking, unlawful harassment, and other harmful acts that resulted in the issuance of the protection order were of such severity that the order should not be terminated.
(7) A respondent may file a motion to modify or terminate an order no more than once in every 12-month period that the order is in effect, starting from the date of the order and continuing through any renewal period.
(8) If a person who is protected by a protection order has a child or adopts a child after a protection order has been issued, but before the protection order has expired, the petitioner may seek to include the new child in the order of protection on an ex parte basis if the child is already in the physical custody of the petitioner. If the restrained person is the legal or biological parent of the child, a hearing must be set and notice given to the restrained person prior to final modification of the full protection order.
(9) A court may require the respondent to pay the petitioner for costs incurred in responding to a motion to modify or terminate a protection order, including reasonable attorneys’ fees.
7.105.505. Termination--Extreme risk protection orders
This section applies to the termination of extreme risk protection orders.
(1) The respondent may submit one written request for a hearing to terminate an extreme risk protection order issued under this chapter every 12-month period that the order is in effect, starting from the date of the order and continuing through any renewals.
(2) Upon receipt of the request for a hearing to terminate an extreme risk protection order, the court shall set a date for a hearing. The hearing must occur no sooner than 14 days and no later than 30 days from the date of service of the request upon the petitioner.
(3) The respondent shall have the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the respondent does not pose a significant danger of causing personal injury to self or others by having in his or her custody or control, accessing, possessing, purchasing, receiving, or attempting to purchase or receive, a firearm or other dangerous weapons. The court may consider any relevant evidence, including evidence of the considerations listed in RCW 7.105.215.
(4) If the court finds after the hearing that the respondent has met his or her burden, the court shall terminate the order.
7.105.510. Modification or termination--Vulnerable adult protection orders
This section applies to the modification or termination of vulnerable adult protection orders.
(1) Any vulnerable adult who is not subject to an order under chapter 11.130 RCW may, at any time subsequent to the entry of a permanent protection order under this chapter, file a motion to modify or terminate the protection order. Where a vulnerable adult is subject to an order under chapter 11.130 RCW, the vulnerable adult, or the vulnerable adult’s guardian, conservator, or person acting on behalf of the vulnerable adult under a protective arrangement under chapter 11.130 RCW, may, if within the person’s authority under the guardianship, conservatorship, or protective arrangement, file a motion to modify or terminate the protection order at any time subsequent to the entry of a permanent protection order under this chapter.
(2) In a hearing on a motion to modify or terminate the protection order, the court shall grant such relief consistent with RCW 7.105.310 as it deems necessary for the protection of the vulnerable adult, including modification or termination of the protection order.
7.105.515. Reporting of modification or termination of order
In any situation where a protection order issued under this chapter is modified or terminated before its expiration date, the clerk of the court shall forward on the same day a true copy of the modified order or the termination order to the law enforcement agency specified in the modified or termination order. Upon receipt of the order, the law enforcement agency shall promptly enter it in the computer-based criminal intelligence information system, or if the order is terminated, remove the order from the computer-based criminal intelligence information system.
7.105.550. Orders under this and other chapters--Enforcement and consolidation--Validity and enforcement of orders under prior chapters
(1)(a) Any order available under this chapter, other than an extreme risk protection order, may be issued in actions under chapter 13.32A, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW. If a protection order is issued in an action under chapter 13.32A, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW, the order must be issued on the forms mandated by RCW 7.105.115. An order issued in accordance with this subsection (1)(a) is fully enforceable and must be enforced under the provisions of this chapter.
(b) If a party files an action under chapter 13.32A, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW, an order issued previously under this chapter between the same parties may be consolidated by the court under that action and cause number. Any order issued under this chapter after consolidation must contain the original cause number and the cause number of the action under chapter 13.32A, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW.
(2) Nothing in chapter 215, Laws of 2021 affects the validity of protection orders issued prior to July 1, 2022, under chapter 74.34 RCW or any of the former chapters 7.90, 7.92, 7.94, 10.14, and 26.50 RCW. Protection orders entered prior to July 1, 2022, under chapter 74.34 RCW or any of the former chapters 7.90, 7.92, 7.94, 10.14, and 26.50 RCW are subject to the provisions of chapter 215, Laws of 2021 and are fully enforceable under the applicable provisions of RCW 7.105.450 through 7.105.470 and may be modified or terminated in accordance with the applicable provisions of RCW 7.105.500 through 7.105.550.
7.105.900. Findings--2021 c 215
(1) Washington state has been a national leader in adopting legal protections to prevent and respond to abuse, violence, harassment, stalking, neglect, or other threatening behavior, through the enactment of different types of civil protection orders, which are intended to provide a fast, efficient means to obtain protection against perpetrators of these harms.
(2) Washington state has enacted six different types of civil protection orders: (a) Domestic violence protection orders, adopted by the legislature in 1984; (b) vulnerable adult protection orders, adopted by the legislature in 1986; (c) antiharassment protection orders, adopted by the legislature in 1987; (d) sexual assault protection orders, adopted by the legislature in 2006; (e) stalking protection orders, adopted by the legislature in 2013; and (f) extreme risk protection orders, enacted by a vote of the people through Initiative Measure No. 1491 in 2016.
(3) These civil protection orders are essential tools designed to address significant harms impacting individuals as well as communities. The legislature finds that:
(a) Domestic violence is a problem of immense proportions. About 15 percent of Washington adults report experiencing domestic violence in their lifetime, and women, low-income people, and black and indigenous communities experience higher rates of domestic violence. When domestic violence victims seek to separate from their abuser, they face increased risks. Forty-five percent of domestic violence homicides occur within 90 days of a recent separation, while 75 percent occur within the first six months of separation. Domestic violence victims also face increased risks when their abuser has access to firearms. Firearms are used to commit more than half of all intimate partner homicides in the United States. When an abusive partner has access to a gun, a domestic violence victim is 11 times more likely to be killed. Domestic violence has long been recognized as being at the core of other major social problems: Child abuse, other crimes of violence against persons or property, homelessness, and alcohol and drug abuse. Research has identified that adverse childhood experiences such as exposure to domestic violence have long-term negative impacts on health, well-being, and life outcomes, including criminal legal system involvement. Washington state studies have found that domestic violence is the most predictive of future violent crime by the perpetrator. Nationwide, domestic violence costs over $460,000,000,000 each year for health care, absence from work, services to children, and more. Adolescent dating violence is occurring at increasingly high rates, and preventing and confronting adolescent violence is important in preventing future violence in adult relationships. Domestic violence should not be minimized or dismissed based on any mental health diagnoses of the perpetrator or the victim. To the contrary, the presence of mental health concerns or substance use of either party increases the likelihood of serious injury and lethality. The legislature finds that it is in the public interest to improve the lives of persons being victimized by the acts and dynamics of domestic violence, to require reasonable, coordinated measures to prevent domestic violence from occurring, and to respond effectively to secure the safety of survivors of domestic violence;
(b) Sexual assault is the most heinous crime against another person short of murder. Sexual assault inflicts humiliation, degradation, and terror on victims. The perpetrator’s age, gender, or relationship does not define the seriousness. According to the centers for disease control and prevention, one in six men, one in three women, and one in two nonbinary persons will experience sexual violence in their lifetime. Because of the stigma of a sexual assault and trauma, many victims are afraid or are not ready to report to law enforcement and go through the rigors of the criminal justice process. Individuals with disabilities; black and indigenous communities; and lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, queer, and other individuals experience a higher rate of sexual violence. Experiencing a sexual assault is itself a reasonable basis for ongoing fear. Rape is recognized as the most underreported crime; estimates suggest that only one in seven rapes is reported to authorities. Victims who do not report the crime still may need to seek safety and protection from future interactions with the perpetrator and have a right to such safety and protection. Some cases where rape is reported are not prosecuted or do not lead to a conviction. A victim should be able to expediently seek a civil remedy requiring that the perpetrator stay away from the victim, independent of the criminal process and regardless of whether related criminal charges are pending;
(c) Stalking is a crime that affects 3,400,000 people over the age of 18 each year in the United States. Almost half of victims experience at least one unwanted contact per week. 29 percent of stalking victims fear that the stalking will never stop. The prevalence of anxiety, insomnia, social dysfunction, and severe depression is much higher among stalking victims than among the general population. Research shows that stalking is a significant indication of future lethality. Increased access to technology has also increased methods of stalking. Stalking is distinct from common acts of harassment or nuisance covered by antiharassment orders, and law enforcement agencies need to be able to rely on orders that distinguish stalking from acts of harassment or nuisance. Victims who do not report the stalking behavior they are experiencing still may need safety and protection from future interactions with the perpetrator through expedient access to the civil court system, and this protection can be accomplished without infringing on constitutionally protected speech or activity;
(d) Serious, personal harassment through invasions of a person’s privacy by an act, acts, or words showing an intent to coerce, intimidate, or humiliate the victim is increasing. The legislature finds the prevention of such harassment is an important governmental objective, and that victims should have access to a method to prevent further contact between the victim and perpetrator. A person may be targeted for harassing behavior due to his or her identity, such as age, gender, sexual orientation, race, religion, disability, or immigration status. The legislature finds that unlawful harassment directed at a child by a child is not acceptable and can have serious consequences, but that some negative interactions between young people, especially in schools, do not rise to the level of unlawful harassment. It is the intent of the legislature that a protection order sought by the parent or guardian of a child as provided for in this chapter be available only when the alleged behavior of the person under the age of 18 to be restrained rises to the level set forth in this chapter;
(e) Some adults are vulnerable and may be subject to abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or abandonment by a family member, care provider, or other person who has a relationship with the vulnerable adult. A vulnerable adult may have physical disabilities, mobility issues, or be otherwise unable to represent himself or herself in court or to retain legal counsel in order to obtain the relief available under this chapter or other protections offered through the courts. A vulnerable adult may lack the ability to perform or obtain those services necessary to maintain his or her well-being because he or she lacks the capacity for consent, and may have health problems that place him or her in a dependent position. The legislature finds the legal tool of protection orders will help prevent abuse, neglect, exploitation, or abandonment of vulnerable adults; and
(f) Every year, over 100,000 persons in our country are victims of gunshot wounds and 38,000 individuals lose their lives from gun violence. On average, there are over 100 gun deaths each day, 61 percent of which are suicides. In Washington state, the suicide rate is on average 10 percent higher. Extreme risk protection orders allow for the temporary removal of the most lethal means of suicide from the situation, saving lives of those at risk. Studies show that individuals who engage in certain dangerous behaviors are significantly more likely to commit violence toward themselves or others in the near future. These behaviors, which can include other acts or threats of violence, self-harm, or the abuse of drugs or alcohol, are warning signs that the person may soon commit an act of violence. Individuals who pose a danger to themselves or others often exhibit signs that alert family, household members, or law enforcement to the threat. Restricting firearms access in these moments of crisis is an important way to prevent gun violence and save lives. Many mass shooters displayed warning signs prior to their killings, but federal and state laws provided no clear legal process to suspend the shooters’ access to guns, even temporarily. In enacting the extreme risk protection order, the people intended to reduce gun deaths and injuries, while respecting constitutional rights, by providing a procedure for family, household members, and law enforcement to obtain a court order temporarily preventing individuals who are at high risk of harming themselves or others from accessing firearms when there is demonstrated evidence that the individuals pose a significant danger, including danger as a result of threatening or violent behavior. Additionally, extreme risk protection orders may provide protections from firearm risks for individuals who are not eligible to petition for other types of protection orders. Extreme risk protection orders are intended to be limited to situations in which individuals pose a significant danger of harming themselves or others by possessing a firearm, having immediate access to a firearm, or having expressed intent to obtain a firearm, and include standards and safeguards to protect the rights of respondents and due process of law. Temporarily removing firearms under these circumstances is an important tool to prevent suicide, homicide, and community violence.
(4) The legislature finds that all of these civil protection orders are essential tools that can increase safety for victims of domestic violence, sexual assault, stalking, abuse of vulnerable adults, unlawful harassment, and threats of gun violence to obtain immediate protection for themselves apart from the criminal legal system. Victims are in the best position to know what their safety needs are and should be able to seek these crucial protections without having to rely on the criminal legal system process. The legislature further finds the surrender of firearms in civil protection orders is critical to public health. In keeping with the harm reduction approach of this lifesaving tool, the legislature finds that it is appropriate to allow for immunity from prosecution for certain offenses when appropriate to create a safe harbor from prosecution for certain offenses to increase compliance with orders to surrender and prohibit firearms.
(5) To better achieve these important public purposes, the legislature further finds the need to clarify and simplify these civil protection order statutes to make them more understandable and accessible to victims seeking relief and to respondents who are subject to the court process. An efficient and effective civil process can provide necessary relief many victims require in order to escape and prevent harm. Clarification and simplification of the statutes will aid petitioners, respondents, law enforcement, and judicial officers in their application, help to eliminate procedural inconsistencies, modernize practices, provide better access to justice for those most marginalized, increase compliance, and improve identified problem areas within the statutes. Those who participate in the protection order process often find it difficult to navigate the statutes, which were adopted at different times and contain differing jurisdictional approaches, procedures, definitions, and types of relief offered, among other differences, all of which can create barriers and cause confusion. Harmonizing and standardizing provisions where there is not a need for a specific, different approach can provide more uniformity among the laws and significantly reduce these obstacles.
The legislature finds that these improvements are needed to help ensure that protection orders and corresponding court processes are more easily accessible to all litigants, particularly parties who may experience higher barriers to accessing justice.
(6) The legislature finds that advances in technology have made it increasingly possible to file petitions, effect service of process, and conduct hearings in protection order proceedings through more efficient and accessible means, while upholding constitutional due process requirements. These include using approaches such as online filing of petitions, electronic service of protection orders, and video and telephonic hearings to maintain and improve access to the courts. These alternatives can help make protection order processes more accessible, effective, timely, and procedurally just, particularly in situations where there are emergent risks. The legislature finds that it would be helpful for petitioners, respondents, judicial officers, court personnel, law enforcement, advocates, counsel, and others to have these new tools enacted into statute and made readily available in every court, with statewide best practices created for their use, specific to the context of civil protection orders. The legislature further finds that it is important to modernize other aspects of the civil protection order statutes to reflect current trends, and to provide for data collection and research in these areas of the law.
(7) The legislature further finds that in order to improve the efficacy of, accessibility to, and understanding of, civil protection orders, the six different civil protection orders in Washington state should be included in a single chapter of the Revised Code of Washington.
Title 9. Crimes and Punishments
Chapter 9.35. Identity Crimes
9.35.020 Identity theft
(1) No person may knowingly obtain, possess, use, or transfer a means of identification or financial information of another person, living or dead, with the intent to commit, or to aid or abet, any crime.
(2) Violation of this section when the accused or an accomplice violates subsection (1) of this section and obtains credit, money, goods, services, or anything else of value in excess of one thousand five hundred dollars in value, or when the accused knowingly targets a senior or vulnerable individual in carrying out a violation of subsection (1) of this section, shall constitute identity theft in the first degree. Identity theft in the first degree is a class B felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW.
(3) A person is guilty of identity theft in the second degree when he or she violates subsection (1) of this section under circumstances not amounting to identity theft in the first degree. Identity theft in the second degree is a class C felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW.
(4) Each crime prosecuted under this section shall be punished separately under chapter 9.94A RCW, unless it is the same criminal conduct as any other crime, under RCW 9.94A.589.
(5) Whenever any series of transactions involving a single person’s means of identification or financial information which constitute identity theft would, when considered separately, constitute identity theft in the second degree because of value, and the series of transactions are a part of a common scheme or plan, then the transactions may be aggregated in one count and the sum of the value of all of the transactions shall be the value considered in determining the degree of identity theft involved.
(6) Every person who, in the commission of identity theft, shall commit any other crime may be punished therefor as well as for the identity theft, and may be prosecuted for each crime separately.
(7) A person who violates this section is liable for civil damages of one thousand dollars or actual damages, whichever is greater, including costs to repair the victim’s credit record, and reasonable attorneys’ fees as determined by the court.
(8) In a proceeding under this section, the crime will be considered to have been committed in any locality where the person whose means of identification or financial information was appropriated resides, or in which any part of the offense took place, regardless of whether the defendant was ever actually in that locality.
(9) The provisions of this section do not apply to any person who obtains another person’s driver’s license or other form of identification for the sole purpose of misrepresenting his or her age.
(10) In a proceeding under this section in which a person’s means of identification or financial information was used without that person’s authorization, and when there has been a conviction, the sentencing court may issue such orders as are necessary to correct a public record that contains false information resulting from a violation of this section.
Chapter 9.41. Firearms and Dangerous Weapons
9.41.042. Children--Permissible firearm possession
RCW 9.41.040(2)(a)(v) shall not apply to any person under the age of eighteen years who is:
(1) In attendance at a hunter’s safety course or a firearms safety course;
(2) Engaging in practice in the use of a firearm or target shooting at an established range authorized by the governing body of the jurisdiction in which such range is located or any other area where the discharge of a firearm is not prohibited;
(3) Engaging in an organized competition involving the use of a firearm, or participating in or practicing for a performance by an organized group that uses firearms as a part of the performance;
(4) Hunting or trapping under a valid license issued to the person under Title 77 RCW;
(5) In an area where the discharge of a firearm is permitted, is not trespassing, and the person either: (a) Is at least fourteen years of age, has been issued a hunter safety certificate, and is using a lawful firearm other than a pistol; or (b) is under the supervision of a parent, guardian, or other adult approved for the purpose by the parent or guardian;
(6) Traveling with any unloaded firearm in the person’s possession to or from any activity described in subsection (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of this section;
(7) On real property under the control of his or her parent, other relative, or legal guardian and who has the permission of the parent or legal guardian to possess a firearm;
(8) At his or her residence and who, with the permission of his or her parent or legal guardian, possesses a firearm for the purpose of exercising the rights specified in RCW 9A.16.020(3); or
(9) Is a member of the armed forces of the United States, national guard, or organized reserves, when on duty.
9.41.010. Terms defined
Unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter.
(1) “Antique firearm” means a firearm or replica of a firearm not designed or redesigned for using rim fire or conventional center fire ignition with fixed ammunition and manufactured in or before 1898, including any matchlock, flintlock, percussion cap, or similar type of ignition system and also any firearm using fixed ammunition manufactured in or before 1898, for which ammunition is no longer manufactured in the United States and is not readily available in the ordinary channels of commercial trade.
(2)(a) “Assault weapon” means:
(i) Any of the following specific firearms regardless of which company produced and manufactured the firearm:
AK-47 in all forms
AK-74 in all forms
Algimec AGM-1 type semiautomatic
American Arms Spectre da semiautomatic carbine
AR15, M16, or M4 in all forms
AR 180 type semiautomatic
Argentine L.S.R. semiautomatic
Australian Automatic
Auto-Ordnance Thompson M1 and 1927 semiautomatics
Barrett .50 cal light semiautomatic
Barrett .50 cal M87
Barrett .50 cal M107A1
Barrett REC7
Beretta AR70/S70 type semiautomatic
Bushmaster Carbon 15
Bushmaster ACR
Bushmaster XM-15
Bushmaster MOE
Calico models M100 and M900
CETME Sporter
CIS SR 88 type semiautomatic
Colt CAR 15
Daewoo K-1
Daewoo K-2
Dragunov semiautomatic
Fabrique Nationale FAL in all forms
Fabrique Nationale F2000
Fabrique Nationale L1A1 Sporter
Fabrique Nationale M249S
Fabrique Nationale PS90
Fabrique Nationale SCAR
FAMAS .223 semiautomatic
Galil
Heckler & Koch G3 in all forms
Heckler & Koch HK-41/91
Heckler & Koch HK-43/93
Heckler & Koch HK94A2/3
Heckler & Koch MP-5 in all forms
Heckler & Koch PSG-1
Heckler & Koch SL8
Heckler & Koch UMP
Manchester Arms Commando MK-45
Manchester Arms MK-9
SAR-4800
SIG AMT SG510 in all forms
SIG SG550 in all forms
SKS
Spectre M4
Springfield Armory BM-59
Springfield Armory G3
Springfield Armory SAR-8
Springfield Armory SAR-48
Springfield Armory SAR-3
Springfield Armory M-21 sniper
Springfield Armory M1A
Smith & Wesson M&P 15
Sterling Mk 1
Sterling Mk 6/7
Steyr AUG
TNW M230
FAMAS F11
Uzi 9mm carbine/rifle
(ii) A semiautomatic rifle that has an overall length of less than 30 inches;
(iii) A conversion kit, part, or combination of parts, from which an assault weapon can be assembled or from which a firearm can be converted into an assault weapon if those parts are in the possession or under the control of the same person; or
(iv) A semiautomatic, center fire rifle that has the capacity to accept a detachable magazine and has one or more of the following:
(A) A grip that is independent or detached from the stock that protrudes conspicuously beneath the action of the weapon. The addition of a fin attaching the grip to the stock does not exempt the grip if it otherwise resembles the grip found on a pistol;
(B) Thumbhole stock;
(C) Folding or telescoping stock;
(D) Forward pistol, vertical, angled, or other grip designed for use by the nonfiring hand to improve control;
(E) Flash suppressor, flash guard, flash eliminator, flash hider, sound suppressor, silencer, or any item designed to reduce the visual or audio signature of the firearm;
(F) Muzzle brake, recoil compensator, or any item designed to be affixed to the barrel to reduce recoil or muzzle rise;
(G) Threaded barrel designed to attach a flash suppressor, sound suppressor, muzzle break, or similar item;
(H) Grenade launcher or flare launcher; or
(I) A shroud that encircles either all or part of the barrel designed to shield the bearer’s hand from heat, except a solid forearm of a stock that covers only the bottom of the barrel;
(v) A semiautomatic, center fire rifle that has a fixed magazine with the capacity to accept more than 10 rounds;
(vi) A semiautomatic pistol that has the capacity to accept a detachable magazine and has one or more of the following:
(A) A threaded barrel, capable of accepting a flash suppressor, forward handgrip, or silencer;
(B) A second hand grip;
(C) A shroud that encircles either all or part of the barrel designed to shield the bearer’s hand from heat, except a solid forearm of a stock that covers only the bottom of the barrel; or
(D) The capacity to accept a detachable magazine at some location outside of the pistol grip;
(vii) A semiautomatic shotgun that has any of the following:
(A) A folding or telescoping stock;
(B) A grip that is independent or detached from the stock that protrudes conspicuously beneath the action of the weapon. The addition of a fin attaching the grip to the stock does not exempt the grip if it otherwise resembles the grip found on a pistol;
(C) A thumbhole stock;
(D) A forward pistol, vertical, angled, or other grip designed for use by the nonfiring hand to improve control;
(E) A fixed magazine in excess of seven rounds; or
(F) A revolving cylinder shotgun.
(b) For the purposes of this subsection, “fixed magazine” means an ammunition feeding device contained in, or permanently attached to, a firearm in such a manner that the device cannot be removed without disassembly of the firearm action.
(c) “Assault weapon” does not include antique firearms, any firearm that has been made permanently inoperable, or any firearm that is manually operated by bolt, pump, lever, or slide action.
(3) “Assemble” means to fit together component parts.
(4) “Barrel length” means the distance from the bolt face of a closed action down the length of the axis of the bore to the crown of the muzzle, or in the case of a barrel with attachments to the end of any legal device permanently attached to the end of the muzzle.
(5) “Bump-fire stock” means a butt stock designed to be attached to a semiautomatic firearm with the effect of increasing the rate of fire achievable with the semiautomatic firearm to that of a fully automatic firearm by using the energy from the recoil of the firearm to generate reciprocating action that facilitates repeated activation of the trigger.
(6) “Conviction” or “convicted” means, whether in an adult court or adjudicated in a juvenile court, that a plea of guilty has been accepted or a verdict of guilty has been filed, or a finding of guilt has been entered, notwithstanding the pendency of any future proceedings including, but not limited to, sentencing or disposition, posttrial or post-fact-finding motions, and appeals. “Conviction” includes a dismissal entered after a period of probation, suspension, or deferral of sentence, and also includes equivalent dispositions by courts in jurisdictions other than Washington state.
(7) “Crime of violence” means:
(a) Any of the following felonies, as now existing or hereafter amended: Any felony defined under any law as a class A felony or an attempt to commit a class A felony, criminal solicitation of or criminal conspiracy to commit a class A felony, manslaughter in the first degree, manslaughter in the second degree, indecent liberties if committed by forcible compulsion, kidnapping in the second degree, arson in the second degree, assault in the second degree, assault of a child in the second degree, extortion in the first degree, burglary in the second degree, residential burglary, and robbery in the second degree;
(b) Any conviction for a felony offense in effect at any time prior to June 6, 1996, which is comparable to a felony classified as a crime of violence in (a) of this subsection; and
(c) Any federal or out-of-state conviction for an offense comparable to a felony classified as a crime of violence under (a) or (b) of this subsection.
(8) “Curio or relic” has the same meaning as provided in 27 C.F.R. Sec. 478.11.
(9) “Dealer” means a person engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail who has, or is required to have, a federal firearms license under 18 U.S.C. Sec. 923(a). A person who does not have, and is not required to have, a federal firearms license under 18 U.S.C. Sec. 923(a), is not a dealer if that person makes only occasional sales, exchanges, or purchases of firearms for the enhancement of a personal collection or for a hobby, or sells all or part of his or her personal collection of firearms.
(10) “Detachable magazine” means an ammunition feeding device that can be loaded or unloaded while detached from a firearm and readily inserted into a firearm.
(11) “Distribute” means to give out, provide, make available, or deliver a firearm or large capacity magazine to any person in this state, with or without consideration, whether the distributor is in-state or out-of-state. “Distribute” includes, but is not limited to, filling orders placed in this state, online or otherwise. “Distribute” also includes causing a firearm or large capacity magazine to be delivered in this state.
(12) “Domestic violence” has the same meaning as provided in RCW 10.99.020.
(13) “Family or household member” has the same meaning as in RCW 7.105.010.
(14) “Federal firearms dealer” means a licensed dealer as defined in 18 U.S.C. Sec. 921(a)(11).
(15) “Federal firearms importer” means a licensed importer as defined in 18 U.S.C. Sec. 921(a)(9).
(16) “Federal firearms manufacturer” means a licensed manufacturer as defined in 18 U.S.C. Sec. 921(a)(10).
(17) “Felony” means any felony offense under the laws of this state or any federal or out-of-state offense comparable to a felony offense under the laws of this state.
(18) “Felony firearm offender” means a person who has previously been convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity in this state of any felony firearm offense. A person is not a felony firearm offender under this chapter if any and all qualifying offenses have been the subject of an expungement, pardon, annulment, certificate, or rehabilitation, or other equivalent procedure based on a finding of the rehabilitation of the person convicted or a pardon, annulment, or other equivalent procedure based on a finding of innocence.
(19) “Felony firearm offense” means:
(a) Any felony offense that is a violation of this chapter;
(b) A violation of RCW 9A.36.045;
(c) A violation of RCW 9A.56.300;
(d) A violation of RCW 9A.56.310;
(e) Any felony offense if the offender was armed with a firearm in the commission of the offense.
(20) “Firearm” means a weapon or device from which a projectile or projectiles may be fired by an explosive such as gunpowder. For the purposes of RCW 9.41.040, “firearm” also includes frames and receivers. “Firearm” does not include a flare gun or other pyrotechnic visual distress signaling device, or a powder-actuated tool or other device designed solely to be used for construction purposes.
(21)(a) “Frame or receiver” means a part of a firearm that, when the complete firearm is assembled, is visible from the exterior and provides housing or a structure designed to hold or integrate one or more fire control components, even if pins or other attachments are required to connect the fire control components. Any such part identified with a serial number shall be presumed, absent an official determination by the bureau of alcohol, tobacco, firearms, and explosives or other reliable evidence to the contrary, to be a frame or receiver.
(b) For purposes of this subsection, “fire control component” means a component necessary for the firearm to initiate, complete, or continue the firing sequence, including any of the following: Hammer, bolt, bolt carrier, breechblock, cylinder, trigger mechanism, firing pin, striker, or slide rails.
(22) “Gun” has the same meaning as firearm.
(23) “Import” means to move, transport, or receive an item from a place outside the territorial limits of the state of Washington to a place inside the territorial limits of the state of Washington. “Import” does not mean situations where an individual possesses a large capacity magazine or assault weapon when departing from, and returning to, Washington state, so long as the individual is returning to Washington in possession of the same large capacity magazine or assault weapon the individual transported out of state.
(24) “Intimate partner” has the same meaning as provided in RCW 7.105.010.
(25) “Large capacity magazine” means an ammunition feeding device with the capacity to accept more than 10 rounds of ammunition, or any conversion kit, part, or combination of parts, from which such a device can be assembled if those parts are in possession of or under the control of the same person, but shall not be construed to include any of the following:
(a) An ammunition feeding device that has been permanently altered so that it cannot accommodate more than 10 rounds of ammunition;
(b) A 22 caliber tube ammunition feeding device; or
(c) A tubular magazine that is contained in a lever-action firearm.
(26) “Law enforcement officer” includes a general authority Washington peace officer as defined in RCW 10.93.020, or a specially commissioned Washington peace officer as defined in RCW 10.93.020. “Law enforcement officer” also includes a limited authority Washington peace officer as defined in RCW 10.93.020 if such officer is duly authorized by his or her employer to carry a concealed pistol.
(27) “Lawful permanent resident” has the same meaning afforded a person “lawfully admitted for permanent residence” in 8 U.S.C. Sec. 1101(a)(20).
(28) “Licensed collector” means a person who is federally licensed under 18 U.S.C. Sec. 923(b).
(29) “Licensed dealer” means a person who is federally licensed under 18 U.S.C. Sec. 923(a).
(30) “Loaded” means:
(a) There is a cartridge in the chamber of the firearm;
(b) Cartridges are in a clip that is locked in place in the firearm;
(c) There is a cartridge in the cylinder of the firearm, if the firearm is a revolver;
(d) There is a cartridge in the tube or magazine that is inserted in the action; or
(e) There is a ball in the barrel and the firearm is capped or primed if the firearm is a muzzle loader.
(31) “Machine gun” means any firearm known as a machine gun, mechanical rifle, submachine gun, or any other mechanism or instrument not requiring that the trigger be pressed for each shot and having a reservoir clip, disc, drum, belt, or other separable mechanical device for storing, carrying, or supplying ammunition which can be loaded into the firearm, mechanism, or instrument, and fired therefrom at the rate of five or more shots per second.
(32) “Manufacture” means, with respect to a firearm or large capacity magazine, the fabrication, making, formation, production, or construction of a firearm or large capacity magazine, by manual labor or by machinery.
(33) “Mental health professional” means a psychiatrist, psychologist, or physician assistant working with a supervising psychiatrist, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, psychiatric nurse, social worker, mental health counselor, marriage and family therapist, or such other mental health professionals as may be defined in statute or by rules adopted by the department of health pursuant to the provisions of chapter 71.05 RCW.
(34) “Nonimmigrant alien” means a person defined as such in 8 U.S.C. Sec. 1101(a)(15).
(35) “Person” means any individual, corporation, company, association, firm, partnership, club, organization, society, joint stock company, or other legal entity.
(36) “Pistol” means any firearm with a barrel less than 16 inches in length, or is designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand.
(37) “Rifle” means a weapon designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to be fired from the shoulder and designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to use the energy of the explosive in a fixed metallic cartridge to fire only a single projectile through a rifled bore for each single pull of the trigger.
(38) “Sale” and “sell” mean the actual approval of the delivery of a firearm in consideration of payment or promise of payment.
(39) “Secure gun storage” means:
(a) A locked box, gun safe, or other secure locked storage space that is designed to prevent unauthorized use or discharge of a firearm; and
(b) The act of keeping an unloaded firearm stored by such means.
(40) “Semiautomatic” means any firearm which utilizes a portion of the energy of a firing cartridge to extract the fired cartridge case and chamber the next round, and which requires a separate pull of the trigger to fire each cartridge.
(41)(a) “Semiautomatic assault rifle” means any rifle which utilizes a portion of the energy of a firing cartridge to extract the fired cartridge case and chamber the next round, and which requires a separate pull of the trigger to fire each cartridge.
(b) “Semiautomatic assault rifle” does not include antique firearms, any firearm that has been made permanently inoperable, or any firearm that is manually operated by bolt, pump, lever, or slide action.
(42) “Serious offense” means any of the following felonies or a felony attempt to commit any of the following felonies, as now existing or hereafter amended:
(a) Any crime of violence;
(b) Any felony violation of the uniform controlled substances act, chapter 69.50 RCW, that is classified as a class B felony or that has a maximum term of imprisonment of at least 10 years;
(c) Child molestation in the second degree;
(d) Incest when committed against a child under age 14;
(e) Indecent liberties;
(f) Leading organized crime;
(g) Promoting prostitution in the first degree;
(h) Rape in the third degree;
(i) Drive-by shooting;
(j) Sexual exploitation;
(k) Vehicular assault, when caused by the operation or driving of a vehicle by a person while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug or by the operation or driving of a vehicle in a reckless manner;
(l) Vehicular homicide, when proximately caused by the driving of any vehicle by any person while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug as defined by RCW 46.61.502, or by the operation of any vehicle in a reckless manner;
(m) Any other class B felony offense with a finding of sexual motivation, as “sexual motivation” is defined under RCW 9.94A.030;
(n) Any other felony with a deadly weapon verdict under RCW 9.94A.825;
(o) Any felony offense in effect at any time prior to June 6, 1996, that is comparable to a serious offense, or any federal or out-of-state conviction for an offense that under the laws of this state would be a felony classified as a serious offense;
(p) Any felony conviction under RCW 9.41.115; or
(q) Any felony charged under RCW 46.61.502(6) or 46.61.504(6).
(43) “Sex offense” has the same meaning as provided in RCW 9.94A.030.
(44) “Short-barreled rifle” means a rifle having one or more barrels less than 16 inches in length and any weapon made from a rifle by any means of modification if such modified weapon has an overall length of less than 26 inches.
(45) “Short-barreled shotgun” means a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length and any weapon made from a shotgun by any means of modification if such modified weapon has an overall length of less than 26 inches.
(46) “Shotgun” means a weapon with one or more barrels, designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to be fired from the shoulder and designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to use the energy of the explosive in a fixed shotgun shell to fire through a smooth bore either a number of ball shot or a single projectile for each single pull of the trigger.
(47) “Substance use disorder professional” means a person certified under chapter 18.205 RCW.
(48) “Transfer” means the intended delivery of a firearm to another person without consideration of payment or promise of payment including, but not limited to, gifts and loans. “Transfer” does not include the delivery of a firearm owned or leased by an entity licensed or qualified to do business in the state of Washington to, or return of such a firearm by, any of that entity’s employees or agents, defined to include volunteers participating in an honor guard, for lawful purposes in the ordinary course of business.
(49) “Undetectable firearm” means any firearm that is not as detectable as 3.7 ounces of 17-4 PH stainless steel by walk-through metal detectors or magnetometers commonly used at airports or any firearm where the barrel, the slide or cylinder, or the frame or receiver of the firearm would not generate an image that accurately depicts the shape of the part when examined by the types of X-ray machines commonly used at airports.
(50)(a) “Unfinished frame or receiver” means a frame or receiver that is partially complete, disassembled, or inoperable, that: (i) Has reached a stage in manufacture where it may readily be completed, assembled, converted, or restored to a functional state; or (ii) is marketed or sold to the public to become or be used as the frame or receiver of a functional firearm once finished or completed, including without limitation products marketed or sold to the public as an 80 percent frame or receiver or unfinished frame or receiver.
(b) For purposes of this subsection:
(i) “Readily” means a process that is fairly or reasonably efficient, quick, and easy, but not necessarily the most efficient, speedy, or easy process. Factors relevant in making this determination, with no single one controlling, include the following: (A) Time, i.e., how long it takes to finish the process; (B) ease, i.e., how difficult it is to do so; (C) expertise, i.e., what knowledge and skills are required; (D) equipment, i.e., what tools are required; (E) availability, i.e., whether additional parts are required, and how easily they can be obtained; (F) expense, i.e., how much it costs; (G) scope, i.e., the extent to which the subject of the process must be changed to finish it; and (H) feasibility, i.e., whether the process would damage or destroy the subject of the process, or cause it to malfunction.
(ii) “Partially complete,” as it modifies frame or receiver, means a forging, casting, printing, extrusion, machined body, or similar article that has reached a stage in manufacture where it is clearly identifiable as an unfinished component part of a firearm.
(51) “Unlicensed person” means any person who is not a licensed dealer under this chapter.
(52) “Untraceable firearm” means any firearm manufactured after July 1, 2019, that is not an antique firearm and that cannot be traced by law enforcement by means of a serial number affixed to the firearm by a federal firearms manufacturer, federal firearms importer, or federal firearms dealer in compliance with all federal laws and regulations.
(53) “Washington state patrol firearms background check program” means the division within the state patrol that conducts background checks for all firearm transfers and the disposition of firearms.
9.41.040. Unlawful possession of firearms--Ownership, possession by certain persons--Restoration of right to possess--Penalties
(1)(a) A person, whether an adult or juvenile, is guilty of the crime of unlawful possession of a firearm in the first degree, if the person owns, accesses, has in the person’s custody, control, or possession, or receives any firearm after having previously been convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity in this state or elsewhere of any serious offense.
(b) Unlawful possession of a firearm in the first degree is a class B felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW.
(2)(a) A person, whether an adult or juvenile, is guilty of the crime of unlawful possession of a firearm in the second degree, if the person does not qualify under subsection (1) of this section for the crime of unlawful possession of a firearm in the first degree and the person owns, accesses, has in the person’s custody, control, or possession, or receives any firearm:
(i) After having previously been convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity in this state or elsewhere of:
(A) Any felony not specifically listed as prohibiting firearm possession under subsection (1) of this section;
(B) Any of the following crimes when committed by one family or household member against another or by one intimate partner against another, as those terms are defined by the statutes in effect at the time of the commission of the crime, committed on or after July 1, 1993: Assault in the fourth degree, coercion, stalking, reckless endangerment, criminal trespass in the first degree, or violation of the provisions of a protection order or no-contact order restraining the person or excluding the person from a residence (RCW 10.99.040 or any of the former RCW 26.50.060, 26.50.070, and 26.50.130);
(C) Harassment when committed by one family or household member against another or by one intimate partner against another, as those terms are defined by the statutes in effect at the time of the commission of the crime, committed on or after June 7, 2018;
(D) Any of the following misdemeanor or gross misdemeanor crimes not included under (a)(i) (B) or (C) of this subsection, committed on or after July 23, 2023: Domestic violence (RCW 10.99.020); stalking; cyberstalking; cyber harassment, excluding cyber harassment committed solely pursuant to the element set forth in RCW 9A.90.120(1)(a)(i); harassment; aiming or discharging a firearm (RCW 9.41.230); unlawful carrying or handling of a firearm (RCW 9.41.270); animal cruelty in the second degree committed under RCW 16.52.207(1); or any prior offense as defined in RCW 46.61.5055(14) if committed within seven years of a conviction for any other prior offense under RCW 46.61.5055;
(E) A violation of the provisions of a protection order under chapter 7.105 RCW restraining the person or excluding the person from a residence, when committed by one family or household member against another or by one intimate partner against another, committed on or after July 1, 2022; or
(F) A violation of the provisions of an order to surrender and prohibit weapons, an extreme risk protection order, or the provisions of any other protection order or no-contact order not included under (a)(i) (B) or (E) of this subsection restraining the person or excluding the person from a residence, committed on or after July 23, 2023;
(ii) During any period of time that the person is subject to a protection order, no-contact order, or restraining order by a court issued under chapter 7.105, 9A.40, 9A.44, 9A.46, 9A.88, 10.99, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW or any of the former chapters 7.90, 7.92, 10.14, and 26.50 RCW that:
(A) Was issued after a hearing for which the person received actual notice, and at which the person had an opportunity to participate, whether the court then issues a full order or reissues a temporary order. If the court enters an agreed order by the parties without a hearing, such an order meets the requirements of this subsection;
(B) Restrains the person from harassing, stalking, or threatening the person protected under the order or child of the person or protected person, or others identified in the order, or engaging in other conduct that would place the protected person in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the protected person or child or others identified in the order; and
(C)(I) Includes a finding that the person represents a credible threat to the physical safety of the protected person or child or others identified in the order, or by its terms explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against the protected person or child or other persons that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury; or
(II) Includes an order under RCW 9.41.800 requiring the person to surrender all firearms and prohibiting the person from accessing, having in his or her custody or control, possessing, purchasing, receiving, or attempting to purchase or receive, firearms;
(iii) After having previously been involuntarily committed based on a mental disorder under RCW 71.05.240, 71.05.320, 71.34.740, 71.34.750, chapter 10.77 RCW, or equivalent statutes of another jurisdiction, unless his or her right to possess a firearm has been restored as provided in RCW 9.41.047;
(iv) After dismissal of criminal charges based on incompetency to stand trial under RCW 10.77.086, or after dismissal of criminal charges based on incompetency to stand trial under RCW 10.77.088 when the court has made a finding indicating that the defendant has a history of one or more violent acts, unless his or her right to possess a firearm has been restored as provided in RCW 9.41.047;
(v) If the person is under 18 years of age, except as provided in RCW 9.41.042; and/or
(vi) If the person is free on bond or personal recognizance pending trial for a serious offense as defined in RCW 9.41.010.
(b) Unlawful possession of a firearm in the second degree is a class C felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW.
(3) A person shall not be precluded from possession of a firearm if the conviction has been the subject of a pardon, annulment, certificate of rehabilitation, or other equivalent procedure based on a finding of the rehabilitation of the person convicted or the conviction or disposition has been the subject of a pardon, annulment, or other equivalent procedure based on a finding of innocence. Where no record of the court’s disposition of the charges can be found, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that the person was not convicted of the charge.
(4) Notwithstanding subsection (1) or (2) of this section, a person convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity of an offense prohibiting the possession of a firearm under this section other than murder, manslaughter, robbery, rape, indecent liberties, arson, assault, kidnapping, extortion, burglary, or violations with respect to controlled substances under RCW 69.50.401 and 69.50.410, who received a probationary sentence under RCW 9.95.200, and who received a dismissal of the charge under RCW 9.95.240, shall not be precluded from possession of a firearm as a result of the conviction or finding of not guilty by reason of insanity.
(5) In addition to any other penalty provided for by law, if a person under the age of 18 years is found by a court to have possessed a firearm in a vehicle in violation of subsection (1) or (2) of this section or to have committed an offense while armed with a firearm during which offense a motor vehicle served an integral function, the court shall notify the department of licensing within 24 hours and the person’s privilege to drive shall be revoked under RCW 46.20.265, unless the offense is the juvenile’s first offense in violation of this section and has not committed an offense while armed with a firearm, an unlawful possession of a firearm offense, or an offense in violation of chapter 66.44, 69.52, 69.41, or 69.50 RCW.
(6) Nothing in chapter 129, Laws of 1995 shall ever be construed or interpreted as preventing an offender from being charged and subsequently convicted for the separate felony crimes of theft of a firearm or possession of a stolen firearm, or both, in addition to being charged and subsequently convicted under this section for unlawful possession of a firearm in the first or second degree. Notwithstanding any other law, if the offender is convicted under this section for unlawful possession of a firearm in the first or second degree and for the felony crimes of theft of a firearm or possession of a stolen firearm, or both, then the offender shall serve consecutive sentences for each of the felony crimes of conviction listed in this subsection.
(7)(a) A person, whether an adult or a juvenile, commits the civil infraction of unlawful possession of a firearm if the person has in the person’s possession or has in the person’s control a firearm after the person files a voluntary waiver of firearm rights under RCW 9.41.350 and the form has been accepted by the clerk of the court and the voluntary waiver has not been lawfully revoked.
(b) The civil infraction of unlawful possession of a firearm is a class 4 civil infraction punishable according to chapter 7.80 RCW.
(c) Each firearm unlawfully possessed under this subsection (7) shall be a separate infraction.
(d) The court may, in its discretion, order performance of up to two hours of community restitution in lieu of a monetary penalty prescribed for a civil infraction under this subsection (7).
(8) Each firearm unlawfully possessed under this section shall be a separate offense.
(9) A person may petition to restore the right to possess a firearm as provided in RCW 9.41.041.
9.41.115 Penalties--Violations of 9.41.113
Notwithstanding the penalty provisions in this chapter, any person knowingly violating RCW 9.41.113 is guilty of a gross misdemeanor punishable under chapter 9A.20 RCW. If a person previously has been found guilty under this section, then the person is guilty of a class C felony punishable under chapter 9A.20 RCW for each subsequent knowing violation of RCW 9.41.113. A person is guilty of a separate offense for each and every gun sold or transferred without complying with the background check requirements of RCW 9.41.113. It is an affirmative defense to any prosecution brought under this section that the sale or transfer satisfied one of the exceptions in RCW 9.41.113(4).
9.41.340. Return of privately owned firearm by law enforcement agency--Notification to family or household member--Exception--Exemption from public disclosure--Civil liability--Liability for request based on false information
(1)(a) Each law enforcement agency shall develop a notification protocol that:
(i) Allows a family or household member or intimate partner to use an incident or case number to request to be notified when a law enforcement agency returns a privately owned firearm to the individual from whom it was obtained or to an authorized representative of that person; and
(ii) Requires notification to any person identified in a no-contact order, restraining order, or protection order and any identified victim of the crime that resulted in the firearm surrender.
(b)(i) Notification may be made via telephone, email, text message, or another method that allows notification to be provided without unnecessary delay.
(ii) If a law enforcement agency is in possession of more than one privately owned firearm from an individual, notification relating to the return of one firearm shall be considered notification for all privately owned firearms for that person.
(2) A law enforcement agency shall not provide notification to any party other than another criminal justice agency or as authorized or required under subsection (1) of this section.
(3) The information provided by a family or household member or intimate partner pursuant to chapter 130, Laws of 2015, including the existence of the request for notification, is not subject to public disclosure pursuant to chapter 42.56 RCW.
(4) An appointed or elected official, public employee, or public agency as defined in RCW 4.24.470, or combination of units of local government and its employees, as provided in RCW 36.28A.010, are immune from civil liability for damages for any release of information or the failure to release information related to this section, so long as the release or failure was without gross negligence.
(5) An individual who knowingly makes a request for notification under this section based on false information may be held liable under RCW 9A.76.175.
9.41.345. Return of privately owned firearm by law enforcement agency--Duties--Notice--Exception
(1) Before a law enforcement agency returns a privately owned firearm, the law enforcement agency must:
(a) Confirm that the individual to whom the firearm will be returned is the individual from whom the firearm was obtained or an authorized representative of that person;
(b) Confirm that the individual to whom the firearm will be returned is eligible to possess a firearm pursuant to RCW 9.41.040;
(c) Ensure that the firearm is not otherwise required to be held in custody or otherwise prohibited from being released;
(d) Ensure that five business days have elapsed from the time the firearm was obtained by law enforcement; and
(e) If a family or household member or intimate partner has requested notification under RCW 9.41.340(1)(a)(i), or notification to an identified victim or protected person is required per RCW 9.41.340(1)(a)(ii), provide notice to the appropriate person within one business day of verifying that the requirements in (a) through (c) of this subsection have been met.
(2)(a) Once the requirements in subsections (1) and (3) of this section have been met, a law enforcement agency must release a firearm to the individual from whom it was obtained or an authorized representative of that person upon request without unnecessary delay.
(b)(i) If a firearm cannot be returned because it is required to be held in custody or is otherwise prohibited from being released, a law enforcement agency must provide written notice to the individual from whom it was obtained within five business days of the individual requesting return of the firearm and specify the reason the firearm must be held in custody.
(ii) Notification may be made via email, text message, mail service, or personal service. For methods other than personal service, service shall be considered complete once the notification is sent.
(3) If notification is required under RCW 9.41.340(1)(a) (i) or (ii), a law enforcement agency must hold the firearm in custody for five business days from the time notification has been provided or information has been entered.
(4)(a) A law enforcement agency may not return a concealed pistol license that has been surrendered to, or impounded by, the law enforcement agency for any reason to the licensee until the law enforcement agency determines the licensee is eligible to possess a firearm under state and federal law and meets the other eligibility requirements for a concealed pistol license under RCW 9.41.070.
(b) A law enforcement agency must release a concealed pistol license to the licensee without unnecessary delay, and in no case longer than five business days, after the law enforcement agency determines the requirements of (a) of this subsection have been met.
(5) The provisions of chapter 130, Laws of 2015 and subsection (4) of this section shall not apply to circumstances where a law enforcement officer has momentarily obtained a firearm or concealed pistol license from an individual and would otherwise immediately return the firearm or concealed pistol license to the individual during the same interaction.
9.41.800. Surrender of weapons or licenses--Prohibition on future possession or licensing
(1) Any court when entering an order authorized under chapter 7.105 RCW, RCW 9A.40.102, 9A.44.210, 9A.46.080, 9A.88.160, 10.99.040, 10.99.045, 26.09.050, 26.09.060, 26.26B.020, 26.26A.470, or 46.61.5055 shall, upon a showing by a preponderance of the evidence, that a party has: Used, displayed, or threatened to use a firearm or other dangerous weapon in a felony, or is ineligible to possess a firearm under the provisions of RCW 9.41.040:
(a) Require that the party immediately surrender all firearms and other dangerous weapons;
(b) Require that the party immediately surrender any concealed pistol license issued under RCW 9.41.070;
(c) Prohibit the party from accessing, having custody or control, possessing, purchasing, receiving, or attempting to purchase or receive, any firearms or other dangerous weapons;
(d) Prohibit the party from obtaining or possessing a concealed pistol license;
(e) Other than for ex parte temporary protection orders, unless the ex parte temporary protection order was reissued after the party received noticed and had an opportunity to be heard, direct law enforcement to revoke any concealed pistol license issued to the party.
(2) During any period of time that the party is subject to a court order issued under chapter 7.105, 9A.46, 10.99, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW that:
(a) Was issued after a hearing of which the party received actual notice, and at which the party had an opportunity to participate, whether the court then issues a full order or reissues a temporary order. If the court enters an agreed order by the parties without a hearing, such an order meets the requirements of this subsection;
(b) Restrains the party from harassing, stalking, or threatening an intimate partner of the party, the protected person, or child of the intimate partner, party, or protected person, or engaging in other conduct that would place an intimate partner or protected person in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the intimate partner, protected person, or child; and
(c)(i) Includes a finding that the party represents a credible threat to the physical safety of the intimate partner, protected person, or child; or
(ii) By its terms, explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against the intimate partner, protected person, or child that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury, the court shall:
(A) Require that the party immediately surrender all firearms and other dangerous weapons;
(B) Require that the party immediately surrender a concealed pistol license issued under RCW 9.41.070;
(C) Prohibit the party from accessing, having custody or control, possessing, purchasing, receiving, or attempting to purchase or receive, any firearms or other dangerous weapons; and
(D) Prohibit the party from obtaining or possessing a concealed pistol license.
(3) The court may order temporary surrender and prohibit the purchase of all firearms and other dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license, without notice to the other party if it finds, on the basis of the moving affidavit or other evidence, that irreparable injury could result if an order is not issued until the time for response has elapsed.
(4) In addition to the provisions of subsections (1) and (3) of this section, the court may enter an order requiring a party to comply with the provisions in subsection (1) of this section if it finds that the possession of a firearm or other dangerous weapon by any party presents a serious and imminent threat to public health or safety, or to the health or safety of any individual.
(5) The requirements of subsections (1) and (4) of this section may be for a period of time less than the duration of the order.
(6) The court shall require the party to surrender all firearms and other dangerous weapons in the party’s custody, control, or possession, or subject to the party’s immediate possession or control, and any concealed pistol license issued under RCW 9.41.070, to the local law enforcement agency.
(7) If the court enters a protection order, restraining order, or no-contact order that includes an order to surrender firearms, dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license under this section:
(a) The order must be served by a law enforcement officer;
(b) Law enforcement must immediately ensure entry of the order to surrender and prohibit weapons and the revocation of any concealed pistol license is made into the appropriate databases making the party ineligible to possess firearms and a concealed pistol license; and
(c) Law enforcement officers shall use law enforcement databases to assist in locating the party in situations where the protected person does not know where the party lives or where there is evidence that the party is trying to evade service.
9.41.801. Surrender of weapons or licenses--Ensuring compliance
(1) Because of the heightened risk of lethality to petitioners when respondents to protection orders become aware of court involvement and continue to have access to firearms, and the frequency of noncompliance with court orders prohibiting possession of firearms, law enforcement and judicial processes must emphasize swift and certain compliance with court orders prohibiting access, possession, and ownership of all firearms.
(2) A law enforcement officer serving a protection order, no-contact order, or restraining order that includes an order to surrender all firearms, dangerous weapons, and a concealed pistol license under RCW 9.41.800 shall inform the respondent that the order is effective upon service and the respondent must immediately surrender all firearms and dangerous weapons in the respondent’s custody, control, or possession and any concealed pistol license issued under RCW 9.41.070, and conduct any search permitted by law for such firearms, dangerous weapons, and concealed pistol license. The law enforcement officer shall take possession of all firearms, dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license belonging to the respondent that are surrendered, in plain sight, or discovered pursuant to a lawful search. If the order is entered in open court and the respondent appears in person, the respondent shall be provided a copy and further service is not required. If the respondent refuses to receive a copy, an agent of the court may indicate on the record that the respondent refused to receive a copy of the order. If the respondent appears remotely for the hearing, or leaves the hearing before a final ruling is issued or order signed, and the court believes the respondent has sufficient notice such that additional service is not necessary, the order must recite that the respondent appeared before the court, has actual notice of the order, the necessity for further service is waived, and proof of service of the order is not necessary. The court shall enter the service and receipt into the record. A copy of the order and service shall be transmitted immediately to law enforcement. The respondent must immediately surrender all firearms, dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license in a safe manner to the control of the local law enforcement agency on the day of the hearing at which the respondent was present in person or remotely. Alternatively, if personal service by a law enforcement officer is not possible, and the respondent did not appear in person or remotely at the hearing, the respondent shall surrender the firearms in a safe manner to the control of the local law enforcement agency within 24 hours of being served with the order by alternate service.
(3) At the time of surrender, a law enforcement officer taking possession of firearms, dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license shall issue a receipt identifying all firearms, dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license that have been surrendered and provide a copy of the receipt to the respondent. The law enforcement agency shall file the original receipt with the court within 24 hours after service of the order and retain a copy of the receipt, electronically whenever electronic filing is available.
(4) Upon the sworn statement or testimony of the petitioner or of any law enforcement officer alleging that the respondent has failed to comply with the surrender of firearms or dangerous weapons as required by an order issued under RCW 9.41.800 or 10.99.100, the court shall determine whether probable cause exists to believe that the respondent has failed to surrender all firearms and dangerous weapons in their possession, custody, or control. If probable cause exists that a crime occurred, the court shall issue a warrant describing the firearms or dangerous weapons and authorizing a search of the locations where the firearms and dangerous weapons are reasonably believed to be and the seizure of all firearms and dangerous weapons discovered pursuant to such search.
(5) If a person other than the respondent claims title to any firearms or dangerous weapons surrendered pursuant to this section, and the person is determined by the law enforcement agency to be the lawful owner of the firearm or dangerous weapon, the firearm or dangerous weapon shall be returned to the lawful owner, provided that:
(a) The firearm or dangerous weapon is removed from the respondent’s access, custody, control, or possession and the lawful owner agrees by written document signed under penalty of perjury to store the firearm or dangerous weapon in a manner such that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm or dangerous weapon;
(b) The firearm or dangerous weapon is not otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner; and
(c) The requirements of RCW 9.41.345 are met.
(6)(a) Courts shall develop procedures to verify timely and complete compliance with orders to surrender and prohibit weapons under RCW 9.41.800 or 10.99.100, including compliance review hearings to be held as soon as possible upon receipt from law enforcement of proof of service. For any case where the court has indication that the respondent has in the respondent’s possession, custody, or control firearms, dangerous weapons, or a concealed pistol license, a compliance review hearing shall be held. A compliance review hearing may be waived by the court or held at a later date if the information attested to by the person subject to the order, along with verification from law enforcement and any other relevant evidence, makes a sufficient showing that the person has timely and completely surrendered all firearms and dangerous weapons in the person’s custody, control, or possession, and any concealed pistol license issued under RCW 9.41.070, to a law enforcement agency, and the court is able to make a finding of compliance. If the court does not have a sufficient record before it on which to make such a finding, the court must set a review hearing to occur as soon as possible and service by law enforcement shall be prioritized to minimize the time during which the respondent could access their firearms, dangerous weapons, or concealed pistol license. The respondent must be present and provide proof of compliance with the court’s order. Courts shall make available forms that petitioners may complete and submit to the court in response to a respondent’s declaration of whether the respondent has surrendered weapons.
(b) In making its findings regarding compliance, the court should also consider any available department of licensing and Washington state patrol firearm records; for criminal cases, the police report and any documentation of firearms, or their recovery pursuant to RCW 10.99.030(3)(a); and for civil protection order cases, the protection order narrative, any sections of the protection order petition that specifically reference or inquire about firearms and other dangerous weapons, any attachments to the protection order petition, any affidavits from law enforcement or the petitioner in response to a respondent’s declaration regarding firearm surrender, or other relevant evidence regarding firearms, dangerous weapons, or a concealed pistol license in the person’s custody, control, or possession.
(c) If the court is considering waiving or delaying the compliance review hearing, the petitioner, law enforcement, or the state or city attorney may request that the compliance hearing be held, if there is reasonable suspicion to believe that the respondent has not surrendered all firearms, dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license, or is otherwise out of compliance with the court’s order.
(7)(a) If a court finds at the compliance review hearing, or any other hearing where compliance with the order to surrender and prohibit weapons is addressed, that there is probable cause to believe the respondent was aware of and failed to fully comply with the order, failed to appear at the compliance review hearing, or violated the order after the court entered findings of compliance, pursuant to its authority under chapter 7.21 RCW, the court may issue an arrest warrant and initiate a contempt proceeding to impose remedial sanctions on its own motion, or upon the motion of the prosecutor, city attorney, or the petitioner’s counsel, and issue an order requiring the respondent to appear, with additional sanctions for failure to appear, provide proof of compliance with the order, and show cause why the respondent should not be held in contempt of court.
(b) If the respondent is not present in court at the compliance review hearing or if the court issues an order to appear and show cause after a compliance review hearing, the clerk of the court shall electronically transmit a copy of the order to show cause to the law enforcement agency where the respondent resides for personal service or service in the manner provided in the civil rules of superior court or applicable statute. Law enforcement shall also serve a copy of the order to show cause on the petitioner, either electronically or in person, at no cost.
(c) The order to show cause served upon the respondent shall state the date, time, and location of the hearing and shall include a warning that the respondent may be held in contempt of court if the respondent fails to promptly comply with the terms of the order to surrender and prohibit weapons and a warning that an arrest warrant could be issued if the respondent fails to appear on the date and time provided in the order.
(d)(i) At the show cause hearing, the respondent must be present and provide proof of compliance with the underlying court order to surrender and prohibit weapons and demonstrate why the relief requested should not be granted.
(ii) The court shall take judicial notice of the receipt filed with the court by the law enforcement agency pursuant to subsection (3) of this section. The court shall also provide sufficient notice to the law enforcement agency of the hearing. Upon receiving notice pursuant to this subsection, a law enforcement agency must:
(A) Provide the court with a complete list of firearms and other dangerous weapons surrendered by the respondent or otherwise belonging to the respondent that are in the possession of the law enforcement agency; and
(B) Provide the court with verification that any concealed pistol license issued to the respondent has been surrendered and an agency with authority to revoke the license has been notified.
(iii) If the law enforcement agency has a reasonable suspicion that the respondent is not in full compliance with the terms of the order, the law enforcement agency must submit the basis for its belief to the court, and may do so through the filing of a declaration.
(e) If the court finds the respondent in contempt, the court may impose remedial sanctions designed to ensure swift compliance with the order to surrender and prohibit weapons.
(f) The court may order a respondent found in contempt of the order to surrender and prohibit weapons to pay for any losses incurred by a party in connection with the contempt proceeding, including reasonable attorneys’ fees, service fees, and other costs. The costs of the proceeding shall not be borne by the petitioner.
(8)(a) To help ensure that accurate and comprehensive information about firearms compliance is provided to judicial officers, a representative from either the prosecuting attorney’s office or city attorney’s office, or both, from the relevant jurisdiction may appear and be heard or submit written information at any hearing that concerns compliance with an order to surrender and prohibit weapons.
(b) Either the prosecuting attorney’s office or city attorney’s office, or both, from the relevant jurisdiction may designate an advocate or a staff person from their office who is not an attorney to appear on behalf of their office. Such appearance does not constitute the unauthorized practice of law.
(9)(a) The act of voluntarily surrendering firearms or weapons, providing testimony relating to the surrender of firearms or weapons, or complying with an order to surrender and prohibit weapons issued pursuant to RCW 9.41.800 or 10.99.100, and any information directly or indirectly derived from such act or testimony, may not be used against the person subject to the order in any criminal prosecution under this chapter, chapter 7.105 RCW, or RCW 9A.56.310, or in any criminal prosecution pursuant to which such order to surrender and prohibit weapons was issued, except a prosecution for perjury, giving a false statement, or otherwise failing to comply with the order. Every such order issued subsequent to the effective date of this section shall contain language consistent with the statutory immunity set forth in this subsection.
(b) If a person subject to such an order invokes the privilege against self-incrimination at the time of issuance of the order or at a subsequent hearing, the court may afford the person subject to the order an opportunity to demonstrate that compliance with the surrender provision of the order would expose that person to a realistic threat of self-incrimination in a subsequent or pending criminal proceeding. The court may conduct this portion of the proceeding ex parte or receive evidence in camera, without the presence of the prosecuting attorney, after the court conducts an analysis under State v. Bone-Club, 128 wn.2d 254, and concludes that the courtroom may be closed.
(c) If the person subject to the order establishes such a realistic threat of self-incrimination regarding possible criminal prosecution that is not addressed by the immunity from prosecution set forth in (a) of this subsection, the court shall afford the relevant prosecuting attorney an opportunity to offer an immunity agreement tailored specifically to the firearms or weapons implicated by the potential self-incrimination. To achieve the purposes of this section, any immunity offered should be narrowly tailored to address any realistic threat of self-incrimination while ensuring that any other firearms not implicated are surrendered.
(d) Any immunity from prosecution beyond the immunity set forth in (a) of this subsection, may only be extended by the prosecuting attorney. If the prosecuting attorney declines to extend immunity such that the person subject to the order cannot fully comply with its surrender provision without facing a realistic threat of self-incrimination, the court’s order must provide for the surrender of every firearm, dangerous weapon, and concealed pistol license that does not implicate a realistic threat of self-incrimination. The order’s prohibitions regarding accessing, purchasing, receiving, or attempting to purchase or receive, any firearms or other dangerous weapons, or concealed pistol license, remain in effect.
(e) Nothing in this section shall be interpreted as diminishing the requirement that the person subject to the order fully comply with the order issued by the court. The burden remains on the person subject to the order to prove compliance.
(10) To provide relevant information to the court to determine compliance with the order, the court may allow the prosecuting attorney or city attorney to question the respondent regarding compliance.
(11) All law enforcement agencies must have policies and procedures to provide for the acceptance, storage, and return of firearms, dangerous weapons, and concealed pistol licenses that a court requires must be surrendered under RCW 9.41.800. A law enforcement agency holding any firearm or concealed pistol license that has been surrendered under RCW 9.41.800 shall comply with the provisions of RCW 9.41.340 and 9.41.345 before the return of the firearm or concealed pistol license to the owner or individual from whom it was obtained.
(12) The administrative office of the courts shall create a statewide pattern form to assist the courts in ensuring timely and complete compliance in a consistent manner with orders issued under this chapter. The administrative office of the courts shall report annually on the number of ex parte and full orders issued under this chapter by each court, and, if available, the type of protection order, no-contact order, restraining order, or criminal charge with which the order was issued, the duration of the order, the period of time from issuance of the order until the court’s finding of compliance, any violations, the nature of the violations, any sanctions imposed, the number of firearms obtained pursuant to each order, whether subsequent orders were issued involving the same respondent, and may make recommendations regarding additional procedures, training, or data collection and reporting to enhance compliance and victim safety.
Chapter 9.61. Malicious Mischief--Injury to Property
9.61.230. Telephone harassment
(1) Every person who, with intent to harass, intimidate, torment or embarrass any other person, shall make a telephone call to such other person:
(a) Using any lewd, lascivious, profane, indecent, or obscene words or language, or suggesting the commission of any lewd or lascivious act; or
(b) Anonymously or repeatedly or at an extremely inconvenient hour, whether or not conversation ensues; or
(c) Threatening to inflict injury on the person or property of the person called or any member of his or her family or household; is guilty of a gross misdemeanor, except as provided in subsection (2) of this section.
(2) The person is guilty of a class C felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW if either of the following applies:
(a) That person has previously been convicted of any crime of harassment, as defined in RCW 9A.46.060, with the same victim or member of the victim’s family or household or any person specifically named in a no-contact or no-harassment order in this or any other state; or
(b) That person harasses another person under subsection (1)(c) of this section by threatening to kill the person threatened or any other person.
9.61.240. Telephone harassment--Permitting telephone to be used
Any person who knowingly permits any telephone under his or her control to be used for any purpose prohibited by RCW 9.61.230 shall be guilty of a misdemeanor.
Chapter 9.92. Punishment
9.92.020. Punishment of gross misdemeanor when not fixed by statute
Every person convicted of a gross misdemeanor for which no punishment is prescribed in any statute in force at the time of conviction and sentence, shall be punished by imprisonment in the county jail for a maximum term fixed by the court of up to three hundred sixty-four days, or by a fine in an amount fixed by the court of not more than five thousand dollars, or by both such imprisonment and fine.
Chapter 9.94A. Sentencing Reform Act of 1981
9.94A.030. Definitions
Unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter.
(1) “Board” means the indeterminate sentence review board created under chapter 9.95 RCW.
(2) “Collect,” or any derivative thereof, “collect and remit,” or “collect and deliver,” when used with reference to the department, means that the department, either directly or through a collection agreement authorized by RCW 9.94A.760, is responsible for monitoring and enforcing the offender’s sentence with regard to the legal financial obligation, receiving payment thereof from the offender, and, consistent with current law, delivering daily the entire payment to the superior court clerk without depositing it in a departmental account.
(3) “Commission” means the sentencing guidelines commission.
(4) “Community corrections officer” means an employee of the department who is responsible for carrying out specific duties in supervision of sentenced offenders and monitoring of sentence conditions.
(5) “Community custody” means that portion of an offender’s sentence of confinement in lieu of earned release time or imposed as part of a sentence under this chapter and served in the community subject to controls placed on the offender’s movement and activities by the department.
(6) “Community protection zone” means the area within 880 feet of the facilities and grounds of a public or private school.
(7) “Community restitution” means compulsory service, without compensation, performed for the benefit of the community by the offender.
(8) “Confinement” means total or partial confinement.
(9) “Conviction” means an adjudication of guilt pursuant to Title 10 or 13 RCW and includes a verdict of guilty, a finding of guilty, and acceptance of a plea of guilty.
(10) “Crime-related prohibition” means an order of a court prohibiting conduct that directly relates to the circumstances of the crime for which the offender has been convicted, and shall not be construed to mean orders directing an offender affirmatively to participate in rehabilitative programs or to otherwise perform affirmative conduct. However, affirmative acts necessary to monitor compliance with the order of a court may be required by the department.
(11) “Criminal history” means the list of a defendant’s prior convictions and juvenile adjudications, whether in this state, in federal court, or elsewhere, and any issued certificates of restoration of opportunity pursuant to RCW 9.97.020.
(a) The history shall include, where known, for each conviction (i) whether the defendant has been placed on probation and the length and terms thereof; and (ii) whether the defendant has been incarcerated and the length of incarceration.
(b) A conviction may be removed from a defendant’s criminal history only if it is vacated pursuant to RCW 9.96.060, 9.94A.640, 9.95.240, or a similar out-of-state statute, or if the conviction has been vacated pursuant to a governor’s pardon. However, when a defendant is charged with a recidivist offense, “criminal history” includes a vacated prior conviction for the sole purpose of establishing that such vacated prior conviction constitutes an element of the present recidivist offense as provided in RCW 9.94A.640(4)(b) and 9.96.060(7)(c).
(c) The determination of a defendant’s criminal history is distinct from the determination of an offender score. A prior conviction that was not included in an offender score calculated pursuant to a former version of the sentencing reform act remains part of the defendant’s criminal history.
(12) “Criminal street gang” means any ongoing organization, association, or group of three or more persons, whether formal or informal, having a common name or common identifying sign or symbol, having as one of its primary activities the commission of criminal acts, and whose members or associates individually or collectively engage in or have engaged in a pattern of criminal street gang activity. This definition does not apply to employees engaged in concerted activities for their mutual aid and protection, or to the activities of labor and bona fide nonprofit organizations or their members or agents.
(13) “Criminal street gang associate or member” means any person who actively participates in any criminal street gang and who intentionally promotes, furthers, or assists in any criminal act by the criminal street gang.
(14) “Criminal street gang-related offense” means any felony or misdemeanor offense, whether in this state or elsewhere, that is committed for the benefit of, at the direction of, or in association with any criminal street gang, or is committed with the intent to promote, further, or assist in any criminal conduct by the gang, or is committed for one or more of the following reasons:
(a) To gain admission, prestige, or promotion within the gang;
(b) To increase or maintain the gang’s size, membership, prestige, dominance, or control in any geographical area;
(c) To exact revenge or retribution for the gang or any member of the gang;
(d) To obstruct justice, or intimidate or eliminate any witness against the gang or any member of the gang;
(e) To directly or indirectly cause any benefit, aggrandizement, gain, profit, or other advantage for the gang, its reputation, influence, or membership; or
(f) To provide the gang with any advantage in, or any control or dominance over any criminal market sector, including, but not limited to, manufacturing, delivering, or selling any controlled substance (chapter 69.50 RCW); arson (chapter 9A.48 RCW); trafficking in stolen property (chapter 9A.82 RCW); promoting prostitution (chapter 9A.88 RCW); human trafficking (RCW 9A.40.100); promoting commercial sexual abuse of a minor (RCW 9.68A.101); or promoting pornography (chapter 9.68 RCW).
(15) “Day fine” means a fine imposed by the sentencing court that equals the difference between the offender’s net daily income and the reasonable obligations that the offender has for the support of the offender and any dependents.
(16) “Day reporting” means a program of enhanced supervision designed to monitor the offender’s daily activities and compliance with sentence conditions, and in which the offender is required to report daily to a specific location designated by the department or the sentencing court.
(17) “Department” means the department of corrections.
(18) “Determinate sentence” means a sentence that states with exactitude the number of actual years, months, or days of total confinement, of partial confinement, of community custody, the number of actual hours or days of community restitution work, or dollars or terms of a legal financial obligation. The fact that an offender through earned release can reduce the actual period of confinement shall not affect the classification of the sentence as a determinate sentence.
(19) “Disposable earnings” means that part of the earnings of an offender remaining after the deduction from those earnings of any amount required by law to be withheld. For the purposes of this definition, “earnings” means compensation paid or payable for personal services, whether denominated as wages, salary, commission, bonuses, or otherwise, and, notwithstanding any other provision of law making the payments exempt from garnishment, attachment, or other process to satisfy a court-ordered legal financial obligation, specifically includes periodic payments pursuant to pension or retirement programs, or insurance policies of any type, but does not include payments made under Title 50 RCW, except as provided in RCW 50.40.020 and 50.40.050, or Title 74 RCW.
(20)(a) “Domestic violence” has the same meaning as defined in RCW 10.99.020.
(b) “Domestic violence” also means: (i) Physical harm, bodily injury, assault, or the infliction of fear of imminent physical harm, bodily injury, or assault, sexual assault, or stalking, as defined in RCW 9A.46.110, of one intimate partner by another intimate partner as defined in RCW 10.99.020; or (ii) physical harm, bodily injury, assault, or the infliction of fear of imminent physical harm, bodily injury, or assault, sexual assault, or stalking, as defined in RCW 9A.46.110, of one family or household member by another family or household member as defined in RCW 10.99.020.
(21) “Drug offender sentencing alternative” is a sentencing option available to persons convicted of a felony offense who are eligible for the option under RCW 9.94A.660.
(22) “Drug offense” means:
(a) Any felony violation of chapter 69.50 RCW except possession of a controlled substance (RCW 69.50.4013) or forged prescription for a controlled substance (RCW 69.50.403);
(b) Any offense defined as a felony under federal law that relates to the possession, manufacture, distribution, or transportation of a controlled substance; or
(c) Any out-of-state conviction for an offense that under the laws of this state would be a felony classified as a drug offense under (a) of this subsection.
(23) “Earned release” means earned release from confinement as provided in RCW 9.94A.728.
(24) “Electronic monitoring” means tracking the location of an individual through the use of technology that is capable of determining or identifying the monitored individual’s presence or absence at a particular location including, but not limited to:
(a) Radio frequency signaling technology, which detects if the monitored individual is or is not at an approved location and notifies the monitoring agency of the time that the monitored individual either leaves the approved location or tampers with or removes the monitoring device; or
(b) Active or passive global positioning system technology, which detects the location of the monitored individual and notifies the monitoring agency of the monitored individual’s location and which may also include electronic monitoring with victim notification technology that is capable of notifying a victim or protected party, either directly or through a monitoring agency, if the monitored individual enters within the restricted distance of a victim or protected party, or within the restricted distance of a designated location.
(25) “Escape” means:
(a) Sexually violent predator escape (RCW 9A.76.115), escape in the first degree (RCW 9A.76.110), escape in the second degree (RCW 9A.76.120), willful failure to return from furlough (*RCW 72.66.060), willful failure to return from work release (*RCW 72.65.070), or willful failure to be available for supervision by the department while in community custody (RCW 72.09.310); or
(b) Any federal or out-of-state conviction for an offense that under the laws of this state would be a felony classified as an escape under (a) of this subsection.
(26) “Felony traffic offense” means:
(a) Vehicular homicide (RCW 46.61.520), vehicular assault (RCW 46.61.522), eluding a police officer (RCW 46.61.024), felony hit-and-run injury-accident (RCW 46.52.020(4)), felony driving while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug (RCW 46.61.502(6)), or felony physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug (RCW 46.61.504(6)); or
(b) Any federal or out-of-state conviction for an offense that under the laws of this state would be a felony classified as a felony traffic offense under (a) of this subsection.
(27) “Fine” means a specific sum of money ordered by the sentencing court to be paid by the offender to the court over a specific period of time.
(28) “First-time offender” means any person who has no prior convictions for a felony and is eligible for the first-time offender waiver under RCW 9.94A.650.
(29) “Home detention” is a subset of electronic monitoring and means a program of partial confinement available to offenders wherein the offender is confined in a private residence 24 hours a day, unless an absence from the residence is approved, authorized, or otherwise permitted in the order by the court or other supervising agency that ordered home detention, and the offender is subject to electronic monitoring.
(30) “Homelessness” or “homeless” means a condition where an individual lacks a fixed, regular, and adequate nighttime residence and who has a primary nighttime residence that is:
(a) A supervised, publicly or privately operated shelter designed to provide temporary living accommodations;
(b) A public or private place not designed for, or ordinarily used as, a regular sleeping accommodation for human beings; or
(c) A private residence where the individual stays as a transient invitee.
(31) “Legal financial obligation” means a sum of money that is ordered by a superior court of the state of Washington for legal financial obligations which may include restitution to the victim, statutorily imposed crime victims’ compensation fees as assessed pursuant to RCW 7.68.035, court costs, county or interlocal drug funds, court-appointed attorneys’ fees, and costs of defense, fines, and any other financial obligation that is assessed to the offender as a result of a felony conviction. Upon conviction for vehicular assault while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug, RCW 46.61.522(1)(b), or vehicular homicide while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug, RCW 46.61.520(1)(a), legal financial obligations may also include payment to a public agency of the expense of an emergency response to the incident resulting in the conviction, subject to RCW 38.52.430.
(32) “Most serious offense” means any of the following felonies or a felony attempt to commit any of the following felonies:
(a) Any felony defined under any law as a class A felony or criminal solicitation of or criminal conspiracy to commit a class A felony;
(b) Assault in the second degree;
(c) Assault of a child in the second degree;
(d) Child molestation in the second degree;
(e) Controlled substance homicide;
(f) Extortion in the first degree;
(g) Incest when committed against a child under age 14;
(h) Indecent liberties;
(i) Kidnapping in the second degree;
(j) Leading organized crime;
(k) Manslaughter in the first degree;
(l) Manslaughter in the second degree;
(m) Promoting prostitution in the first degree;
(n) Rape in the third degree;
(o) Sexual exploitation;
(p) Vehicular assault, when caused by the operation or driving of a vehicle by a person while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug or by the operation or driving of a vehicle in a reckless manner;
(q) Vehicular homicide, when proximately caused by the driving of any vehicle by any person while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug as defined by RCW 46.61.502, or by the operation of any vehicle in a reckless manner;
(r) Any other class B felony offense with a finding of sexual motivation;
(s) Any other felony with a deadly weapon verdict under RCW 9.94A.825;
(t) Any felony offense in effect at any time prior to December 2, 1993, that is comparable to a most serious offense under this subsection, or any federal or out-of-state conviction for an offense that under the laws of this state would be a felony classified as a most serious offense under this subsection;
(u)(i) A prior conviction for indecent liberties under RCW 9A.44.100(1) (a), (b), and (c), chapter 260, Laws of 1975 1st ex. sess. as it existed until July 1, 1979, RCW 9A.44.100(1) (a), (b), and (c) as it existed from July 1, 1979, until June 11, 1986, and RCW 9A.44.100(1) (a), (b), and (d) as it existed from June 11, 1986, until July 1, 1988;
(ii) A prior conviction for indecent liberties under RCW 9A.44.100(1)(c) as it existed from June 11, 1986, until July 1, 1988, if: (A) The crime was committed against a child under the age of 14; or (B) the relationship between the victim and perpetrator is included in the definition of indecent liberties under RCW 9A.44.100(1)(c) as it existed from July 1, 1988, through July 27, 1997, or RCW 9A.44.100(1) (d) or (e) as it existed from July 25, 1993, through July 27, 1997;
(v) Any out-of-state conviction for a felony offense with a finding of sexual motivation if the minimum sentence imposed was 10 years or more; provided that the out-of-state felony offense must be comparable to a felony offense under this title and Title 9A RCW and the out-of-state definition of sexual motivation must be comparable to the definition of sexual motivation contained in this section.
(33) “Nonviolent offense” means an offense which is not a violent offense.
(34) “Offender” means a person who has committed a felony established by state law and is 18 years of age or older or is less than 18 years of age but whose case is under superior court jurisdiction under RCW 13.04.030 or has been transferred by the appropriate juvenile court to a criminal court pursuant to RCW 13.40.110. In addition, for the purpose of community custody requirements under this chapter, “offender” also means a misdemeanant or gross misdemeanant probationer ordered by a superior court to probation pursuant to RCW 9.92.060, 9.95.204, or 9.95.210 and supervised by the department pursuant to RCW 9.94A.501 and **9.94A.5011. Throughout this chapter, the terms “offender” and “defendant” are used interchangeably.
(35) “Partial confinement” means confinement for no more than one year in a facility or institution operated or utilized under contract by the state or any other unit of government, or, if home detention, electronic monitoring, or work crew has been ordered by the court or home detention has been ordered by the department as part of the parenting program or the graduated reentry program, in an approved residence, for a substantial portion of each day with the balance of the day spent in the community. Partial confinement includes work release, home detention, work crew, electronic monitoring, and a combination of work crew, electronic monitoring, and home detention.
(36) “Pattern of criminal street gang activity” means:
(a) The commission, attempt, conspiracy, or solicitation of, or any prior juvenile adjudication of or adult conviction of, two or more of the following criminal street gang-related offenses:
(i) Any “serious violent” felony offense as defined in this section, excluding Homicide by Abuse (RCW 9A.32.055) and Assault of a Child 1 (RCW 9A.36.120);
(ii) Any “violent” offense as defined by this section, excluding Assault of a Child 2 (RCW 9A.36.130);
(iii) Deliver or Possession with Intent to Deliver a Controlled Substance (chapter 69.50 RCW);
(iv) Any violation of the firearms and dangerous weapon act (chapter 9.41 RCW);
(v) Theft of a Firearm (RCW 9A.56.300);
(vi) Possession of a Stolen Firearm (RCW 9A.56.310);
(vii) Hate Crime (RCW 9A.36.080);
(viii) Harassment where a subsequent violation or deadly threat is made (RCW 9A.46.020(2)(b));
(ix) Criminal Gang Intimidation (RCW 9A.46.120);
(x) Any felony conviction by a person 18 years of age or older with a special finding of involving a juvenile in a felony offense under RCW 9.94A.833;
(xi) Residential Burglary (RCW 9A.52.025);
(xii) Burglary 2 (RCW 9A.52.030);
(xiii) Malicious Mischief 1 (RCW 9A.48.070);
(xiv) Malicious Mischief 2 (RCW 9A.48.080);
(xv) Theft of a Motor Vehicle (RCW 9A.56.065);
(xvi) Possession of a Stolen Motor Vehicle (RCW 9A.56.068);
(xvii) Taking a Motor Vehicle Without Permission 1 (RCW 9A.56.070);
(xviii) Taking a Motor Vehicle Without Permission 2 (RCW 9A.56.075);
(xix) Extortion 1 (RCW 9A.56.120);
(xx) Extortion 2 (RCW 9A.56.130);
(xxi) Intimidating a Witness (RCW 9A.72.110);
(xxii) Tampering with a Witness (RCW 9A.72.120);
(xxiii) Reckless Endangerment (RCW 9A.36.050);
(xxiv) Coercion (RCW 9A.36.070);
(xxv) Harassment (RCW 9A.46.020); or
(xxvi) Malicious Mischief 3 (RCW 9A.48.090);
(b) That at least one of the offenses listed in (a) of this subsection shall have occurred after July 1, 2008;
(c) That the most recent committed offense listed in (a) of this subsection occurred within three years of a prior offense listed in (a) of this subsection; and
(d) Of the offenses that were committed in (a) of this subsection, the offenses occurred on separate occasions or were committed by two or more persons.
(37) “Persistent offender” is an offender who:
(a)(i) Has been convicted in this state of any felony considered a most serious offense; and
(ii) Has, before the commission of the offense under (a) of this subsection, been convicted as an offender on at least two separate occasions, whether in this state or elsewhere, of felonies that under the laws of this state would be considered most serious offenses and would be included in the offender score under RCW 9.94A.525; provided that of the two or more previous convictions, at least one conviction must have occurred before the commission of any of the other most serious offenses for which the offender was previously convicted; or
(b)(i) Has been convicted of: (A) Rape in the first degree, rape of a child in the first degree, child molestation in the first degree, rape in the second degree, rape of a child in the second degree, or indecent liberties by forcible compulsion; (B) any of the following offenses with a finding of sexual motivation: Murder in the first degree, murder in the second degree, homicide by abuse, kidnapping in the first degree, kidnapping in the second degree, assault in the first degree, assault in the second degree, assault of a child in the first degree, assault of a child in the second degree, or burglary in the first degree; or (C) an attempt to commit any crime listed in this subsection (37)(b)(i); and
(ii) Has, before the commission of the offense under (b)(i) of this subsection, been convicted as an offender on at least one occasion, whether in this state or elsewhere, of an offense listed in (b)(i) of this subsection or any federal or out-of-state offense or offense under prior Washington law that is comparable to the offenses listed in (b)(i) of this subsection. A conviction for rape of a child in the first degree constitutes a conviction under (b)(i) of this subsection only when the offender was 16 years of age or older when the offender committed the offense. A conviction for rape of a child in the second degree constitutes a conviction under (b)(i) of this subsection only when the offender was 18 years of age or older when the offender committed the offense.
(38) “Predatory” means: (a) The perpetrator of the crime was a stranger to the victim, as defined in this section; (b) the perpetrator established or promoted a relationship with the victim prior to the offense and the victimization of the victim was a significant reason the perpetrator established or promoted the relationship; or (c) the perpetrator was: (i) A teacher, counselor, volunteer, or other person in authority in any public or private school and the victim was a student of the school under his or her authority or supervision. For purposes of this subsection, “school” does not include home-based instruction as defined in RCW 28A.225.010; (ii) a coach, trainer, volunteer, or other person in authority in any recreational activity and the victim was a participant in the activity under his or her authority or supervision; (iii) a pastor, elder, volunteer, or other person in authority in any church or religious organization, and the victim was a member or participant of the organization under his or her authority; or (iv) a teacher, counselor, volunteer, or other person in authority providing home-based instruction and the victim was a student receiving home-based instruction while under his or her authority or supervision. For purposes of this subsection: (A) “Home-based instruction” has the same meaning as defined in RCW 28A.225.010; and (B) “teacher, counselor, volunteer, or other person in authority” does not include the parent or legal guardian of the victim.
(39) “Private school” means a school regulated under chapter 28A.195 or 28A.205 RCW.
(40) “Public school” has the same meaning as in RCW 28A.150.010.
(41) “Recidivist offense” means a felony offense where a prior conviction of the same offense or other specified offense is an element of the crime including, but not limited to:
(a) Assault in the fourth degree where domestic violence is pleaded and proven, RCW 9A.36.041(3);
(b) Cyber harassment, RCW 9A.90.120(2)(b)(i);
(c) Harassment, RCW 9A.46.020(2)(b)(i);
(d) Indecent exposure, RCW 9A.88.010(2)(c);
(e) Stalking, RCW 9A.46.110(5)(b) (i) and (iii);
(f) Telephone harassment, RCW 9.61.230(2)(a); and
(g) Violation of a no-contact or protection order, RCW 7.105.450 or former RCW 26.50.110(5).
(42) “Repetitive domestic violence offense” means any:
(a)(i) Domestic violence assault that is not a felony offense under RCW 9A.36.041;
(ii) Domestic violence violation of a no-contact order under chapter 10.99 RCW that is not a felony offense;
(iii) Domestic violence violation of a protection order under chapter 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW or former chapter 26.50 RCW, or violation of a domestic violence protection order under chapter 7.105 RCW, that is not a felony offense;
(iv) Domestic violence harassment offense under RCW 9A.46.020 that is not a felony offense; or
(v) Domestic violence stalking offense under RCW 9A.46.110 that is not a felony offense; or
(b) Any federal, out-of-state, tribal court, military, county, or municipal conviction for an offense that under the laws of this state would be classified as a repetitive domestic violence offense under (a) of this subsection.
(43) “Restitution” means a specific sum of money ordered by the sentencing court to be paid by the offender to the court over a specified period of time as payment of damages. The sum may include both public and private costs.
(44) “Risk assessment” means the application of the risk instrument recommended to the department by the Washington state institute for public policy as having the highest degree of predictive accuracy for assessing an offender’s risk of reoffense.
(45) “Serious traffic offense” means:
(a) Nonfelony driving while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug (RCW 46.61.502), nonfelony actual physical control while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug (RCW 46.61.504), reckless driving (RCW 46.61.500), or hit-and-run an attended vehicle (RCW 46.52.020(5)); or
(b) Any federal, out-of-state, county, or municipal conviction for an offense that under the laws of this state would be classified as a serious traffic offense under (a) of this subsection.
(46) “Serious violent offense” is a subcategory of violent offense and means:
(a)(i) Murder in the first degree;
(ii) Homicide by abuse;
(iii) Murder in the second degree;
(iv) Manslaughter in the first degree;
(v) Assault in the first degree;
(vi) Kidnapping in the first degree;
(vii) Rape in the first degree;
(viii) Assault of a child in the first degree; or
(ix) An attempt, criminal solicitation, or criminal conspiracy to commit one of these felonies; or
(b) Any federal or out-of-state conviction for an offense that under the laws of this state would be a felony classified as a serious violent offense under (a) of this subsection.
(47) “Sex offense” means:
(a)(i) A felony that is a violation of chapter 9A.44 RCW other than RCW 9A.44.132;
(ii) A violation of RCW 9A.64.020;
(iii) A felony that is a violation of chapter 9.68A RCW other than RCW 9.68A.080;
(iv) A felony that is, under chapter 9A.28 RCW, a criminal attempt, criminal solicitation, or criminal conspiracy to commit such crimes; or
(v) A felony violation of RCW 9A.44.132(1) (failure to register as a sex offender) if the person has been convicted of violating RCW 9A.44.132(1) (failure to register as a sex offender) or 9A.44.130 prior to June 10, 2010, on at least one prior occasion;
(b) Any conviction for a felony offense in effect at any time prior to July 1, 1976, that is comparable to a felony classified as a sex offense in (a) of this subsection;
(c) A felony with a finding of sexual motivation under RCW 9.94A.835 or 13.40.135; or
(d) Any federal or out-of-state conviction for an offense that under the laws of this state would be a felony classified as a sex offense under (a) of this subsection.
(48) “Sexual motivation” means that one of the purposes for which the defendant committed the crime was for the purpose of his or her sexual gratification.
(49) “Standard sentence range” means the sentencing court’s discretionary range in imposing a nonappealable sentence.
(50) “Statutory maximum sentence” means the maximum length of time for which an offender may be confined as punishment for a crime as prescribed in chapter 9A.20 RCW, RCW 9.92.010, the statute defining the crime, or other statute defining the maximum penalty for a crime.
(51) “Stranger” means that the victim did not know the offender 24 hours before the offense.
(52) “Total confinement” means confinement inside the physical boundaries of a facility or institution operated or utilized under contract by the state or any other unit of government for 24 hours a day, or pursuant to RCW 72.64.050 and 72.64.060.
(53) “Transition training” means written and verbal instructions and assistance provided by the department to the offender during the two weeks prior to the offender’s successful completion of the work ethic camp program. The transition training shall include instructions in the offender’s requirements and obligations during the offender’s period of community custody.
(54) “Victim” means any person who has sustained emotional, psychological, physical, or financial injury to person or property as a direct result of the crime charged.
(55) “Victim of domestic violence” means an intimate partner or household member who has been subjected to the infliction of physical harm or sexual and psychological abuse by an intimate partner or household member as part of a pattern of assaultive, coercive, and controlling behaviors directed at achieving compliance from or control over that intimate partner or household member. Domestic violence includes, but is not limited to, the offenses listed in RCW 10.99.020 and ***26.50.010 committed by an intimate partner or household member against a victim who is an intimate partner or household member.
(56) “Victim of sex trafficking, prostitution, or commercial sexual abuse of a minor” means a person who has been forced or coerced to perform a commercial sex act including, but not limited to, being a victim of offenses defined in RCW 9A.40.100, 9A.88.070, 9.68A.101, and the trafficking victims protection act of 2000, 22 U.S.C. Sec. 7101 et seq.; or a person who was induced to perform a commercial sex act when they were less than 18 years of age including but not limited to the offenses defined in chapter 9.68A RCW.
(57) “Victim of sexual assault” means any person who is a victim of a sexual assault offense, nonconsensual sexual conduct, or nonconsensual sexual penetration and as a result suffers physical, emotional, financial, or psychological impacts. Sexual assault offenses include, but are not limited to, the offenses defined in chapter 9A.44 RCW.
(58) “Violent offense” means:
(a) Any of the following felonies:
(i) Any felony defined under any law as a class A felony or an attempt to commit a class A felony;
(ii) Criminal solicitation of or criminal conspiracy to commit a class A felony;
(iii) Manslaughter in the first degree;
(iv) Manslaughter in the second degree;
(v) Indecent liberties if committed by forcible compulsion;
(vi) Kidnapping in the second degree;
(vii) Arson in the second degree;
(viii) Assault in the second degree;
(ix) Assault of a child in the second degree;
(x) Extortion in the first degree;
(xi) Robbery in the second degree;
(xii) Drive-by shooting;
(xiii) Vehicular assault, when caused by the operation or driving of a vehicle by a person while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug or by the operation or driving of a vehicle in a reckless manner; and
(xiv) Vehicular homicide, when proximately caused by the driving of any vehicle by any person while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug as defined by RCW 46.61.502, or by the operation of any vehicle in a reckless manner;
(b) Any conviction for a felony offense in effect at any time prior to July 1, 1976, that is comparable to a felony classified as a violent offense in (a) of this subsection; and
(c) Any federal or out-of-state conviction for an offense that under the laws of this state would be a felony classified as a violent offense under (a) or (b) of this subsection.
(59) “Work crew” means a program of partial confinement consisting of civic improvement tasks for the benefit of the community that complies with RCW 9.94A.725.
(60) “Work ethic camp” means an alternative incarceration program as provided in RCW 9.94A.690 designed to reduce recidivism and lower the cost of corrections by requiring offenders to complete a comprehensive array of real-world job and vocational experiences, character-building work ethics training, life management skills development, substance abuse rehabilitation, counseling, literacy training, and basic adult education.
(61) “Work release” means a program of partial confinement available to offenders who are employed or engaged as a student in a regular course of study at school.
9.94A.825. Deadly weapon special verdict--Definition
In a criminal case wherein there has been a special allegation and evidence establishing that the accused or an accomplice was armed with a deadly weapon at the time of the commission of the crime, the court shall make a finding of fact of whether or not the accused or an accomplice was armed with a deadly weapon at the time of the commission of the crime, or if a jury trial is had, the jury shall, if it find[s] the defendant guilty, also find a special verdict as to whether or not the defendant or an accomplice was armed with a deadly weapon at the time of the commission of the crime.
For purposes of this section, a deadly weapon is an implement or instrument which has the capacity to inflict death and from the manner in which it is used, is likely to produce or may easily and readily produce death. The following instruments are included in the term deadly weapon: Blackjack, sling shot, billy, sand club, sandbag, metal knuckles, any dirk, dagger, pistol, revolver, or any other firearm, any knife having a blade longer than three inches, any razor with an unguarded blade, any metal pipe or bar used or intended to be used as a club, any explosive, and any weapon containing poisonous or injurious gas.
Title 9A. Washington Criminal Code
Chapter 9A.04. Preliminary Article
9A.04.040. Classes of crimes
(1) An offense defined by this title or by any other statute of this state, for which a sentence of imprisonment is authorized, constitutes a crime. Crimes are classified as felonies, gross misdemeanors, or misdemeanors.
(2) A crime is a felony if it is so designated in this title or by any other statute of this state or if persons convicted thereof may be sentenced to imprisonment for a term in excess of one year. A crime is a misdemeanor if it is so designated in this title or by any other statute of this state or if persons convicted thereof may be sentenced to imprisonment for no more than ninety days. Every other crime is a gross misdemeanor.
Chapter 9A.20. Classification of Crime
9A.20.021. Maximum sentences for crimes committed July 1, 1984, and after
(1) Felony. Unless a different maximum sentence for a classified felony is specifically established by a statute of this state, no person convicted of a classified felony shall be punished by confinement or fine exceeding the following:
(a) For a class A felony, by confinement in a state correctional institution for a term of life imprisonment, or by a fine in an amount fixed by the court of fifty thousand dollars, or by both such confinement and fine;
(b) For a class B felony, by confinement in a state correctional institution for a term of ten years, or by a fine in an amount fixed by the court of twenty thousand dollars, or by both such confinement and fine;
(c) For a class C felony, by confinement in a state correctional institution for five years, or by a fine in an amount fixed by the court of ten thousand dollars, or by both such confinement and fine.
(2) Gross misdemeanor. Every person convicted of a gross misdemeanor defined in Title 9A RCW shall be punished by imprisonment in the county jail for a maximum term fixed by the court of up to three hundred sixty-four days, or by a fine in an amount fixed by the court of not more than five thousand dollars, or by both such imprisonment and fine.
(3) Misdemeanor. Every person convicted of a misdemeanor defined in Title 9A RCW shall be punished by imprisonment in the county jail for a maximum term fixed by the court of not more than ninety days, or by a fine in an amount fixed by the court of not more than one thousand dollars, or by both such imprisonment and fine.
(4) This section applies to only those crimes committed on or after July 1, 1984.
(5) The fines in this section apply to adult offenders only.
Chapter 9A.36. Assault--Physical Harm
9A.36.011. Assault in the first degree
(1) A person is guilty of assault in the first degree if he or she, with intent to inflict great bodily harm:
(a) Assaults another with a firearm or any deadly weapon or by any force or means likely to produce great bodily harm or death; or
(b) Transmits HIV to a child or vulnerable adult; or
(c) Administers, exposes, or transmits to or causes to be taken by another, poison or any other destructive or noxious substance; or
(d) Assaults another and inflicts great bodily harm.
(2) Assault in the first degree is a class A felony.
9A.36.021. Assault in the second degree
(1) A person is guilty of assault in the second degree if he or she, under circumstances not amounting to assault in the first degree:
(a) Intentionally assaults another and thereby recklessly inflicts substantial bodily harm; or
(b) Intentionally and unlawfully causes substantial bodily harm to an unborn quick child by intentionally and unlawfully inflicting any injury upon the mother of such child; or
(c) Assaults another with a deadly weapon; or
(d) With intent to inflict bodily harm, administers to or causes to be taken by another, poison or any other destructive or noxious substance; or
(e) With intent to commit a felony, assaults another; or
(f) Knowingly inflicts bodily harm which by design causes such pain or agony as to be the equivalent of that produced by torture; or
(g) Assaults another by strangulation or suffocation.
(2)(a) Except as provided in (b) of this subsection, assault in the second degree is a class B felony.
(b) Assault in the second degree with a finding of sexual motivation under RCW 9.94A.835 or 13.40.135 is a class A felony.
9A.36.031. Assault in the third degree
(1) A person is guilty of assault in the third degree if he or she, under circumstances not amounting to assault in the first or second degree:
(a) With intent to prevent or resist the execution of any lawful process or mandate of any court officer or the lawful apprehension or detention of himself, herself, or another person, assaults another; or
(b) Assaults a person employed as a transit operator or driver, the immediate supervisor of a transit operator or driver, a mechanic, or a security officer, by a public or private transit company or a contracted transit service provider, while that person is performing his or her official duties at the time of the assault; or
(c) Assaults a school bus driver, the immediate supervisor of a driver, a mechanic, or a security officer, employed by a school district transportation service or a private company under contract for transportation services with a school district, while the person is performing his or her official duties at the time of the assault; or
(d) With criminal negligence, causes bodily harm to another person by means of a weapon or other instrument or thing likely to produce bodily harm; or
(e) Assaults a firefighter or other employee of a fire department, county fire marshal’s office, county fire prevention bureau, or fire protection district who was performing his or her official duties at the time of the assault; or
(f) With criminal negligence, causes bodily harm accompanied by substantial pain that extends for a period sufficient to cause considerable suffering; or
(g) Assaults a law enforcement officer or other employee of a law enforcement agency who was performing his or her official duties at the time of the assault; or
(h) Assaults a peace officer with a projectile stun gun; or
(i) Assaults a nurse, physician, or health care provider who was performing his or her nursing or health care duties at the time of the assault. For purposes of this subsection: “Nurse” means a person licensed under chapter 18.79 RCW; “physician” means a person licensed under chapter 18.57 or 18.71 RCW; and “health care provider” means a person certified under chapter 18.71 or 18.73 RCW who performs emergency medical services or a person regulated under Title 18 RCW and employed by, or contracting with, a hospital licensed under chapter 70.41 RCW; or
(j) Assaults a judicial officer, court-related employee, county clerk, or county clerk’s employee, while that person is performing his or her official duties at the time of the assault or as a result of that person’s employment within the judicial system. For purposes of this subsection, “court-related employee” includes bailiffs, court reporters, judicial assistants, court managers, court managers’ employees, and any other employee, regardless of title, who is engaged in equivalent functions; or
(k) Assaults a person located in a courtroom, jury room, judge’s chamber, or any waiting area or corridor immediately adjacent to a courtroom, jury room, or judge’s chamber. This section shall apply only: (i) During the times when a courtroom, jury room, or judge’s chamber is being used for judicial purposes during court proceedings; and (ii) if signage was posted in compliance with RCW 2.28.200 at the time of the assault; or
(l) Is a licensed health care provider who implants or causes another to implant the provider’s own gametes or reproductive material into a patient during an assisted reproduction procedure. For the purposes of this subsection, “gamete” means sperm, egg, or any part of a sperm or egg, and “reproductive material” means a human gamete or a human organism at any stage of development from fertilized ovum to embryo.
(2) Assault in the third degree is a class C felony.
9A.36.041. Assault in the fourth degree
(1) A person is guilty of assault in the fourth degree if, under circumstances not amounting to assault in the first, second, or third degree, or custodial assault, he or she assaults another.
(2) Assault in the fourth degree is a gross misdemeanor, except as provided in subsection (3) of this section.
(3)(a) Assault in the fourth degree occurring after July 23, 2017, and before March 18, 2020, where domestic violence is pleaded and proven, is a class C felony if the person has two or more prior adult convictions within ten years for any of the following offenses occurring after July 23, 2017, where domestic violence was pleaded and proven:
(i) Repetitive domestic violence offense as defined in RCW 9.94A.030;
(ii) Crime of harassment as defined by RCW 9A.46.060;
(iii) Assault in the third degree;
(iv) Assault in the second degree;
(v) Assault in the first degree; or
(vi) A municipal, tribal, federal, or out-of-state offense comparable to any offense under (a)(i) through (v) of this subsection.
For purposes of this subsection (3)(a), “family or household members” for purposes of the definition of “domestic violence” means spouses, domestic partners, former spouses, former domestic partners, persons who have a child in common regardless of whether they have been married or have lived together at any time, persons sixteen years of age or older who are presently residing together or who have resided together in the past and who have or have had a dating relationship, and persons sixteen years of age or older with whom a person sixteen years of age or older has or has had a dating relationship. “Family or household member” also includes an “intimate partner” as defined in RCW 10.99.020.
(b) Assault in the fourth degree occurring on or after March 18, 2020, where domestic violence against an “intimate partner” as defined in RCW 10.99.020 is pleaded and proven, is a class C felony if the person has two or more prior adult convictions within ten years for any of the following offenses occurring after July 23, 2017, where domestic violence against an “intimate partner” as defined in RCW 10.99.020 or domestic violence against a “family or household member” as defined in (a) of this subsection was pleaded and proven:
(i) Repetitive domestic violence offense as defined in RCW 9.94A.030;
(ii) Crime of harassment as defined by RCW 9A.46.060;
(iii) Assault in the third degree;
(iv) Assault in the second degree;
(v) Assault in the first degree; or
(vi) A municipal, tribal, federal, or out-of-state offense comparable to any offense under (b)(i) through (v) of this subsection.
9A.36.050. Reckless endangerment
(1) A person is guilty of reckless endangerment when he or she recklessly engages in conduct not amounting to drive-by shooting but that creates a substantial risk of death or serious physical injury to another person.
(2) Reckless endangerment is a gross misdemeanor.
9A.36.070. Coercion
(1) A person is guilty of coercion if by use of a threat he or she compels or induces a person to engage in conduct which the latter has a legal right to abstain from, or to abstain from conduct which he or she has a legal right to engage in.
(2) “Threat” as used in this section means:
(a) To communicate, directly or indirectly, the intent immediately to use force against any person who is present at the time; or
(b) Threats as defined in 1RCW 9A.04.110 (27)(a), (b), or (c).
(3) Coercion is a gross misdemeanor.
9A.36.080. Hate crime offense--Definition and criminal penalty
(1) A person is guilty of a hate crime offense if the person maliciously and intentionally commits one of the following acts because of their perception of another person’s race, color, religion, ancestry, national origin, gender, sexual orientation, gender expression or identity, or mental, physical, or sensory disability:
(a) Assaults another person;
(b) Causes physical damage to or destruction of the property of another; or
(c) Threatens a specific person or group of persons and places that person, or members of the specific group of persons, in reasonable fear of harm to person or property. The fear must be a fear that a reasonable person would have under all the circumstances. For purposes of this section, a “reasonable person” is a reasonable person who is a member of the victim’s race, color, religion, ancestry, national origin, gender, or sexual orientation, or who has the same gender expression or identity, or the same mental, physical, or sensory disability as the victim. Words alone do not constitute a hate crime offense unless the context or circumstances surrounding the words indicate the words are a threat. Threatening words do not constitute a hate crime offense if it is apparent to the victim that the person does not have the ability to carry out the threat.
(2) In any prosecution for a hate crime offense, unless evidence exists which explains to the trier of fact’s satisfaction that the person did not intend to threaten the victim or victims, the trier of fact may infer that the person intended to threaten a specific victim or group of victims because of the person’s perception of the victim’s or victims’ race, color, religion, ancestry, national origin, gender, sexual orientation, gender expression or identity, or mental, physical, or sensory disability if the person commits one of the following acts:
(a) Burns a cross on property of a victim who is or whom the actor perceives to be of African American heritage;
(b) Defaces property of a victim who is or whom the actor perceives to be of Jewish heritage by defacing the property with a Nazi emblem, symbol, or hakenkreuz;
(c) Defaces religious real property with words, symbols, or items that are derogatory to persons of the faith associated with the property;
(d) Places a vandalized or defaced religious item or scripture on the property of a victim who is or whom the actor perceives to be of the faith with which that item or scripture is associated;
(e) Damages, destroys, or defaces religious garb or other faith-based attire belonging to the victim or attempts to or successfully removes religious garb or other faith-based attire from the victim’s person without the victim’s authorization; or
(f) Places a noose on the property of a victim who is or whom the actor perceives to be of a racial or ethnic minority group.
This subsection only applies to the creation of a reasonable inference for evidentiary purposes. This subsection does not restrict the state’s ability to prosecute a person under subsection (1) of this section when the facts of a particular case do not fall within (a) through (f) of this subsection.
(3) It is not a defense that the accused was mistaken that the victim was a member of a certain race, color, religion, ancestry, national origin, gender, or sexual orientation, had a particular gender expression or identity, or had a mental, physical, or sensory disability.
(4) Evidence of expressions or associations of the accused may not be introduced as substantive evidence at trial unless the evidence specifically relates to the crime charged. Nothing in this chapter shall affect the rules of evidence governing impeachment of a witness.
(5) Every person who commits another crime during the commission of a crime under this section may be punished and prosecuted for the other crime separately.
(6) For the purposes of this section:
(a) “Gender expression or identity” means having or being perceived as having a gender identity, self-image, appearance, behavior, or expression, whether or not that gender identity, self-image, appearance, behavior, or expression is different from that traditionally associated with the sex assigned to that person at birth.
(b) “Sexual orientation” means heterosexuality, homosexuality, or bisexuality.
(c) “Threat” means to communicate, directly or indirectly, the intent to:
(i) Cause bodily injury immediately or in the future to the person threatened or to any other person; or
(ii) Cause physical damage immediately or in the future to the property of a person threatened or that of any other person.
(7) Commission of a hate crime offense is a class C felony.
(8) The penalties provided in this section for hate crime offenses do not preclude the victims from seeking any other remedies otherwise available under law.
(9) Nothing in this section confers or expands any civil rights or protections to any group or class identified under this section, beyond those rights or protections that exist under the federal or state Constitution or the civil laws of the state of Washington.
9A.36.150. Interfering with the reporting of domestic violence
(1) A person commits the crime of interfering with the reporting of domestic violence if the person:
(a) Commits a crime of domestic violence, as defined in RCW 10.99.020; and
(b) Prevents or attempts to prevent the victim of or a witness to that domestic violence crime from calling a 911 emergency communication system, obtaining medical assistance, or making a report to any law enforcement official.
(2) Commission of a crime of domestic violence under subsection (1) of this section is a necessary element of the crime of interfering with the reporting of domestic violence.
(3) Interference with the reporting of domestic violence is a gross misdemeanor.
Chapter 9A.40. Kidnapping, Unlawful Imprisonment, and Custodial Interference
9A.40.010. Definitions
The following definitions apply in this chapter:
(1) “Abduct” means to restrain a person by either (a) secreting or holding him or her in a place where he or she is not likely to be found, or (b) using or threatening to use deadly force.
(2) “Commercial sex act” means any act of sexual contact or sexual intercourse for which something of value is given or received.
(3) “Forced labor” means knowingly providing or obtaining labor or services of a person by: (a) Threats of serious harm to, or physical restraint against, that person or another person; or (b) means of any scheme, plan, or pattern intended to cause the person to believe that, if the person did not perform such labor or services, that person or another person would suffer serious harm or physical restraint.
(4) “Involuntary servitude” means a condition of servitude in which the victim was forced to work by the use or threat of physical restraint or physical injury, by the use of threat of coercion through law or legal process, or as set forth in RCW 9A.40.110. For the purposes of this subsection, “coercion” has the same meaning as provided in RCW 9A.36.070.
(5) “Relative” means an ancestor, descendant, or sibling, including a relative of the same degree through marriage or adoption, or a spouse.
(6) “Restrain” means to restrict a person’s movements without consent and without legal authority in a manner which interferes substantially with his or her liberty. Restraint is “without consent” if it is accomplished by (a) physical force, intimidation, or deception, or (b) any means including acquiescence of the victim, if he or she is a child less than sixteen years old or an incompetent person and if the parent, guardian, or other person or institution having lawful control or custody of him or her has not acquiesced.
(7) “Serious harm” means any harm, whether physical or nonphysical, including psychological, financial, or reputational harm, that is sufficiently serious, under all the surrounding circumstances, to compel a reasonable person of the same background and in the same circumstances to perform or to continue performing labor, services, or a commercial sex act in order to avoid incurring that harm.
9A.40.020. Kidnapping in the first degree
(1) A person is guilty of kidnapping in the first degree if he or she intentionally abducts another person with intent:
(a) To hold him or her for ransom or reward, or as a shield or hostage; or
(b) To facilitate commission of any felony or flight thereafter; or
(c) To inflict bodily injury on him or her; or
(d) To inflict extreme mental distress on him, her, or a third person; or
(e) To interfere with the performance of any governmental function.
(2) Kidnapping in the first degree is a class A felony.
9A.40.030. Kidnapping in the second degree
(1) A person is guilty of kidnapping in the second degree if he or she intentionally abducts another person under circumstances not amounting to kidnapping in the first degree.
(2) In any prosecution for kidnapping in the second degree, it is a defense if established by the defendant by a preponderance of the evidence that (a) the abduction does not include the use of or intent to use or threat to use deadly force, and (b) the actor is a relative of the person abducted, and (c) the actor’s sole intent is to assume custody of that person. Nothing contained in this paragraph shall constitute a defense to a prosecution for, or preclude a conviction of, any other crime.
(3)(a) Except as provided in (b) of this subsection, kidnapping in the second degree is a class B felony.
(b) Kidnapping in the second degree with a finding of sexual motivation under RCW 9.94A.835 or 13.40.135 is a class A felony.
9A.40.040. Unlawful imprisonment
(1) A person is guilty of unlawful imprisonment if he or she knowingly restrains another person.
(2) Unlawful imprisonment is a class C felony.
9A.40.060. Custodial interference in the first degree
(1) A relative of a child under the age of eighteen or of an incompetent person is guilty of custodial interference in the first degree if, with the intent to deny access to the child or incompetent person by a parent, guardian, institution, agency, or other person having a lawful right to physical custody of such person, the relative takes, entices, retains, detains, or conceals the child or incompetent person from a parent, guardian, institution, agency, or other person having a lawful right to physical custody of such person and:
(a) Intends to hold the child or incompetent person permanently or for a protracted period; or
(b) Exposes the child or incompetent person to a substantial risk of illness or physical injury; or
(c) Causes the child or incompetent person to be removed from the state of usual residence; or
(d) Retains, detains, or conceals the child or incompetent person in another state after expiration of any authorized visitation period with intent to intimidate or harass a parent, guardian, institution, agency, or other person having lawful right to physical custody or to prevent a parent, guardian, institution, agency, or other person with lawful right to physical custody from regaining custody.
(2) A parent of a child is guilty of custodial interference in the first degree if the parent takes, entices, retains, detains, or conceals the child, with the intent to deny access, from the other parent having the lawful right to time with the child pursuant to a court order making residential provisions for the child, and:
(a) Intends to hold the child permanently or for a protracted period; or
(b) Exposes the child to a substantial risk of illness or physical injury; or
(c) Causes the child to be removed from the state of usual residence.
(3) A parent or other person acting under the directions of the parent is guilty of custodial interference in the first degree if the parent or other person intentionally takes, entices, retains, or conceals a child, under the age of eighteen years and for whom no lawful custody order or order making residential provisions for the child has been entered by a court of competent jurisdiction, from the other parent with intent to deprive the other parent from access to the child permanently or for a protracted period.
(4) Custodial interference in the first degree is a class C felony.
9A.40.070. Custodial interference in the second degree
(1) A relative of a person is guilty of custodial interference in the second degree if, with the intent to deny access to such person by a parent, guardian, institution, agency, or other person having a lawful right to physical custody of such person, the relative takes, entices, retains, detains, or conceals the person from a parent, guardian, institution, agency, or other person having a lawful right to physical custody of such person. This subsection shall not apply to a parent’s noncompliance with a court order making residential provisions for the child.
(2) A parent of a child is guilty of custodial interference in the second degree if: (a) The parent takes, entices, retains, detains, or conceals the child, with the intent to deny access, from the other parent having the lawful right to time with the child pursuant to a court order making residential provisions for the child; or (b) the parent has not complied with the residential provisions of a court-ordered parenting plan after a finding of contempt under RCW 26.09.160(3); or (c) if the court finds that the parent has engaged in a pattern of willful violations of a court order making residential provisions for the child.
(3) Nothing in subsection (2)(b) of this section prohibits conviction of custodial interference in the second degree under subsection (2)(a) or (c) of this section in absence of findings of contempt.
(4)(a) The first conviction of custodial interference in the second degree is a gross misdemeanor.
(b) The second or subsequent conviction of custodial interference in the second degree is a class C felony.
9A.40.080. Custodial interference--Assessment of costs--Defense--Consent defense, restricted
(1) Any reasonable expenses incurred in locating or returning a child or incompetent person shall be assessed against a defendant convicted under RCW 9A.40.060 or 9A.40.070.
(2) In any prosecution of custodial interference in the first or second degree, it is a complete defense, if established by the defendant by a preponderance of the evidence, that:
(a) The defendant’s purpose was to protect the child, incompetent person, or himself or herself from imminent physical harm, that the belief in the existence of the imminent physical harm was reasonable, and that the defendant sought the assistance of the police, sheriff’s office, protective agencies, or the court of any state before committing the acts giving rise to the charges or within a reasonable time thereafter;
(b) The complainant had, prior to the defendant committing the acts giving rise to the crime, for a protracted period of time, failed to exercise his or her rights to physical custody or access to the child under a court-ordered parenting plan or order granting visitation rights, provided that such failure was not the direct result of the defendant’s denial of access to such person;
(c) The acts giving rise to the charges were consented to by the complainant; or
(d) The offender, after providing or making a good faith effort to provide notice to the person entitled to access to the child, failed to provide access to the child due to reasons that a reasonable person would believe were directly related to the welfare of the child, and allowed access to the child in accordance with the court order within a reasonable period of time. The burden of proof that the denial of access was reasonable is upon the person denying access to the child.
(3) Consent of a child less than sixteen years of age or of an incompetent person does not constitute a defense to an action under RCW 9A.40.060 or 9A.40.070.
9A.40.090. Luring
(1) A person commits the crime of luring if the person, with the intent to harm the health, safety, or welfare of the minor or person with a developmental disability or with the intent to facilitate the commission of any crime:
(a) Orders, lures, or attempts to lure a minor or a person with a developmental disability into any area or structure that is obscured from or inaccessible to the public, or away from any area or structure constituting a bus terminal, airport terminal, or other transportation terminal, or into a motor vehicle;
(b) Does not have the consent of the minor’s parent or guardian or of the guardian of the person with a developmental disability; and
(c) Is unknown to the child or developmentally disabled person.
(2) For purposes of this section:
(a) “Minor” means a person under the age of sixteen;
(b) “Person with a developmental disability” means a person with a developmental disability as defined in RCW 71A.10.020.
(3) Luring is a class C felony.
9A.40.100. Trafficking
(1) A person is guilty of trafficking in the first degree when:
(a) Such person:
(i) Recruits, harbors, transports, transfers, provides, obtains, buys, purchases, or receives by any means another person knowing, or in reckless disregard of the fact, (A) that force, fraud, or coercion as defined in RCW 9A.36.070 will be used to cause the person to engage in:
(I) Forced labor;
(II) Involuntary servitude;
(III) A sexually explicit act; or
(IV) A commercial sex act, or (B) that the person has not attained the age of eighteen years and is caused to engage in a sexually explicit act or a commercial sex act; or
(ii) Benefits financially or by receiving anything of value from participation in a venture that has engaged in acts set forth in (a)(i) of this subsection; and
(b) The acts or venture set forth in (a) of this subsection:
(i) Involve committing or attempting to commit kidnapping;
(ii) Involve a finding of sexual motivation under RCW 9.94A.835;
(iii) Involve the illegal harvesting or sale of human organs; or
(iv) Result in a death.
(2) Trafficking in the first degree is a class A felony.
(3)(a) A person is guilty of trafficking in the second degree when such person:
(i) Recruits, harbors, transports, transfers, provides, obtains, buys, purchases, or receives by any means another person knowing, or in reckless disregard of the fact, that force, fraud, or coercion as defined in RCW 9A.36.070 will be used to cause the person to engage in forced labor, involuntary servitude, a sexually explicit act, or a commercial sex act, or that the person has not attained the age of eighteen years and is caused to engage in a sexually explicit act or a commercial sex act; or
(ii) Benefits financially or by receiving anything of value from participation in a venture that has engaged in acts set forth in (a)(i) of this subsection.
(b) Trafficking in the second degree is a class A felony.
(4)(a) In any prosecution under this chapter in which the offense or degree of the offense depends on the victim’s age, it is not a defense that the perpetrator did not know the victim’s age, or that the perpetrator believed the victim to be older, as the case may be.
(b) A person who is either convicted or given a deferred sentence or a deferred prosecution or who has entered into a statutory or nonstatutory diversion agreement as a result of an arrest for a violation of a trafficking crime shall be assessed a ten thousand dollar fee.
(c) The court shall not reduce, waive, or suspend payment of all or part of the fee assessed in this section unless it finds, on the record, that the offender does not have the ability to pay the fee in which case it may reduce the fee by an amount up to two-thirds of the maximum allowable fee.
(d) Fees assessed under this section shall be collected by the clerk of the court and remitted to the treasurer of the county where the offense occurred for deposit in the county general fund, except in cases in which the offense occurred in a city or town that provides for its own law enforcement, in which case these amounts shall be remitted to the treasurer of the city or town for deposit in the general fund of the city or town. Revenue from the fees must be used for local efforts to reduce the commercial sale of sex including, but not limited to, increasing enforcement of commercial sex laws.
(i) At least fifty percent of the revenue from fees imposed under this section must be spent on prevention, including education programs for offenders, such as john school, and rehabilitative services, such as mental health and substance abuse counseling, parenting skills, training, housing relief, education, vocational training, drop-in centers, and employment counseling.
(ii) Revenues from these fees are not subject to the distribution requirements under RCW 3.50.100, 3.62.020, 3.62.040, 10.82.070, or 35.20.220.
(5) If the victim of any offense identified in this section is a minor, force, fraud, or coercion are not necessary elements of an offense and consent to the sexually explicit act or commercial sex act does not constitute a defense.
(6) For purposes of this section:
(a) “Commercial sex act” means any act of sexual contact or sexual intercourse, both as defined in chapter 9A.44 RCW, for which something of value is given or received by any person; and
(b) “Sexually explicit act” means a public, private, or live photographed, recorded, or videotaped act or show intended to arouse or satisfy the sexual desires or appeal to the prurient interests of patrons for which something of value is given or received.
Chapter 9A.44. Sex Offenses
9A.44.040. Rape in the first degree
(1) A person is guilty of rape in the first degree when such person engages in sexual intercourse with another person by forcible compulsion where the perpetrator or an accessory:
(a) Uses or threatens to use a deadly weapon or what appears to be a deadly weapon; or
(b) Kidnaps the victim; or
(c) Inflicts serious physical injury, including but not limited to physical injury which renders the victim unconscious; or
(d) Feloniously enters into the building or vehicle where the victim is situated.
(2) Rape in the first degree is a class A felony.
9A.44.050. Rape in the second degree
(1) A person is guilty of rape in the second degree when, under circumstances not constituting rape in the first degree, the person engages in sexual intercourse with another person:
(a) By forcible compulsion;
(b) When the victim is incapable of consent by reason of being physically helpless or mentally incapacitated;
(c) When the victim is a person with a developmental disability and the perpetrator is a person who:
(i) Has supervisory authority over the victim; or
(ii) Was providing transportation, within the course of his or her employment, to the victim at the time of the offense;
(d) When the perpetrator is a health care provider, the victim is a client or patient, and the sexual intercourse occurs during a treatment session, consultation, interview, or examination. It is an affirmative defense that the defendant must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that the client or patient consented to the sexual intercourse with the knowledge that the sexual intercourse was not for the purpose of treatment;
(e) When the victim is a resident of a facility for persons with a mental disorder or substance use disorder and the perpetrator is a person who has supervisory authority over the victim; or
(f) When the victim is a frail elder or vulnerable adult and the perpetrator is a person who:
(i) Has a significant relationship with the victim; or
(ii) Was providing transportation, within the course of his or her employment, to the victim at the time of the offense.
(2) Rape in the second degree is a class A felony.
9A.44.060. Rape in the third degree
(1) A person is guilty of rape in the third degree when, under circumstances not constituting rape in the first or second degrees, such person engages in sexual intercourse with another person:
(a) Where the victim did not consent as defined in RCW 9A.44.010(7), to sexual intercourse with the perpetrator and such lack of consent was clearly expressed by the victim’s words or conduct, or
(b) Where there is threat of substantial unlawful harm to property rights of the victim.
(2) Rape in the third degree is a class C felony.
9A.44.115. Voyeurism
(1) As used in this section:
(a) “Intimate areas” means any portion of a person’s body or undergarments that is covered by clothing and intended to be protected from public view;
(b) “Photographs” or “films” means the making of a photograph, motion picture film, videotape, digital image, or any other recording or transmission of the image of a person;
(c) “Place where he or she would have a reasonable expectation of privacy” means:
(i) A place where a reasonable person would believe that he or she could disrobe in privacy, without being concerned that his or her undressing was being photographed or filmed by another; or
(ii) A place where one may reasonably expect to be safe from casual or hostile intrusion or surveillance;
(d) “Surveillance” means secret observation of the activities of another person for the purpose of spying upon and invading the privacy of the person;
(e) “Views” means the intentional looking upon of another person for more than a brief period of time, in other than a casual or cursory manner, with the unaided eye or with a device designed or intended to improve visual acuity.
(2)(a) A person commits the crime of voyeurism in the first degree if, for the purpose of arousing or gratifying the sexual desire of any person, he or she knowingly views, photographs, or films:
(i) Another person without that person’s knowledge and consent while the person being viewed, photographed, or filmed is in a place where he or she would have a reasonable expectation of privacy; or
(ii) The intimate areas of another person without that person’s knowledge and consent and under circumstances where the person has a reasonable expectation of privacy, whether in a public or private place.
(b) Voyeurism in the first degree is a class C felony.
(3)(a) A person commits the crime of voyeurism in the second degree if he or she intentionally photographs or films another person for the purpose of photographing or filming the intimate areas of that person with the intent to distribute or disseminate the photograph or film, without that person’s knowledge and consent, and under circumstances where the person has a reasonable expectation of privacy, whether in a public or private place.
(b) Voyeurism in the second degree is a gross misdemeanor.
(c) Voyeurism in the second degree is not a sex offense for the purposes of sentencing or sex offender registration requirements under this chapter.
(4) This section does not apply to viewing, photographing, or filming by personnel of the department of corrections or of a local jail or correctional facility for security purposes or during investigation of alleged misconduct by a person in the custody of the department of corrections or the local jail or correctional facility.
(5) If a person is convicted of a violation of this section, the court may order the destruction of any photograph, motion picture film, digital image, videotape, or any other recording of an image that was made by the person in violation of this section.
Chapter 9A.46. Harassment
9A.46.020. Definition--Penalties
(1) A person is guilty of harassment if:
(a) Without lawful authority, the person knowingly threatens:
(i) To cause bodily injury immediately or in the future to the person threatened or to any other person; or
(ii) To cause physical damage to the property of a person other than the actor; or
(iii) To subject the person threatened or any other person to physical confinement or restraint; or
(iv) Maliciously to do any other act which is intended to substantially harm the person threatened or another with respect to his or her physical health or safety; and
(b) The person by words or conduct places the person threatened in reasonable fear that the threat will be carried out. “Words or conduct” includes, in addition to any other form of communication or conduct, the sending of an electronic communication.
(2)(a) Except as provided in (b) of this subsection, a person who harasses another is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
(b) A person who harasses another is guilty of a class C felony if any of the following apply: (i) The person has previously been convicted in this or any other state of any crime of harassment, as defined in RCW 9A.46.060, of the same victim or members of the victim’s family or household or any person specifically named in a no-contact or no-harassment order; (ii) the person harasses another person under subsection (1)(a)(i) of this section by threatening to kill the person threatened or any other person; (iii) the person harasses a criminal justice participant or election official who is performing his or her official duties at the time the threat is made; or (iv) the person harasses a criminal justice participant or election official because of an action taken or decision made by the criminal justice participant or election official during the performance of his or her official duties. For the purposes of (b)(iii) and (iv) of this subsection, the fear from the threat must be a fear that a reasonable criminal justice participant or election official would have under all the circumstances. Threatening words do not constitute harassment if it is apparent to the criminal justice participant or election official that the person does not have the present and future ability to carry out the threat.
(3) Any criminal justice participant or election official who is a target for threats or harassment prohibited under subsection (2)(b)(iii) or (iv) of this section, and any person residing with him or her, shall be eligible for the address confidentiality program created under RCW 40.24.030.
(4) For purposes of this section, a criminal justice participant includes any (a) federal, state, or local law enforcement agency employee; (b) federal, state, or local prosecuting attorney or deputy prosecuting attorney; (c) staff member of any adult corrections institution or local adult detention facility; (d) staff member of any juvenile corrections institution or local juvenile detention facility; (e) community corrections officer, probation, or parole officer; (f) member of the indeterminate sentence review board; (g) advocate from a crime victim/witness program; or (h) defense attorney.
(5) For the purposes of this section, an election official includes any staff member of the office of the secretary of state or staff member of a county auditor’s office, regardless of whether the member is employed on a temporary or part-time basis, whose duties relate to voter registration or the processing of votes as provided in Title 29A RCW.
(6) The penalties provided in this section for harassment do not preclude the victim from seeking any other remedy otherwise available under law.
9A.46.060. Crimes included in harassment
As used in this chapter, “harassment” may include but is not limited to any of the following crimes:
(1) Harassment (RCW 9A.46.020);
(2) Hate crime (RCW 9A.36.080);
(3) Telephone harassment (RCW 9.61.230);
(4) Assault in the first degree (RCW 9A.36.011);
(5) Assault of a child in the first degree (RCW 9A.36.120);
(6) Assault in the second degree (RCW 9A.36.021);
(7) Assault of a child in the second degree (RCW 9A.36.130);
(8) Assault in the fourth degree (RCW 9A.36.041);
(9) Reckless endangerment (RCW 9A.36.050);
(10) Extortion in the first degree (RCW 9A.56.120);
(11) Extortion in the second degree (RCW 9A.56.130);
(12) Coercion (RCW 9A.36.070);
(13) Burglary in the first degree (RCW 9A.52.020);
(14) Burglary in the second degree (RCW 9A.52.030);
(15) Criminal trespass in the first degree (RCW 9A.52.070);
(16) Criminal trespass in the second degree (RCW 9A.52.080);
(17) Malicious mischief in the first degree (RCW 9A.48.070);
(18) Malicious mischief in the second degree (RCW 9A.48.080);
(19) Malicious mischief in the third degree (RCW 9A.48.090);
(20) Kidnapping in the first degree (RCW 9A.40.020);
(21) Kidnapping in the second degree (RCW 9A.40.030);
(22) Unlawful imprisonment (RCW 9A.40.040);
(23) Rape in the first degree (RCW 9A.44.040);
(24) Rape in the second degree (RCW 9A.44.050);
(25) Rape in the third degree (RCW 9A.44.060);
(26) Indecent liberties (RCW 9A.44.100);
(27) Rape of a child in the first degree (RCW 9A.44.073);
(28) Rape of a child in the second degree (RCW 9A.44.076);
(29) Rape of a child in the third degree (RCW 9A.44.079);
(30) Child molestation in the first degree (RCW 9A.44.083);
(31) Child molestation in the second degree (RCW 9A.44.086);
(32) Child molestation in the third degree (RCW 9A.44.089);
(33) Stalking (RCW 9A.46.110);
(34) Cyber harassment (RCW 9A.90.120);
(35) Residential burglary (RCW 9A.52.025);
(36) Violation of a temporary, permanent, or final protective order issued pursuant to chapter 9A.44, 9A.46, 10.99, or 26.09 RCW or any of the former chapters 7.90, 10.14, and 26.50 RCW, or violation of a domestic violence protection order, sexual assault protection order, or antiharassment protection order issued under chapter 7.105 RCW;
(37) Unlawful discharge of a laser in the first degree (RCW 9A.49.020);
(38) Unlawful discharge of a laser in the second degree (RCW 9A.49.030); and
(39) Felony hazing (RCW 28B.10.901(2)(b)).
9A.46.110. Stalking
(1)(a) A person commits the crime of stalking if, without lawful authority the person:
(i) Intentionally and repeatedly harasses another person;
(ii) Intentionally and repeatedly follows another person;
(iii) Intentionally contacts, follows, tracks, or monitors, or attempts to contact, follow, track, or monitor another person after being given actual notice that the person does not want to be contacted, followed, tracked, or monitored; or
(iv) Knowingly and without consent installs or monitors an electronic tracking device, or causes an electronic tracking device to be installed, placed, or used, to track the location of another person; and
(b) The person being harassed, followed, tracked, or monitored suffers substantial emotional distress or is placed in fear that the stalker intends to injure him or her, or another person, or his or her property or the property of another person, or, in the circumstances identified in (a)(iv) of this subsection, the victim’s knowledge of the tracking device would reasonably elicit substantial emotional distress or fear. The feeling of substantial emotional distress or fear must be one that a reasonable person in the same situation would experience given the totality of the circumstances.
(2)(a) It is not a defense to the crime of stalking under subsection (1)(a) (i), (ii), or (iv) of this section that the stalker was not given actual notice that the person did not want the stalker to contact, follow, track, or monitor him or her; and
(b) It is not a defense to the crime of stalking under subsection (1)(a)(i) of this section that the stalker did not intend to frighten or intimidate the person or place the person in substantial emotional distress.
(3) It shall be a defense to the crime of stalking that the defendant is a licensed private investigator acting within the capacity of his or her license as provided by chapter 18.165 RCW.
(4) The provisions of this section do not apply to the installation, placement, or use of an electronic tracking device by any of the following:
(a) A law enforcement officer, judicial officer, probation or parole officer, or other public employee when any such person is engaged in the lawful performance of official duties and in accordance with state or federal law;
(b) The installation, placement, or use of an electronic tracking device authorized by an order of a state or federal court;
(c) A legal guardian for a disabled adult or a legally authorized individual or organization designated to provide protective services to a disabled adult when the electronic tracking device is installed, placed, or used to track the location of the disabled adult for which the person is a legal guardian or the individual or organization is designated to provide protective services;
(d) A parent or legal guardian of a minor when the electronic tracking device is installed, placed, or used to track the location of that minor unless the parent or legal guardian is subject to a court order that orders the parent or legal guardian not to assault, threaten, harass, follow, or contact that minor;
(e) An employer, school, or other organization, who owns the device on which the tracking device is installed and provides the device to a person for use in connection with the person’s involvement with the employer, school, or other organization and the use of the device is limited to recovering lost or stolen items; or
(f) The owner of fleet vehicles, when tracking such vehicles. For the purposes of this section, “fleet vehicle” means any of the following:
(i) One or more motor vehicles owned by a single entity and operated by employees or agents of the entity for business or government purposes;
(ii) Motor vehicles held for lease or rental to the general public; or
(iii) Motor vehicles held for sale, or used as demonstrators, test vehicles, or loaner vehicles, by motor vehicle dealers.
(5)(a) Except as provided in (b) of this subsection, a person who stalks another person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
(b) A person who stalks another person is guilty of a class B felony if any of the following applies:
(i) The stalker has previously been convicted in this state or any other state of any crime of harassment, as defined in RCW 9A.46.060;
(ii) The stalking violates any protective order protecting the victim;
(iii) The stalker has previously been convicted of a gross misdemeanor or felony stalking offense under this section for stalking another person;
(iv) The stalker was armed with a deadly weapon, as defined in RCW 9.94A.825, while stalking the victim;
(v)(A) The victim is or was a law enforcement officer; judge; juror; attorney; victim advocate; legislator; community corrections’ officer; an employee, contract staff person, or volunteer of a correctional agency; court employee, court clerk, or courthouse facilitator; or an employee of the child protective, child welfare, or adult protective services division within the department of social and health services; and
(B) The stalker stalked the victim to retaliate against the victim for an act the victim performed during the course of official duties or to influence the victim’s performance of official duties; or
(vi) The victim is a current, former, or prospective witness in an adjudicative proceeding, and the stalker stalked the victim to retaliate against the victim as a result of the victim’s testimony or potential testimony.
(6) As used in this section:
(a) “Actual notice” includes, in addition to any other form of actual notice, circumstances in which the other person has a protective order in effect protecting him or her from the person.
(b) “Contact” includes, in addition to any other form of contact or communication, the sending of an electronic communication to the other person.
(c) “Correctional agency” means a person working for the department of natural resources in a correctional setting or any state, county, or municipally operated agency with the authority to direct the release of a person serving a sentence or term of confinement and includes but is not limited to the department of corrections, the indeterminate sentence review board, and the department of social and health services.
(d) “Course of conduct” means a pattern of conduct composed of a series of acts over a period of time, however short, evidencing a continuity of purpose. “Course of conduct” includes, in addition to any other form of communication, contact, or conduct, the sending of an electronic communication, but does not include constitutionally protected free speech. Constitutionally protected activity is not included within the meaning of “course of conduct.”
(e) “Electronic tracking device” means an electronic device that permits a person to remotely determine or monitor the position and movement of another person, vehicle, device, or other personal possession. As used in this subsection (6)(e), “electronic device” includes computer code or other digital instructions that once installed on a digital device, allows a person to remotely track the position of that device.
(f) “Follows” means deliberately maintaining visual or physical proximity to a specific person over a period of time. A finding that the stalker repeatedly and deliberately appears at the person’s home, school, place of employment, business, or any other location to maintain visual or physical proximity to the person is sufficient to find that the stalker follows the person. It is not necessary to establish that the stalker follows the person while in transit from one location to another.
(g) “Harasses” means a knowing and willful course of conduct directed at a specific person which seriously alarms, annoys, torments, or is detrimental to such person, and which serves no legitimate or lawful purpose.
(h) “Protective order” means any temporary or permanent court order prohibiting or limiting violence against, harassment of, contact or communication with, or physical proximity to another person.
(i) “Repeatedly” means on two or more separate occasions.
(j) “Substantial emotional distress” means a mental, emotional, or physical reaction such as anxiety, apprehension, or loss of ability to concentrate or other symptoms, whether or not medical or other professional treatment or counseling is sought or required, which degrades the victim’s quality of life.
Chapter 9A.52. Burglary and Trespass
9A.52.070. Criminal trespass in the first degree
(1) A person is guilty of criminal trespass in the first degree if he or she knowingly enters or remains unlawfully in a building.
(2) Criminal trespass in the first degree is a gross misdemeanor.
9A.52.080. Criminal trespass in the second degree
(1) A person is guilty of criminal trespass in the second degree if he or she knowingly enters or remains unlawfully in or upon premises of another under circumstances not constituting criminal trespass in the first degree.
(2) Criminal trespass in the second degree is a misdemeanor.
Chapter 9A.86. Disclosing Intimate Images
9A.86.010. Disclosing intimate images
(1) A person commits the crime of disclosing intimate images when the person knowingly discloses an intimate image of another person and the person disclosing the image:
(a) Obtained it under circumstances in which a reasonable person would know or understand that the image was to remain private;
(b) Knows or should have known that the depicted person has not consented to the disclosure; and
(c) Knows or reasonably should know that disclosure would cause harm to the depicted person.
(2) A person who is under the age of eighteen is not guilty of the crime of disclosing intimate images unless the person:
(a) Intentionally and maliciously disclosed an intimate image of another person;
(b) Obtained it under circumstances in which a reasonable person would know or understand that the image was to remain private; and
(c) Knows or should have known that the depicted person has not consented to the disclosure.
(3) This section does not apply to:
(a) Images involving voluntary exposure in public or commercial settings; or
(b) Disclosures made in the public interest including, but not limited to, the reporting of unlawful conduct, or the lawful and common practices of law enforcement, criminal reporting, legal proceedings, or medical treatment.
(4) This section does not impose liability upon the following entities solely as a result of content provided by another person:
(a) An interactive computer service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. Sec. 230(f)(2);
(b) A mobile telecommunications service provider, as defined in RCW 82.04.065; or
(c) A telecommunications network or broadband provider.
(5) It shall be an affirmative defense to a violation of this section that the defendant is a family member of a minor and did not intend any harm or harassment in disclosing the images of the minor to other family or friends of the defendant. This affirmative defense shall not apply to matters defined under RCW 9.68A.011.
(6) For purposes of this section:
(a) “Disclosing” includes transferring, publishing, or disseminating, as well as making a digital depiction available for distribution or downloading through the facilities of a telecommunications network or through any other means of transferring computer programs or data to a computer;
(b) “Intimate image” means any photograph, motion picture film, videotape, digital image, or any other recording or transmission of another person who is identifiable from the image itself or from information displayed with or otherwise connected to the image, and that was taken in a private setting, is not a matter of public concern, and depicts:
(i) Sexual activity, including sexual intercourse as defined in RCW 9A.44.010 and masturbation; or
(ii) A person’s intimate body parts, whether nude or visible through less than opaque clothing, including the genitals, pubic area, anus, or postpubescent female nipple.
(7) The crime of disclosing intimate images:
(a) Is a gross misdemeanor on the first offense; or
(b) Is a class C felony if the defendant has one or more prior convictions for a violation of this section or RCW 9A.86.0001.
(8) Nothing in this section is construed to:
(a) Alter or negate any rights, obligations, or immunities of an interactive service provider under 47 U.S.C. Sec. 230; or
(b) Limit or preclude a plaintiff from securing or recovering any other available remedy.
Chapter 9A.90. Washington Cybercrime Act
9A.90.040. Computer trespass in the first degree
(1) A person is guilty of computer trespass in the first degree if the person, without authorization, intentionally gains access to a computer system or electronic database of another; and
(a) The access is made with the intent to commit another crime in violation of a state law not included in this chapter; or
(b) The violation involves a computer or database maintained by a government agency.
(2) Computer trespass in the first degree is a class C felony.
9A.90.050. Computer trespass in the second degree
(1) A person is guilty of computer trespass in the second degree if the person, without authorization, intentionally gains access to a computer system or electronic database of another under circumstances not constituting the offense in the first degree.
(2) Computer trespass in the second degree is a gross misdemeanor.
9A.90.070. Spoofing
(1) A person is guilty of spoofing if he or she, without authorization, knowingly initiates the transmission, display, or receipt of the identifying information of another organization or person for the purpose of gaining unauthorized access to electronic data, a data system, or a data network, and with the intent to commit another crime in violation of a state law not included in this chapter.
(2) Spoofing is a gross misdemeanor.
9A.90.080. Electronic data tampering in the first degree
(1) A person is guilty of electronic data tampering in the first degree if he or she maliciously and without authorization:
(a)(i) Alters data as it transmits between two data systems over an open or unsecure network; or
(ii) Introduces any malware into any electronic data, data system, or data network; and
(b)(i) Doing so is for the purpose of devising or executing any scheme to defraud, deceive, or extort, or commit any other crime in violation of a state law not included in this chapter, or of wrongfully controlling, gaining access to, or obtaining money, property, or electronic data; or
(ii) The electronic data, data system, or data network is maintained by a governmental [government] agency.
(2) Electronic data tampering in the first degree is a class C felony.
9A.90.090. Electronic data tampering in the second degree
(1) A person is guilty of electronic data tampering in the second degree if he or she maliciously and without authorization:
(a) Alters data as it transmits between two data systems over an open or unsecure network under circumstances not constituting the offense in the first degree; or
(b) Introduces any malware into any electronic data, data system, or data network under circumstances not constituting the offense in the first degree.
(2) Electronic data tampering in the second degree is a gross misdemeanor.
9A.90.100. Electronic data theft
(1) A person is guilty of electronic data theft if he or she intentionally, without authorization, and without reasonable grounds to believe that he or she has such authorization,
(a) Devise or execute any scheme to defraud, deceive, extort, or commit any other crime in violation of a state law not included in this chapter; or
(b) Wrongfully control, gain access to, or obtain money, property, or electronic data.
(2) Electronic data theft is a class C felony.
9A.90.120. Cyber harassment
(1) A person is guilty of cyber harassment if the person, with intent to harass or intimidate any other person, and under circumstances not constituting telephone harassment, makes an electronic communication to that person or a third party and the communication:
(a)(i) Uses any lewd, lascivious, indecent, or obscene words, images, or language, or suggests the commission of any lewd or lascivious act;
(ii) Is made anonymously or repeatedly;
(iii) Contains a threat to inflict bodily injury immediately or in the future on the person threatened or to any other person; or
(iv) Contains a threat to damage, immediately or in the future, the property of the person threatened or of any other person; and
(b) With respect to any offense committed under the circumstances identified in (a)(iii) or (iv) of this subsection:
(i) Would cause a reasonable person, with knowledge of the sender’s history, to suffer emotional distress or to fear for the safety of the person threatened; or
(ii) Reasonably caused the threatened person to suffer emotional distress or fear for the threatened person’s safety.
(2)(a) Except as provided in (b) of this subsection, cyber harassment is a gross misdemeanor.
(b) A person who commits cyber harassment is guilty of a class C felony if any of the following apply:
(i) The person has previously been convicted in this or any other state of any crime of harassment, as defined in RCW 9A.46.060, of the same victim or members of the victim’s family or household or any person specifically named in a no-contact or no-harassment order;
(ii) The person cyber harasses another person under subsection (1)(a)(iii) of this section by threatening to kill the person threatened or any other person;
(iii) The person cyber harasses a criminal justice participant or election official who is performing the participant’s official duties or election official’s official duties at the time the communication is made;
(iv) The person cyber harasses a criminal justice participant or election official because of an action taken or decision made by the criminal justice participant or election official during the performance of the participant’s official duties or election official’s official duties; or
(v) The person commits cyber harassment in violation of any protective order protecting the victim.
(3) Any criminal justice participant or election official who is a target for threats or harassment prohibited under subsection (2)(b)(iii) or (iv) of this section, and any family members residing with the participant or election official, shall be eligible for the address confidentiality program created under RCW 40.24.030.
(4) For purposes of this section, a criminal justice participant includes any:
(a) Federal, state, or municipal court judge;
(b) Federal, state, or municipal court staff;
(c) Federal, state, or local law enforcement agency employee;
(d) Federal, state, or local prosecuting attorney or deputy prosecuting attorney;
(e) Staff member of any adult corrections institution or local adult detention facility;
(f) Staff member of any juvenile corrections institution or local juvenile detention facility;
(g) Community corrections officer, probation officer, or parole officer;
(h) Member of the indeterminate sentence review board;
(i) Advocate from a crime victim/witness program; or
(j) Defense attorney.
(5) For the purposes of this section, an election official includes any staff member of the office of the secretary of state or staff member of a county auditor’s office, regardless of whether the member is employed on a temporary or part-time basis, whose duties relate to voter registration or the processing of votes as provided in Title 29A RCW.
(6) The penalties provided in this section for cyber harassment do not preclude the victim from seeking any other remedy otherwise available under law.
(7) Any offense committed under this section may be deemed to have been committed either at the place from which the communication was made or at the place where the communication was received.
(8) For purposes of this section, “electronic communication” means the transmission of information by wire, radio, optical cable, electromagnetic, or other similar means. “Electronic communication” includes, but is not limited to, email, internet-based communications, pager service, and electronic text messaging.
Title 10. Criminal Procedures
Chapter 10.31. Warrants and Arrests
10.31.100. Arrest without warrant
A police officer having probable cause to believe that a person has committed or is committing a felony shall have the authority to arrest the person without a warrant. A police officer may arrest a person without a warrant for committing a misdemeanor or gross misdemeanor only when the offense is committed in the presence of an officer, except as provided in subsections (1) through (11) of this section.
(1) Any police officer having probable cause to believe that a person has committed or is committing a misdemeanor or gross misdemeanor, involving physical harm or threats of harm to any person or property or the unlawful taking of property or involving the use or possession of cannabis, or involving the acquisition, possession, or consumption of alcohol by a person under the age of twenty-one years under RCW 66.44.270, or involving criminal trespass under RCW 9A.52.070 or 9A.52.080, shall have the authority to arrest the person.
(2) A police officer shall arrest and take into custody, pending release on bail, personal recognizance, or court order, a person without a warrant when the officer has probable cause to believe that:
(a) A domestic violence protection order, a sexual assault protection order, a stalking protection order, or a vulnerable adult protection order has been issued, of which the person has knowledge, under chapter 7.105 RCW, or an order has been issued, of which the person has knowledge, under RCW 26.44.063, or chapter 9A.40, 9A.46, 9A.88, 10.99, 26.09, 26.26A, 26.26B, or 74.34 RCW, or any of the former chapters 7.90, 7.92, and 26.50 RCW, restraining the person and the person has violated the terms of the order restraining the person from acts or threats of violence, or restraining the person from going onto the grounds of, or entering, a residence, workplace, school, or day care, or prohibiting the person from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance of a location, a protected party’s person, or a protected party’s vehicle, or requiring the person to submit to electronic monitoring, or, in the case of an order issued under RCW 26.44.063, imposing any other restrictions or conditions upon the person;
(b) An extreme risk protection order has been issued against the person under chapter 7.105 RCW or former RCW 7.94.040, the person has knowledge of the order, and the person has violated the terms of the order prohibiting the person from having in the person’s custody or control, purchasing, possessing, accessing, or receiving a firearm or concealed pistol license;
(c) A foreign protection order, as defined in RCW 26.52.010, or a Canadian domestic violence protection order, as defined in RCW 26.55.010, has been issued of which the person under restraint has knowledge and the person under restraint has violated a provision of the foreign protection order or the Canadian domestic violence protection order prohibiting the person under restraint from contacting or communicating with another person, or excluding the person under restraint from a residence, workplace, school, or day care, or prohibiting the person from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance of a location, a protected party’s person, or a protected party’s vehicle, or a violation of any provision for which the foreign protection order or the Canadian domestic violence protection order specifically indicates that a violation will be a crime; or
(d) The person is eighteen years or older and within the preceding four hours has assaulted a family or household member or intimate partner as defined in RCW 10.99.020 and the officer believes: (i) A felonious assault has occurred; (ii) an assault has occurred which has resulted in bodily injury to the victim, whether the injury is observable by the responding officer or not; or (iii) that any physical action has occurred which was intended to cause another person reasonably to fear imminent serious bodily injury or death. Bodily injury means physical pain, illness, or an impairment of physical condition. When the officer has probable cause to believe that family or household members or intimate partners have assaulted each other, the officer is not required to arrest both persons. The officer shall arrest the person whom the officer believes to be the primary aggressor. In making this determination, the officer shall make every reasonable effort to consider: (A) The intent to protect victims of domestic violence under RCW 10.99.010; (B) the comparative extent of injuries inflicted or serious threats creating fear of physical injury; and (C) the history of domestic violence of each person involved, including whether the conduct was part of an ongoing pattern of abuse.
(3) Any police officer having probable cause to believe that a person has committed or is committing a violation of any of the following traffic laws shall have the authority to arrest the person:
(a) RCW 46.52.010, relating to duty on striking an unattended car or other property;
(b) RCW 46.52.020, relating to duty in case of injury to, or death of, a person or damage to an attended vehicle;
(c) RCW 46.61.500 or 46.61.530, relating to reckless driving or racing of vehicles;
(d) RCW 46.61.502 or 46.61.504, relating to persons under the influence of intoxicating liquor or drugs;
(e) RCW 46.61.503 or 46.25.110, relating to persons having alcohol or THC in their system;
(f) RCW 46.20.342, relating to driving a motor vehicle while operator’s license is suspended or revoked;
(g) RCW 46.61.5249, relating to operating a motor vehicle in a negligent manner.
(4) A law enforcement officer investigating at the scene of a motor vehicle accident may arrest the driver of a motor vehicle involved in the accident if the officer has probable cause to believe that the driver has committed, in connection with the accident, a violation of any traffic law or regulation.
(5)(a) A law enforcement officer investigating at the scene of a motor vessel accident may arrest the operator of a motor vessel involved in the accident if the officer has probable cause to believe that the operator has committed, in connection with the accident, a criminal violation of chapter 79A.60 RCW.
(b) A law enforcement officer investigating at the scene of a motor vessel accident may issue a citation for an infraction to the operator of a motor vessel involved in the accident if the officer has probable cause to believe that the operator has committed, in connection with the accident, a violation of any boating safety law of chapter 79A.60 RCW.
(6) Any police officer having probable cause to believe that a person has committed or is committing a violation of RCW 79A.60.040 shall have the authority to arrest the person.
(7) An officer may act upon the request of a law enforcement officer, in whose presence a traffic infraction was committed, to stop, detain, arrest, or issue a notice of traffic infraction to the driver who is believed to have committed the infraction. The request by the witnessing officer shall give an officer the authority to take appropriate action under the laws of the state of Washington.
(8) Any police officer having probable cause to believe that a person has committed or is committing any act of indecent exposure, as defined in RCW 9A.88.010, may arrest the person.
(9) A police officer may arrest and take into custody, pending release on bail, personal recognizance, or court order, a person without a warrant when the officer has probable cause to believe that an antiharassment protection order has been issued of which the person has knowledge under chapter 7.105 RCW or former chapter 10.14 RCW and the person has violated the terms of that order.
(10) Any police officer having probable cause to believe that a person has, within twenty-four hours of the alleged violation, committed a violation of RCW 9A.50.020 may arrest such person.
(11) A police officer having probable cause to believe that a person illegally possesses or illegally has possessed a firearm or other dangerous weapon on private or public elementary or secondary school premises shall have the authority to arrest the person.
For purposes of this subsection, the term “firearm” has the meaning defined in RCW 9.41.010 and the term “dangerous weapon” has the meaning defined in RCW 9.41.250 and 9.41.280(1) (c) through (e).
(12) A law enforcement officer having probable cause to believe that a person has committed a violation under RCW 77.15.160(5) may issue a citation for an infraction to the person in connection with the violation.
(13) A law enforcement officer having probable cause to believe that a person has committed a criminal violation under RCW 77.15.809 or 77.15.811 may arrest the person in connection with the violation.
(14) Except as specifically provided in subsections (2), (3), (4), and (7) of this section, nothing in this section extends or otherwise affects the powers of arrest prescribed in Title 46 RCW.
(15) No police officer may be held criminally or civilly liable for making an arrest pursuant to subsection (2) or (9) of this section if the police officer acts in good faith and without malice.
(16)(a) Except as provided in (b) of this subsection, a police officer shall arrest and keep in custody, until release by a judicial officer on bail, personal recognizance, or court order, a person without a warrant when the officer has probable cause to believe that the person has violated RCW 46.61.502 or 46.61.504 or an equivalent local ordinance and the police officer: (i) Has knowledge that the person has a prior offense as defined in RCW 46.61.5055 within ten years; or (ii) has knowledge, based on a review of the information available to the officer at the time of arrest, that the person is charged with or is awaiting arraignment for an offense that would qualify as a prior offense as defined in RCW 46.61.5055 if it were a conviction.
(b) A police officer is not required to keep in custody a person under (a) of this subsection if the person requires immediate medical attention and is admitted to a hospital.
Chapter 10.40. Arraignment
10.40.050. Entry and use of true name
If he or she alleges that another name is his or her true name it must be entered in the minutes of the court, and the subsequent proceedings on the indictment or information may be had against him or her by that name, referring also to the name by which he or she is indicted or informed against.
Chapter 10.99. Domestic Violence--Official Response
10.99.020. Definitions
Unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter.
(1) “Agency” means a general authority Washington law enforcement agency as defined in RCW 10.93.020.
(2) “Association” means the Washington association of sheriffs and police chiefs.
(3) “Dating relationship” has the same meaning as in RCW 7.105.010.
(4) “Domestic violence” includes but is not limited to any of the following crimes when committed either by (a) one family or household member against another family or household member, or (b) one intimate partner against another intimate partner:
(i) Assault in the first degree (RCW 9A.36.011);
(ii) Assault in the second degree (RCW 9A.36.021);
(iii) Assault in the third degree (RCW 9A.36.031);
(iv) Assault in the fourth degree (RCW 9A.36.041);
(v) Drive-by shooting (RCW 9A.36.045);
(vi) Reckless endangerment (RCW 9A.36.050);
(vii) Coercion (RCW 9A.36.070);
(viii) Burglary in the first degree (RCW 9A.52.020);
(ix) Burglary in the second degree (RCW 9A.52.030);
(x) Criminal trespass in the first degree (RCW 9A.52.070);
(xi) Criminal trespass in the second degree (RCW 9A.52.080);
(xii) Malicious mischief in the first degree (RCW 9A.48.070);
(xiii) Malicious mischief in the second degree (RCW 9A.48.080);
(xiv) Malicious mischief in the third degree (RCW 9A.48.090);
(xv) Kidnapping in the first degree (RCW 9A.40.020);
(xvi) Kidnapping in the second degree (RCW 9A.40.030);
(xvii) Unlawful imprisonment (RCW 9A.40.040);
(xviii) Violation of the provisions of a restraining order, no-contact order, or protection order restraining or enjoining the person or restraining the person from going onto the grounds of or entering a residence, workplace, school, or day care, or prohibiting the person from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance of a location, a protected party’s person, or a protected party’s vehicle (chapter 7.105 RCW, or RCW 10.99.040, 10.99.050, 26.09.300, *26.10.220, 26.26B.050, 26.44.063, 26.44.150, or 26.52.070, or any of the former RCW 26.50.060, 26.50.070, 26.50.130, and 74.34.145);
(xix) Rape in the first degree (RCW 9A.44.040);
(xx) Rape in the second degree (RCW 9A.44.050);
(xxi) Residential burglary (RCW 9A.52.025);
(xxii) Stalking (RCW 9A.46.110); and
(xxiii) Interference with the reporting of domestic violence (RCW 9A.36.150).
(5) “Electronic monitoring” means the same as in RCW 9.94A.030.
(6) “Employee” means any person currently employed with an agency.
(7) “Family or household members” means: (a) Adult persons related by blood or marriage; (b) adult persons who are presently residing together or who have resided together in the past; and (c) persons who have a biological or legal parent-child relationship, including stepparents and stepchildren and grandparents and grandchildren.
(8) “Intimate partners” means: (a) Spouses or domestic partners; (b) former spouses or former domestic partners; (c) persons who have a child in common regardless of whether they have been married or have lived together at any time; (d) adult persons presently or previously residing together who have or have had a dating relationship; (e) persons 16 years of age or older who are presently residing together or who have resided together in the past and who have or have had a dating relationship; or (f) persons 16 years of age or older with whom a person 16 years of age or older has or has had a dating relationship.
(9) “Sworn employee” means a general authority Washington peace officer as defined in RCW 10.93.020, any person appointed under RCW 35.21.333, and any person appointed or elected to carry out the duties of the sheriff under chapter 36.28 RCW.
(10) “Victim” means a family or household member or an intimate partner who has been subjected to domestic violence.
10.99.040. Duties of court--No-contact order
(1) Because of the serious nature of domestic violence, the court in domestic violence actions:
(a) Shall not dismiss any charge or delay disposition because of concurrent dissolution or other civil proceedings;
(b) Shall not require proof that either party is seeking a dissolution of marriage prior to instigation of criminal proceedings;
(c) Shall waive any requirement that the victim’s location be disclosed to any person, other than the attorney of a criminal defendant, upon a showing that there is a possibility of further violence: PROVIDED, That the court may order a criminal defense attorney not to disclose to the attorney’s client the victim’s location;
(d) Shall identify by any reasonable means on docket sheets those criminal actions arising from acts of domestic violence;
(e) Shall not deny issuance of a no-contact order based on the existence of an applicable civil protection order preventing the defendant from contacting the victim; and
(f) When issuing a no-contact order, shall attempt to determine whether there are any other active no-contact orders, protection orders, or restraining orders involving the defendant to assist the court in ensuring that any no-contact order it may impose does not lessen protections imposed by other courts under other such orders.
(2)(a) Because of the likelihood of repeated violence directed at those who have been victims of domestic violence in the past, when any person charged with or arrested for a crime involving domestic violence is released from custody before arraignment or trial on bail or personal recognizance, the court authorizing the release may prohibit that person from having any contact with the victim and others. The jurisdiction authorizing the release shall determine whether that person should be prohibited from having any contact with the victim. The court authorizing release may issue a no-contact order that:
(i) Prohibits the person charged or arrested from making any attempt to contact, including nonphysical contact, the victim or the victim’s family or household members, either directly, indirectly, or through a third party;
(ii) Excludes the defendant from a residence shared with the victim, or from a workplace, school, or child care;
(iii) Prohibits the person from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance of a location or vehicle; and
(iv) Includes other related prohibitions to reduce risk of harm.
(b) The court shall verify that the requirements of RCW 10.99.030(3) have been satisfied, including that a sworn statement of a peace officer has been submitted to the court, documenting that the responding peace officers separated the parties and asked the victim or victims at the scene about firearms, other dangerous weapons, and ammunition that the defendant owns or has access to, and whether the defendant has a concealed pistol license. If the sworn statement of a peace officer or other information provided to the court indicates there may be a risk of harm if the defendant has access to firearms, dangerous weapons, or an active concealed pistol license, the court shall verify that peace officers have temporarily removed and secured all the firearms, dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license. The court shall then determine whether an order to surrender and prohibit weapons or an extreme risk protection order should be issued pursuant to RCW 9.41.800 or chapter 7.105 RCW, prohibiting the defendant from possessing, purchasing, receiving, having in the defendant’s control or custody, accessing, or attempting to purchase or receive, any firearms, dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license and shall order the defendant to surrender, and prohibit the defendant from possessing, any firearms, dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license as required in RCW 9.41.800, or shall issue an extreme risk protection order as required by chapter 7.105 RCW. The court may make these determinations on the record or off the record with a written explanation when declining to impose the restrictions authorized in this subsection.
(3)(a) At the time of arraignment, the court shall review the defendant’s firearms purchase history provided by the prosecutor pursuant to RCW 10.99.045, and any other firearms information provided by law enforcement or court or jail staff, and shall determine whether a no-contact order, an order to surrender and prohibit weapons, or an extreme risk protection order shall be issued or, if previously issued, extended.
(b) So long as the court finds probable cause, the court may issue or extend a no-contact order, an order to surrender and prohibit weapons, or an extreme risk protection order, even if the defendant fails to appear at arraignment. The no-contact order shall terminate if the defendant is acquitted or the charges are dismissed. To the extent the court is aware, the court shall advise the defendant of the ongoing requirements of any other no-contact, restraining, or protection order that remains in effect.
(c) If a no-contact order is issued or extended, the court may also include in the conditions of release a requirement that the defendant submit to electronic monitoring as defined in RCW 9.94A.030. If electronic monitoring is ordered, the court shall specify who shall provide the monitoring services, and the terms under which the monitoring shall be performed. Upon conviction, the court may require as a condition of the sentence that the defendant pay the costs of the electronic monitoring. If a defendant enters into a deferred prosecution or stipulated order of continuance, the applicable order or agreement may require the defendant pay the costs of the electronic monitoring.
(4)(a) Willful violation of a court order issued under this section is punishable as provided under RCW 7.105.450 or 7.105.460, or chapter 9.41 RCW.
(b) The written order releasing the person charged or arrested shall contain the court’s directives and shall bear the legend: “Violation of this order is a criminal offense under chapter 7.105 RCW and will subject a violator to arrest; any assault, drive-by shooting, or reckless endangerment that is a violation of this order is a felony. You can be arrested even if any person protected by the order invites or allows you to violate the order’s prohibitions. You have the sole responsibility to avoid or refrain from violating the order’s provisions. Only the court can change the order.”
(c) A certified copy of the order shall be provided to the victim.
(5)(a) A peace officer may request, on an ex parte basis and before criminal charges or a petition for a protection order or an extreme risk protection order have been filed, an emergency no-contact order, order to surrender and prohibit weapons, or extreme risk protection order from a judicial officer on behalf of and with the consent of the victim of an alleged act involving domestic violence if the victim is able to provide such consent. If the victim is incapacitated as a result of the alleged act of domestic violence, a peace officer may request an emergency no-contact order, order to surrender and prohibit weapons, or extreme risk protection order on his or her behalf. The request shall be made based upon the sworn statement of a peace officer and may be made in person, by telephone, or by electronic means. If the court finds probable cause to believe that the victim is in imminent danger of domestic violence based on an allegation of the recent commission of an act involving domestic violence, the court shall issue an emergency no-contact order and an order to surrender and prohibit weapons or an extreme risk protection order as required by RCW 9.41.800 or chapter 7.105 RCW. An emergency no-contact order issued by a court will remain in effect until either the court terminates the emergency no-contact order, the court finds probable cause for a referred crime, or an ex parte hearing is held on a petition for a protection order or extreme risk protection order.
(b) If the court issues an order to surrender and prohibit weapons or an extreme risk protection order, and has not verified that peace officers have temporarily removed and secured all firearms and dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license, all orders issued by the court must be personally served by a peace officer and the peace officer shall take possession of all firearms, dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license belonging to the respondent that are surrendered, in plain sight, or discovered pursuant to a lawful search, as required by RCW 9.41.801.
(c) If the court does not issue an order to surrender and prohibit weapons or an extreme risk protection order, or has verified that all firearms, dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license have been temporarily removed by law enforcement, service of the court’s orders may be effected electronically. Electronic service must be effected by a law enforcement agency transmitting copies of the petition and any supporting materials filed with the petition, any notice of hearing, and any orders, or relevant materials for motions, to the defendant at the defendant’s electronic address or the defendant’s electronic account associated with email, text messaging, social media applications, or other technologies. Verification of notice is required and may be accomplished through read-receipt mechanisms, a response, a sworn statement from the person who effected service verifying transmission and any follow-up communications such as email or telephone contact used to further verify, or an appearance by the defendant at a hearing. Sworn proof of service must be filed with the court by the person who effected service.
(d) A no-contact order, order to surrender and prohibit weapons, or extreme risk protection order authorized by telephonic or electronic means shall also be issued in writing as soon as possible and shall state that it may be extended as provided in subsection (3) of this section.
(6) If a no-contact order has been issued prior to charging, that order shall expire at arraignment or within seventy-two hours if charges are not filed.
(7) Whenever an order is issued, modified, or terminated under this section, the clerk of the court shall forward a copy of the order on or before the next judicial day to the appropriate law enforcement agency specified in the order. Upon receipt of the copy of the order the law enforcement agency shall enter the order for one year or until the expiration date specified on the order into any computer-based criminal intelligence information system available in this state used by law enforcement agencies to list outstanding warrants. Entry into the computer-based criminal intelligence information system constitutes notice to all law enforcement agencies of the existence of the order. The order is fully enforceable in any jurisdiction in the state. Upon receipt of notice that an order has been terminated under subsection (3) of this section, the law enforcement agency shall remove the order from the computer-based criminal intelligence information system.
(8) For the purposes of this section, and unless context clearly requires otherwise, “emergency no-contact order” means a no-contact order issued by a court of competent jurisdiction before criminal charges have been filed or before a petition for a protection order or extreme risk protection order has been filed.
10.99.050. Victim contact--Restriction, prohibition--Violation, penalties--Written order--Procedures--Notice of change
(1) When a defendant is found guilty of a crime and a condition of the sentence restricts the defendant’s ability to have contact with the victim, such condition shall be recorded and a written certified copy of that order shall be provided to the victim.
(2)(a) Willful violation of a court order issued under this section is punishable under RCW 7.105.450.
(b) The written order shall contain the court’s directives and shall bear the legend: Violation of this order is a criminal offense under chapter 7.105 RCW and will subject a violator to arrest; any assault, drive-by shooting, or reckless endangerment that is a violation of this order is a felony.
(c) An order issued pursuant to this section in conjunction with a misdemeanor or gross misdemeanor sentence or juvenile disposition remains in effect for a fixed period of time determined by the court, which may not exceed five years from the date of sentencing or disposition.
(d) An order issued pursuant to this section in conjunction with a felony sentence or juvenile disposition remains in effect for a fixed period of time determined by the court, which may not exceed the adult maximum sentence established in RCW 9A.20.021.
(3) Whenever an order prohibiting contact is issued pursuant to this section, the clerk of the court shall forward a copy of the order on or before the next judicial day to the appropriate law enforcement agency specified in the order. Upon receipt of the copy of the order the law enforcement agency shall enter the order for one year or until the expiration date specified on the order into any computer-based criminal intelligence information system available in this state used by law enforcement agencies to list outstanding warrants. Entry into the computer-based criminal intelligence information system constitutes notice to all law enforcement agencies of the existence of the order. The order is fully enforceable in any jurisdiction in the state.
(4) If an order prohibiting contact issued pursuant to this section is modified or terminated, the clerk of the court shall notify the law enforcement agency specified in the order on or before the next judicial day. Upon receipt of notice that an order has been terminated, the law enforcement agency shall remove the order from any computer-based criminal intelligence system.
Title 11. Probate and Trust Law
Chapter 11.130. Uniform Guardianship, Conservatorship, and Other Protective Arrangements Act
Article 2. Guardianship of Minor
11.130.185. Basis for appointment of guardian for minor
(1) A person becomes a guardian for a minor only on appointment by the court.
(2) The court may appoint a guardian for a minor who does not have a guardian if the court finds the appointment is in the minor’s best interest and:
(a) Each parent of the minor, after being fully informed of the nature and consequences of guardianship, consents;
(b) All parental rights have been terminated; or
(c) There is clear and convincing evidence that no parent of the minor is willing or able to exercise parenting functions as defined in RCW 26.09.004.
11.130.190. Petition for appointment of guardian for minor
(1) A person interested in the welfare of a minor, including the minor, may petition for appointment of a guardian for the minor.
(2) A petition under subsection (1) of this section must state the petitioner’s name, principal residence, current street address, if different, relationship to the minor, interest in the appointment, the name and address of any attorney representing the petitioner, and, to the extent known, the following:
(a) The minor’s name, age, principal residence, current street address, if different, and, if different, address of the dwelling in which it is proposed the minor will reside if the appointment is made;
(b) The name and current street address of the minor’s parents;
(c) The name and address, if known, of each person that had primary care or custody of the minor for at least sixty days during the two years immediately before the filing of the petition or for at least seven hundred thirty days during the five years immediately before the filing of the petition;
(d) The name and address of any attorney for the minor and any attorney for each parent of the minor;
(e) The legal basis for the guardianship. Factual reasons why the guardianship is sought and would be in the best interest of the minor shall be set out in a separate supplemental declaration;
(f) The name and address of any proposed guardian and the reason the proposed guardian should be selected;
(g) If the minor has property other than personal effects, a general statement of the minor’s property with an estimate of its value;
(h) Whether the minor needs an interpreter, translator, or other form of support to communicate effectively with the court or understand court proceedings;
(i) Whether any parent of the minor needs an interpreter, translator, or other form of support to communicate effectively with the court or understand court proceedings; and
(j) Whether any other proceeding concerning the care or custody of the minor is pending in any court in this state or another jurisdiction.
(3) The court may, upon a showing of good cause, order that the information concerning the reasons for the guardianship contained in the supplemental declaration to the petition and all subsequently filed pleadings and evidence by any party not be served on the minor if the minor is unrepresented. A minor entitled to service under this subsection may request access to the court pleadings and evidence filed in the court record.
(4) Courts may develop forms for the purpose of filing petitions under subsection (1) of this section.
Article 3. Guardianship of Adult
11.130.265. Basis for appointment of guardian for adult
(1) On petition and after notice and hearing, the court may:
(a) Appoint a guardian for an adult if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that:
(i) The respondent lacks the ability to meet essential requirements for physical health, safety, or self-care because the respondent is unable to receive and evaluate information or make or communicate decisions, even with appropriate supportive services, technological assistance, or supported decision making;
(ii) Appointment is necessary to prevent significant risk of harm to the adult respondent’s physical health, safety, or self-care; and
(iii) The respondent’s identified needs cannot be met by a protective arrangement instead of guardianship or other less restrictive alternative; or
(b) With appropriate findings, treat the petition as one for a conservatorship under Article 4 of this chapter or protective arrangement under Article 5 of this chapter, issue any appropriate order, or dismiss the proceeding.
(2) The court shall grant a guardian appointed under subsection (1) of this section only those powers necessitated by the demonstrated needs and limitations of the respondent and issue orders that will encourage development of the respondent’s maximum self-determination and independence. The court may not establish a full guardianship if a limited guardianship, protective arrangement instead of guardianship, or other less restrictive alternative would meet the needs of the respondent.
(3) A determination by the court that a basis exists under subsection (1) of this section for the appointment of a guardian and on the issue of the rights that will be retained or restricted by the appointment of a guardian is a legal decision, not a medical decision. The determination must be based on a demonstration of management insufficiencies over time in the area of physical health, safety, or self-care. Age, eccentricity, poverty, or medical diagnosis alone are not sufficient basis under subsection (1) of this section to justify a determination that a guardian should be appointed for the respondent.
Article 4. Conservatorship
11.130.360. Basis for appointment of conservator
(1) On petition and after notice and hearing, the court may appoint a conservator for the property or financial affairs of a minor if the court finds by a preponderance of evidence that appointment of a conservator is in the minor’s best interest, and:
(a) If the minor has a parent, the court gives weight to any recommendation of the parent whether an appointment is in the minor’s best interest; and
(b) Either:
(i) The minor owns funds or other property requiring management or protection that otherwise cannot be provided;
(ii) The minor has or may have financial affairs that may be put at unreasonable risk or hindered because of the minor’s age; or
(iii) Appointment is necessary or desirable to obtain or provide funds or other property needed for the support, care, education, health, or welfare of the minor.
(2) On petition and after notice and hearing, the court may appoint a conservator for the property or financial affairs of an adult if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that:
(a) The adult is unable to manage property or financial affairs because:
(i) Of a limitation in the adult’s ability to receive and evaluate information or make or communicate decisions, even with the use of appropriate supportive services, technological assistance, or supported decision making; or
(ii) The adult is missing, detained, or unable to return to the United States;
(b) Appointment is necessary to:
(i) Avoid harm to the adult or significant dissipation of the property of the adult; or
(ii) Obtain or provide funds or other property needed for the support, care, education, health, or welfare of the adult or of an individual entitled to the adult’s support; and
(c) The adult’s identified needs cannot be met by a protective arrangement instead of conservatorship or other less restrictive alternatives.
(3) The court shall grant a conservator only those powers necessitated by demonstrated limitations and needs of the respondent and issue orders that will encourage development of the respondent’s maximum self-determination and independence. The court may not establish a full conservatorship if a limited conservatorship, protective arrangement instead of conservatorship, or other less restrictive alternative would meet the needs of the respondent.
(4) A determination by the court that a basis under subsection (2) of this section exists for the appointment of a conservator for an adult and on the issue of the rights that will be retained or restricted by the appointment of a conservator is a legal, not a medical decision. The determination must be based on demonstrated management insufficiencies over time in the area of property or financial affairs. Age, eccentricity, poverty, or medical diagnosis alone are not a sufficient basis under subsection (2) of this section to justify a determination that a conservator should be appointed for the respondent.
(5) For purposes of subsection (2) of this section, an adult who resides in a long-term care facility, resides in another care setting, or is the subject of an involuntary commitment order is not considered missing or detained.
Title 12. District Courts--Civil Procedure
Chapter 12.40. Small Claims
12.40.010. Department authorized--Jurisdictional amount
(1) In every district court there shall be created and organized by the court a department to be known as the “small claims department of the district court.” The small claims department shall have jurisdiction, but not exclusive, in cases for the recovery of money only if the amount claimed does not exceed:
(a) Ten thousand dollars in cases brought by a natural person; or
(b) Five thousand dollars in all other cases.
(2) For the purposes of this section, “natural person” means a human being.
Title 26. Domestic Relations
Chapter 26.09. Dissolution of Marriage - Legal Separation
26.09.002. Policy
Parents have the responsibility to make decisions and perform other parental functions necessary for the care and growth of their minor children. In any proceeding between parents under this chapter, the best interests of the child shall be the standard by which the court determines and allocates the parties’ parental responsibilities. The state recognizes the fundamental importance of the parent-child relationship to the welfare of the child, and that the relationship between the child and each parent should be fostered unless inconsistent with the child’s best interests. Residential time and financial support are equally important components of parenting arrangements. The best interests of the child are served by a parenting arrangement that best maintains a child’s emotional growth, health and stability, and physical care. Further, the best interest of the child is ordinarily served when the existing pattern of interaction between a parent and child is altered only to the extent necessitated by the changed relationship of the parents or as required to protect the child from physical, mental, or emotional harm.
26.09.003. Policy--Intent--Findings
The legislature reaffirms the intent of the current law as expressed in RCW 26.09.002. However, after review, the legislature finds that there are certain components of the existing law which do not support the original legislative intent. In order to better implement the existing legislative intent the legislature finds that incentives for parties to reduce family conflict and additional alternative dispute resolution options can assist in reducing the number of contested trials. Furthermore, the legislature finds that the identification of domestic violence as defined in RCW 7.105.010 and the treatment needs of the parties to dissolutions are necessary to improve outcomes for children. When judicial officers have the discretion to tailor individualized resolutions, the legislative intent expressed in RCW 26.09.002 can more readily be achieved. Judicial officers should have the discretion and flexibility to assess each case based on the merits of the individual cases before them.
26.09.004 Definitions
The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter.
(1) “Military duties potentially impacting parenting functions” means those obligations imposed, voluntarily or involuntarily, on a parent serving in the armed forces that may interfere with that parent’s abilities to perform his or her parenting functions under a temporary or permanent parenting plan. Military duties potentially impacting parenting functions include, but are not limited to:
(a) “Deployment,” which means the temporary transfer of a service member serving in an active-duty status to another location in support of a military operation, to include any tour of duty classified by the member’s branch of the armed forces as “remote” or “unaccompanied”;
(b) “Activation” or “mobilization,” which means the call-up of a national guard or reserve service member to extended active-duty status. For purposes of this definition, “mobilization” does not include national guard or reserve annual training, inactive duty days, or drill weekends; or
(c) “Temporary duty,” which means the transfer of a service member from one military base or the service member’s home to a different location, usually another base, for a limited period of time to accomplish training or to assist in the performance of a noncombat mission.
(2) “Parenting functions” means those aspects of the parent-child relationship in which the parent makes decisions and performs functions necessary for the care and growth of the child. Parenting functions include:
(a) Maintaining a loving, stable, consistent, and nurturing relationship with the child;
(b) Attending to the daily needs of the child, such as feeding, clothing, physical care and grooming, supervision, health care, and day care, and engaging in other activities which are appropriate to the developmental level of the child and that are within the social and economic circumstances of the particular family;
(c) Attending to adequate education for the child, including remedial or other education essential to the best interests of the child;
(d) Assisting the child in developing and maintaining appropriate interpersonal relationships;
(e) Exercising appropriate judgment regarding the child’s welfare, consistent with the child’s developmental level and the family’s social and economic circumstances; and
(f) Providing for the financial support of the child.
(3) “Permanent parenting plan” means a plan for parenting the child, including allocation of parenting functions, which plan is incorporated in any final decree or decree of modification in an action for dissolution of marriage or domestic partnership, declaration of invalidity, or legal separation.
(4) “Temporary parenting plan” means a plan for parenting of the child pending final resolution of any action for dissolution of marriage or domestic partnership, declaration of invalidity, or legal separation which is incorporated in a temporary order.
26.09.006. Mandatory use of approved forms
(1) Effective January 1, 1992, a party shall not file any pleading with the clerk of the court in an action commenced under this chapter unless on forms approved by the administrator for the courts.
(2) The parties shall comply with requirements for submission to the court of forms as provided in RCW 26.18.220.
26.09.013. Interpretive services--Literacy assistance--Guardian ad litem charges--Telephone or interactive videoconference participation--Residential time in cases involving domestic violence or child abuse--Supervised visitation and safe exchange centers
In order to provide judicial officers with better information and to facilitate decision making which allows for the protection of children from physical, mental, or emotional harm and in order to facilitate consistent healthy contact between both parents and their children:
(1) Parties and witnesses who require the assistance of interpreters shall be provided access to qualified interpreters pursuant to chapter 2.42 or 2.43 RCW. To the extent practicable and within available resources, interpreters shall also be made available at dissolution-related proceedings.
(2) Parties and witnesses who require literacy assistance shall be referred to the multipurpose service centers established in chapter 28B.04 RCW.
(3) In matters involving guardians ad litem, the court shall specify the hourly rate the guardian ad litem may charge for his or her services, and shall specify the maximum amount the guardian ad litem may charge without additional review. Counties may, and to the extent state funding is provided therefor counties shall, provide indigent parties with guardian ad litem services at a reduced or waived fee.
(4) Parties may request to participate by telephone or interactive videoconference. The court may allow telephonic or interactive videoconference participation of one or more parties at any proceeding in its discretion. The court may also allow telephonic or interactive videoconference participation of witnesses.
(5) In cases involving domestic violence or child abuse, if residential time is ordered, the court may:
(a) Order exchange of a child to occur in a protected setting;
(b) Order residential time supervised by a neutral and independent adult and pursuant to an adequate plan for supervision of such residential time. The court shall not approve of a supervisor for contact between the child and the parent unless the supervisor is willing to and capable of protecting the child from harm. The court shall revoke court approval of the supervisor if the court determines, after a hearing, that the supervisor has failed to protect the child or is no longer willing or capable of protecting the child. If the court allows a family or household member to supervise residential time, the court shall establish conditions to be followed during residential time.
(6)(a) In cases in which the court has made a finding of domestic violence or child abuse, the court may not require a victim of domestic violence or the custodial parent of a victim of child abuse to disclose to the other party information that would reasonably be expected to enable the perpetrator of domestic violence or child abuse to obtain previously undisclosed information regarding the name, location, or address of a victim’s residence, employer, or school at an initial hearing, and shall carefully weigh the safety interests of the victim before issuing orders which would require disclosure in a future hearing.
(b) In cases in which domestic violence or child abuse has been alleged but the court has not yet made a finding regarding such allegations, the court shall provide the party alleging domestic violence or child abuse with the opportunity to prove the allegations before ordering the disclosure of information that would reasonably be expected to enable the alleged perpetrator of domestic violence or child abuse to obtain previously undisclosed information regarding the name, location, or address of a victim’s residence, employer, or school.
(7) In cases in which the court finds that the parties do not have a satisfactory history of cooperation or there is a high level of parental conflict, the court may order the parties to use supervised visitation and safe exchange centers or alternative safe locations to facilitate the exercise of residential time.
26.09.016. Mediation in cases involving domestic violence or child abuse
Mediation is generally inappropriate in cases involving domestic violence and child abuse. In order to effectively identify cases where issues of domestic violence and child abuse are present and reduce conflict in dissolution matters: (1) Where appropriate parties shall be provided access to trained domestic violence advocates; and (2) in cases where a victim requests mediation the court may make exceptions and permit mediation, so long as the court makes a finding that mediation is appropriate under the circumstances and the victim is permitted to have a supporting person present during the mediation proceedings.
26.09.030. Petition for dissolution of marriage or domestic partnership--Court proceedings, findings--Transfer to family court--Legal separation in lieu of dissolution
When a party who (1) is a resident of this state, or (2) is a member of the armed forces and is stationed in this state, or (3) is married or in a domestic partnership to a party who is a resident of this state or who is a member of the armed forces and is stationed in this state, petitions for a dissolution of marriage or dissolution of domestic partnership, and alleges that the marriage or domestic partnership is irretrievably broken and when ninety days have elapsed since the petition was filed and from the date when service of summons was made upon the respondent or the first publication of summons was made, the court shall proceed as follows:
(a) If the other party joins in the petition or does not deny that the marriage or domestic partnership is irretrievably broken, the court shall enter a decree of dissolution.
(b) If the other party alleges that the petitioner was induced to file the petition by fraud, or coercion, the court shall make a finding as to that allegation and, if it so finds shall dismiss the petition.
(c) If the other party denies that the marriage or domestic partnership is irretrievably broken the court shall consider all relevant factors, including the circumstances that gave rise to the filing of the petition and the prospects for reconciliation and shall:
(i) Make a finding that the marriage or domestic partnership is irretrievably broken and enter a decree of dissolution of the marriage or domestic partnership; or
(ii) At the request of either party or on its own motion, transfer the cause to the family court, refer them to another counseling service of their choice, and request a report back from the counseling service within sixty days, or continue the matter for not more than sixty days for hearing. If the cause is returned from the family court or at the adjourned hearing, the court shall:
(A) Find that the parties have agreed to reconciliation and dismiss the petition; or
(B) Find that the parties have not been reconciled, and that either party continues to allege that the marriage or domestic partnership is irretrievably broken. When such facts are found, the court shall enter a decree of dissolution of the marriage or domestic partnership.
(d) If the petitioner requests the court to decree legal separation in lieu of dissolution, the court shall enter the decree in that form unless the other party objects and petitions for a decree of dissolution or declaration of invalidity.
(e) In considering a petition for dissolution of marriage or domestic partnership, a court shall not use a party’s pregnancy as the sole basis for denying or delaying the entry of a decree of dissolution of marriage or domestic partnership. Granting a decree of dissolution of marriage or domestic partnership when a party is pregnant does not affect further proceedings under chapter 26.26A or 26.26B RCW.
26.09.060. Temporary maintenance or child support--Temporary restraining order--Preliminary injunction--Domestic violence or antiharassment protection order--Notice of termination or modification of restraining order--Support debts, notice
(1) In a proceeding for:
(a) Dissolution of marriage or domestic partnership, legal separation, or a declaration of invalidity; or
(b) Disposition of property or liabilities, maintenance, or support following dissolution of the marriage or the domestic partnership by a court which lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse or absent domestic partner; either party may move for temporary maintenance or for temporary support of children entitled to support. The motion shall be accompanied by an affidavit setting forth the factual basis for the motion and the amounts requested.
(2) As a part of a motion for temporary maintenance or support or by independent motion accompanied by affidavit, either party may request the court to issue a temporary restraining order or preliminary injunction, providing relief proper in the circumstances, and restraining or enjoining any person from:
(a) Transferring, removing, encumbering, concealing, or in any way disposing of any property except in the usual course of business or for the necessities of life, and, if so restrained or enjoined, requiring him or her to notify the moving party of any proposed extraordinary expenditures made after the order is issued;
(b) Molesting or disturbing the peace of the other party or of any child;
(c) Going onto the grounds of or entering the home, workplace, or school of the other party or the day care or school of any child upon a showing of the necessity therefor;
(d) Knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance from a specified location, a protected party’s person, or a protected party’s vehicle; and
(e) Removing a child from the jurisdiction of the court.
(3) Either party may request a domestic violence protection order or an antiharassment protection order under chapter 7.105 RCW on a temporary basis. The court may grant any of the relief provided in RCW 7.105.310 except relief pertaining to residential provisions for the children which provisions shall be provided for under this chapter. Ex parte orders issued under this subsection shall be effective for a fixed period not to exceed fourteen days, or upon court order, not to exceed twenty-four days if necessary to ensure that all temporary motions in the case can be heard at the same time.
(4) In issuing the order, the court shall consider the provisions of RCW 9.41.800, and shall order the respondent to surrender, and prohibit the respondent from possessing, all firearms, dangerous weapons, and any concealed pistol license as required in RCW 9.41.800.
(5) The court may issue a temporary restraining order without requiring notice to the other party only if it finds on the basis of the moving affidavit or other evidence that irreparable injury could result if an order is not issued until the time for responding has elapsed.
(6) The court may issue a temporary restraining order or preliminary injunction and an order for temporary maintenance or support in such amounts and on such terms as are just and proper in the circumstances. The court may in its discretion waive the filing of the bond or the posting of security.
(7) Restraining orders issued under this section restraining the person from molesting or disturbing another party, or from going onto the grounds of or entering the home, workplace, or school of the other party or the day care or school of any child, or prohibiting the person from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance of a location, a protected party’s person, or a protected party’s vehicle, shall prominently bear on the front page of the order the legend: VIOLATION OF THIS ORDER WITH ACTUAL NOTICE OF ITS TERMS IS A CRIMINAL OFFENSE UNDER CHAPTER 7.105 RCW AND WILL SUBJECT A VIOLATOR TO ARREST.
(8) The court shall order that any temporary restraining order bearing a criminal offense legend, any domestic violence protection order, or any antiharassment protection order granted under this section be forwarded by the clerk of the court on or before the next judicial day to the appropriate law enforcement agency specified in the order. Upon receipt of the order, the law enforcement agency shall enter the order into any computer-based criminal intelligence information system available in this state used by law enforcement agencies to list outstanding warrants. Entry into the computer-based criminal intelligence information system constitutes notice to all law enforcement agencies of the existence of the order. The order is fully enforceable in any county in the state.
(9) If a restraining order issued pursuant to this section is modified or terminated, the clerk of the court shall notify the law enforcement agency specified in the order on or before the next judicial day. Upon receipt of notice that an order has been terminated, the law enforcement agency shall remove the order from any computer-based criminal intelligence system.
(10) A temporary order, temporary restraining order, or preliminary injunction:
(a) Does not prejudice the rights of a party or any child which are to be adjudicated at subsequent hearings in the proceeding;
(b) May be revoked or modified;
(c) Terminates when the final decree is entered, except as provided under subsection (11) of this section, or when the petition for dissolution, legal separation, or declaration of invalidity is dismissed;
(d) May be entered in a proceeding for the modification of an existing decree.
(11) Delinquent support payments accrued under an order for temporary support remain collectible and are not extinguished when a final decree is entered unless the decree contains specific language to the contrary. A support debt under a temporary order owed to the state for public assistance expenditures shall not be extinguished by the final decree if:
(a) The obligor was given notice of the state’s interest under chapter 74.20A RCW; or
(b) The temporary order directs the obligor to make support payments to the office of support enforcement or the Washington state support registry.
26.09.090. Maintenance orders for either spouse or either domestic partner--Factors
(1) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or domestic partnership, legal separation, declaration of invalidity, or in a proceeding for maintenance following dissolution of the marriage or domestic partnership by a court which lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse or absent domestic partner, the court may grant a maintenance order for either spouse or either domestic partner. The maintenance order shall be in such amounts and for such periods of time as the court deems just, without regard to misconduct, after considering all relevant factors including but not limited to:
(a) The financial resources of the party seeking maintenance, including separate or community property apportioned to him or her, and his or her ability to meet his or her needs independently, including the extent to which a provision for support of a child living with the party includes a sum for that party;
(b) The time necessary to acquire sufficient education or training to enable the party seeking maintenance to find employment appropriate to his or her skill, interests, style of life, and other attendant circumstances;
(c) The standard of living established during the marriage or domestic partnership;
(d) The duration of the marriage or domestic partnership;
(e) The age, physical and emotional condition, and financial obligations of the spouse or domestic partner seeking maintenance; and
(f) The ability of the spouse or domestic partner from whom maintenance is sought to meet his or her needs and financial obligations while meeting those of the spouse or domestic partner seeking maintenance.
26.09.100. Child support--Apportionment of expense--Periodic adjustments or modifications
(1) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or domestic partnership, legal separation, declaration of invalidity, maintenance, or child support, after considering all relevant factors but without regard to misconduct, the court shall order either or both parents owing a duty of support to any child of the marriage or the domestic partnership dependent upon either or both spouses or domestic partners to pay an amount determined under chapter 26.19 RCW.
(2) The court may require automatic periodic adjustments or modifications of child support. That portion of any decree that requires periodic adjustments or modifications of child support shall use the provisions in chapter 26.19 RCW as the basis for the adjustment or modification. Provisions in the decree for periodic adjustment or modification shall not conflict with RCW 26.09.170 except that the decree may require periodic adjustments or modifications of support more frequently than the time periods established pursuant to RCW 26.09.170.
(3) Upon motion of a party and without a substantial change of circumstances, the court shall modify the decree to comply with subsection (2) of this section as to installments accruing subsequent to entry of the court’s order on the motion for modification.
(4) The adjustment or modification provision may be modified by the court due to economic hardship consistent with the provisions of RCW 26.09.170 (6)(a).
26.09.105. Child support--Medical support--Conditions
(1) Whenever a child support order is entered or modified under this chapter, the court shall require both parents to provide medical support for any child named in the order as provided in this section.
(a) The child support order must include an obligation to provide health care coverage that is both accessible to all children named in the order and available at reasonable cost to the obligated parent.
(b) The court must allocate the cost of health care coverage between the parents.
(2) Medical support consists of:
(a) Health care coverage, which may consist of health insurance coverage or public health care coverage; and
(b) Cash medical support, which consists of:
(i) A parent’s monthly payment toward the premium paid for coverage provided by a public entity or by another parent, which represents the obligated parent’s proportionate share of the premium paid, but no more than twenty-five percent of the obligated parent’s basic support obligation; and
(ii) A parent’s proportionate share of uninsured medical expenses.
(3) The parents share the obligation to provide medical support for the child or children specified in the order, by providing health care coverage or contributing a cash medical support obligation when appropriate, and paying a proportionate share of any uninsured medical expenses.
(4) Under appropriate circumstances, the court may excuse one parent from the responsibility to provide health care coverage or the monthly payment toward the premium. The child’s receipt of public health care coverage may not be the sole basis for excusing a parent from providing health insurance coverage through an employer or union.
(5)(a) The court may specify how medical support must be provided by each parent under subsection (6) of this section.
(b) If the court does not specify how medical support will be provided or if neither parent provides proof that he or she is providing health care coverage for the child at the time the support order is entered, the division of child support or either parent may enforce a parent’s obligation to provide medical support under RCW 26.18.170.
(6)(a) If there is sufficient evidence provided at the time the order is entered, the court may make a determination of which parent must provide health care coverage and which parent must contribute a sum certain amount as his or her monthly payment toward the premium.
(b) If both parents have available health insurance coverage or health care coverage that is accessible to the child at the time the support order is entered, the court has discretion to order the parent with better coverage to provide the coverage for the child and the other parent to pay a monthly payment toward the premium. In making the determination of which coverage is better, the court shall consider the needs of the child, the cost and extent of each parent’s coverage, and the accessibility of the coverage.
(c) Each parent shall be responsible for his or her proportionate share of uninsured medical expenses.
(7) The order must provide that if the parties’ circumstances change, the parties’ medical support obligations will be enforced as provided in RCW 26.18.170.
(8) A parent who is ordered to maintain or provide health care coverage may comply with that requirement by:
(a) Providing proof of accessible health care coverage for any child named in the order; or
(b) Providing coverage that can be extended to cover the child that is available to that parent through employment or that is union-related, if the cost of such coverage does not exceed twenty-five percent of that parent’s basic child support obligation.
(9) The order must provide that, while an obligated parent may satisfy his or her health care coverage obligation by enrolling the child in public health care coverage, that parent is also required to provide accessible health insurance coverage for the child if it is available at no cost through the parent’s employer or union.
(10) The order must provide that the fact that one parent enrolled the child in public health care coverage does not satisfy the other parent’s health care coverage obligation unless the support order provides otherwise. A parent may satisfy the obligation to provide health care coverage by:
(a) First enrolling the child in available and accessible health insurance coverage through the parent’s employer or union if such coverage is available for no more than twenty-five percent of the parent’s basic support obligation; or
(b) If there is no accessible health insurance coverage for the child available through the parent’s employer or union, contributing a proportionate share of any premium paid by the other parent or the state for public health care coverage for the child.
(11) The court may order a parent to provide health care coverage that exceeds twenty-five percent of that parent’s basic support obligation if it is in the best interests of the child to provide coverage.
(12) Each parent is responsible for his or her proportionate share of uninsured medical expenses for the child or children covered by the support order.
(13) The parents must maintain health care coverage as required under this section until:
(a) Further order of the court;
(b) The child is emancipated, if there is no express language to the contrary in the order; or
(c) Health insurance is no longer available through the parents’ employer or union and no conversion privileges exist to continue coverage following termination of employment.
(14) A parent who is required to extend health insurance coverage to a child under this section is liable for any covered health care costs for which the parent receives direct payment from an insurer.
(15) A parent ordered to provide health care coverage must provide proof of such coverage or proof that such coverage is unavailable within twenty days of the entry of the order to:
(a) The other parent; or
(b) The department of social and health services if the parent has been notified or ordered to make support payments to the Washington state support registry.
(16) Every order requiring a parent to provide health care or insurance coverage must be entered in compliance with *RCW 26.23.050 and be subject to direct enforcement as provided under chapter 26.18 RCW.
(17) When a parent is providing health insurance or health care coverage at the time the order is entered, the premium shall be included in the worksheets for the calculation of child support under chapter 26.19 RCW.
(18) As used in this section:
(a) “Accessible” means health care coverage which provides primary care services to the child or children with reasonable effort by the custodian.
(b) “Cash medical support” means a combination of: (i) A parent’s monthly payment toward the premium paid for coverage provided by a public entity or by another parent, which represents the obligated parent’s proportionate share of the premium paid, but no more than twenty-five percent of the obligated parent’s basic support obligation; and (ii) a parent’s proportionate share of uninsured medical expenses.
(c) “Uninsured medical expenses” includes premiums, copays, deductibles, along with other health care costs not covered by health care coverage.
(d) “Obligated parent” means a parent ordered to provide health insurance coverage for the children.
(e) “Proportionate share” means an amount equal to a parent’s percentage share of the combined monthly net income of both parents as computed when determining a parent’s child support obligation under chapter 26.19 RCW.
(f) “Monthly payment toward the premium” means a parent’s contribution toward premiums paid for coverage provided by a public entity or by another parent, which is based on the obligated parent’s proportionate share of the premium paid, but no more than twenty-five percent of the obligated parent’s basic support obligation.
(g) “Premium” means the amount paid for coverage provided by a public entity or by another parent for a child covered by the order. This term may also mean “cost of coverage.”
(19) This section does not limit the authority of the court to enter or modify support orders containing provisions for payment of uninsured health expenses, health care costs, or insurance premiums which are in addition to and not inconsistent with this section.
(20) The department of social and health services has rule-making authority to enact rules in compliance with 45 C.F.R. Parts 302, 303, 304, 305, and 308.
26.09.110. Minor or dependent child -- Court appointed attorney to represent -- Payment of costs, fees, and disbursements
The court may appoint an attorney to represent the interests of a minor or dependent child with respect to provision for the parenting plan in an action for dissolution of marriage or domestic partnership, legal separation, or declaration concerning the validity of a marriage or domestic partnership. The court shall enter an order for costs, fees, and disbursements in favor of the child’s attorney. The order shall be made against either or both parents, except that, if both parties are indigent, the costs, fees, and disbursements shall be borne by the county.
26.09.135. Order or decree for child support--Compliance with RCW 26.23.050
Every court order or decree establishing a child support obligation shall be entered in compliance with the provisions of RCW 26.23.050.
26.09.160. Failure to comply with decree or temporary injunction -- Obligation to make support or maintenance payments or permit contact with children not suspended -- Penalties
(1) The performance of parental functions and the duty to provide child support are distinct responsibilities in the care of a child. If a party fails to comply with a provision of a decree or temporary order of injunction, the obligation of the other party to make payments for support or maintenance or to permit contact with children is not suspended. An attempt by a parent, in either the negotiation or the performance of a parenting plan, to condition one aspect of the parenting plan upon another, to condition payment of child support upon an aspect of the parenting plan, to refuse to pay ordered child support, to refuse to perform the duties provided in the parenting plan, or to hinder the performance by the other parent of duties provided in the parenting plan, shall be deemed bad faith and shall be punished by the court by holding the party in contempt of court and by awarding to the aggrieved party reasonable attorneys’ fees and costs incidental in bringing a motion for contempt of court.
(2) (a) A motion may be filed to initiate a contempt action to coerce a parent to comply with an order establishing residential provisions for a child. If the court finds there is reasonable cause to believe the parent has not complied with the order, the court may issue an order to show cause why the relief requested should not be granted.
(b) If, based on all the facts and circumstances, the court finds after hearing that the parent, in bad faith, has not complied with the order establishing residential provisions for the child, the court shall find the parent in contempt of court. Upon a finding of contempt, the court shall order:
(i) The noncomplying parent to provide the moving party additional time with the child. The additional time shall be equal to the time missed with the child, due to the parent’s noncompliance;
(ii) The parent to pay, to the moving party, all court costs and reasonable attorneys’ fees incurred as a result of the noncompliance, and any reasonable expenses incurred in locating or returning a child; and
(iii) The parent to pay, to the moving party, a civil penalty, not less than the sum of one hundred dollars.
The court may also order the parent to be imprisoned in the county jail, if the parent is presently able to comply with the provisions of the court-ordered parenting plan and is presently unwilling to comply. The parent may be imprisoned until he or she agrees to comply with the order, but in no event for more than one hundred eighty days.
(3) On a second failure within three years to comply with a residential provision of a court-ordered parenting plan, a motion may be filed to initiate contempt of court proceedings according to the procedure set forth in subsection (2)(a) and (b) of this section. On a finding of contempt under this subsection, the court shall order:
(a) The noncomplying parent to provide the other parent or party additional time with the child. The additional time shall be twice the amount of the time missed with the child, due to the parent’s noncompliance;
(b) The noncomplying parent to pay, to the other parent or party, all court costs and reasonable attorneys’ fees incurred as a result of the noncompliance, and any reasonable expenses incurred in locating or returning a child; and
(c) The noncomplying parent to pay, to the moving party, a civil penalty of not less than two hundred fifty dollars.
The court may also order the parent to be imprisoned in the county jail, if the parent is presently able to comply with the provisions of the court-ordered parenting plan and is presently unwilling to comply. The parent may be imprisoned until he or she agrees to comply with the order but in no event for more than one hundred eighty days.
(4) For purposes of subsections (1), (2), and (3) of this section, the parent shall be deemed to have the present ability to comply with the order establishing residential provisions unless he or she establishes otherwise by a preponderance of the evidence. The parent shall establish a reasonable excuse for failure to comply with the residential provision of a court-ordered parenting plan by a preponderance of the evidence.
(5) Any monetary award ordered under subsections (1), (2), and (3) of this section may be enforced, by the party to whom it is awarded, in the same manner as a civil judgment.
(6) Subsections (1), (2), and (3) of this section authorize the exercise of the court’s power to impose remedial sanctions for contempt of court and is in addition to any other contempt power the court may possess.
(7) Upon motion for contempt of court under subsections (1) through (3) of this section, if the court finds the motion was brought without reasonable basis, the court shall order the moving party to pay to the nonmoving party, all costs, reasonable attorneys’ fees, and a civil penalty of not less than one hundred dollars.
26.09.165. Court orders -- Required language
All court orders containing parenting plan provisions or orders of contempt, entered pursuant to RCW 26.09.160, shall include the following language:
WARNING: VIOLATION OF THE RESIDENTIAL PROVISIONS OF THIS ORDER WITH ACTUAL KNOWLEDGE OF ITS TERMS IS PUNISHABLE BY CONTEMPT OF COURT, AND MAY BE A CRIMINAL OFFENSE UNDER RCW 9A.40.060(2) or 9A.40.070(2). VIOLATION OF THIS ORDER MAY SUBJECT A VIOLATOR TO ARREST.
26.09.175. Modification of order of child support
(1) A proceeding for the modification of an order of child support shall commence with the filing of a petition and worksheets. The petition shall be in the form prescribed by the administrator for the courts. There shall be a fee of twenty dollars for the filing of a petition for modification of dissolution.
(2)(a) The petitioner shall serve upon the other party the summons, a copy of the petition, and the worksheets in the form prescribed by the administrator for the courts. If the modification proceeding is the first action filed in this state, service shall be made by personal service. If the decree to be modified was entered in this state, service shall be by personal service or by any form of mail requiring a return receipt. Proof of service shall be filed with the court.
(b) If the support obligation has been assigned to the state pursuant to RCW 74.20.330 or the state has a subrogated interest under RCW 74.20A.030, the summons, petition, and worksheets shall also be served on the attorney general; except that notice shall be given to the office of the prosecuting attorney for the county in which the action is filed in lieu of the office of the attorney general in those counties and in the types of cases as designated by the office of the attorney general by letter sent to the presiding superior court judge of that county.
(3) As provided for under RCW 26.09.170, the department of social and health services may file an action to modify or adjust an order of child support if:
(a) Public assistance money is being paid to or for the benefit of the child;
(b) A party to the order in a nonassistance case has requested a review; or
(c) Another state or jurisdiction has requested a modification of the order.
(4) A responding party’s answer and worksheets shall be served and the answer filed within twenty days after service of the petition or sixty days if served out of state. A responding party’s failure to file an answer within the time required shall result in entry of a default judgment for the petitioner.
(5) At any time after responsive pleadings are filed, any party may schedule the matter for hearing.
(6) Unless all parties stipulate to arbitration or the presiding judge authorizes oral testimony pursuant to subsection (7) of this section, a petition for modification of an order of child support shall be heard by the court on affidavits, the petition, answer, and worksheets only.
(7) A party seeking authority to present oral testimony on the petition to modify a support order shall file an appropriate motion not later than ten days after the time of notice of hearing. Affidavits and exhibits setting forth the reasons oral testimony is necessary to a just adjudication of the issues shall accompany the petition. The affidavits and exhibits must demonstrate the extraordinary features of the case. Factors which may be considered include, but are not limited to: (a) Substantial questions of credibility on a major issue; (b) insufficient or inconsistent discovery materials not correctable by further discovery; or (c) particularly complex circumstances requiring expert testimony.
(8) If testimony other than affidavit is required in any proceeding under this section, a court of this state shall permit a party or witness to be deposed or to testify under penalty of perjury by telephone, audiovisual means, or other electronic means, unless good cause is shown.
26.09.181. Procedure for determining permanent parenting plan
(1) SUBMISSION OF PROPOSED PLANS. (a) In any proceeding under this chapter, except a modification, each party shall file and serve a proposed permanent parenting plan on or before the earliest date of:
(i) Thirty days after filing and service by either party of a notice for trial; or
(ii) One hundred eighty days after commencement of the action which one hundred eighty day period may be extended by stipulation of the parties.
(b) In proceedings for a modification of custody or a parenting plan, a proposed parenting plan shall be filed and served with the motion for modification and with the response to the motion for modification.
(c) No proposed permanent parenting plan shall be required after filing of an agreed permanent parenting plan, after entry of a final decree, or after dismissal of the cause of action.
(d) A party who files a proposed parenting plan in compliance with this section may move the court for an order of default adopting that party’s parenting plan if the other party has failed to file a proposed parenting plan as required in this section.
(2) AMENDING PROPOSED PARENTING PLANS. Either party may file and serve an amended proposed permanent parenting plan according to the rules for amending pleadings.
(3) GOOD FAITH PROPOSAL. The parent submitting a proposed parenting plan shall attach a verified statement that the plan is proposed by that parent in good faith.
(4) AGREED PERMANENT PARENTING PLANS. The parents may make an agreed permanent parenting plan.
(5) MANDATORY SETTLEMENT CONFERENCE. Where mandatory settlement conferences are provided under court rule, the parents shall attend a mandatory settlement conference. The mandatory settlement conference shall be presided over by a judge or a court commissioner, who shall apply the criteria in RCW 26.09.187 and 26.09.191. The parents shall in good faith review the proposed terms of the parenting plans and any other issues relevant to the cause of action with the presiding judge or court commissioner. Facts and legal issues that are not then in dispute shall be entered as stipulations for purposes of final hearing or trial in the matter.
(6) TRIAL SETTING. Trial dates for actions involving minor children brought under this chapter shall receive priority.
(7) ENTRY OF FINAL ORDER. The final order or decree shall be entered not sooner than ninety days after filing and service.
This subsection does not apply to decrees of legal separation.
26.09.182. Permanent parenting plan -- Determination of relevant information
Before entering a permanent parenting plan, the court shall determine the existence of any information and proceedings relevant to the placement of the child that are available in the judicial information system and databases.
26.09.184. Permanent parenting plan
(1) OBJECTIVES. The objectives of the permanent parenting plan are to:
(a) Provide for the child’s physical care;
(b) Maintain the child’s emotional stability;
(c) Provide for the child’s changing needs as the child grows and matures, in a way that minimizes the need for future modifications to the permanent parenting plan;
(d) Set forth the authority and responsibilities of each parent with respect to the child, consistent with the criteria in RCW 26.09.187 and 26.09.191;
(e) Minimize the child’s exposure to harmful parental conflict;
(f) Encourage the parents, where appropriate under RCW 26.09.187 and 26.09.191, to meet their responsibilities to their minor children through agreements in the permanent parenting plan, rather than by relying on judicial intervention; and
(g) To otherwise protect the best interests of the child consistent with RCW 26.09.002.
(2) CONTENTS OF THE PERMANENT PARENTING PLAN. The permanent parenting plan shall contain provisions for resolution of future disputes between the parents, allocation of decision-making authority, and residential provisions for the child.
(3) CONSIDERATION IN ESTABLISHING THE PERMANENT PARENTING PLAN. In establishing a permanent parenting plan, the court may consider the cultural heritage and religious beliefs of a child.
(4) DISPUTE RESOLUTION. A process for resolving disputes, other than court action, shall be provided unless precluded or limited by RCW 26.09.187 or 26.09.191. A dispute resolution process may include counseling, mediation, or arbitration by a specified individual or agency, or court action. In the dispute resolution process:
(a) Preference shall be given to carrying out the parenting plan;
(b) The parents shall use the designated process to resolve disputes relating to implementation of the plan, except those related to financial support, unless an emergency exists;
(c) A written record shall be prepared of any agreement reached in counseling or mediation and of each arbitration award and shall be provided to each party;
(d) If the court finds that a parent has used or frustrated the dispute resolution process without good reason, the court shall award attorneys’ fees and financial sanctions to the prevailing parent;
(e) The parties have the right of review from the dispute resolution process to the superior court; and
(f) The provisions of (a) through (e) of this subsection shall be set forth in the decree.
(5) ALLOCATION OF DECISION-MAKING AUTHORITY.
(a) The plan shall allocate decision-making authority to one or both parties regarding the children’s education, health care, and religious upbringing. The parties may incorporate an agreement related to the care and growth of the child in these specified areas, or in other areas, into their plan, consistent with the criteria in RCW 26.09.187 and 26.09.191. Regardless of the allocation of decision-making in the parenting plan, either parent may make emergency decisions affecting the health or safety of the child.
(b) Each parent may make decisions regarding the day-to-day care and control of the child while the child is residing with that parent.
(c) When mutual decision making is designated but cannot be achieved, the parties shall make a good-faith effort to resolve the issue through the dispute resolution process.
(6) RESIDENTIAL PROVISIONS FOR THE CHILD. The plan shall include a residential schedule which designates in which parent’s home each minor child shall reside on given days of the year, including provision for holidays, birthdays of family members, vacations, and other special occasions, consistent with the criteria in RCW 26.09.187 and 26.09.191.
(7) PARENTS’ OBLIGATION UNAFFECTED. If a parent fails to comply with a provision of a parenting plan or a child support order, the other parent’s obligations under the parenting plan or the child support order are not affected. Failure to comply with a provision in a parenting plan or a child support order may result in a finding of contempt of court, under RCW 26.09.160.
(8) PROVISIONS TO BE SET FORTH IN PERMANENT PARENTING PLAN. The permanent parenting plan shall set forth the provisions of subsections (4)(a) through (c), (5)(b) and (c), and (7) of this section.
26.09.187. Criteria for establishing permanent parenting plan
(1) DISPUTE RESOLUTION PROCESS. The court shall not order a dispute resolution process, except court action, when it finds that any limiting factor under RCW 26.09.191 applies, or when it finds that either parent is unable to afford the cost of the proposed dispute resolution process. If a dispute resolution process is not precluded or limited, then in designating such a process the court shall consider all relevant factors, including:
(a) Differences between the parents that would substantially inhibit their effective participation in any designated process;
(b) The parents’ wishes or agreements and, if the parents have entered into agreements, whether the agreements were made knowingly and voluntarily; and
(c) Differences in the parents’ financial circumstances that may affect their ability to participate fully in a given dispute resolution process.
(2) ALLOCATION OF DECISION-MAKING AUTHORITY.
(a) AGREEMENTS BETWEEN THE PARTIES. The court shall approve agreements of the parties allocating decision-making authority, or specifying rules in the areas listed in RCW 26.09.184(5)(a), when it finds that:
(i) The agreement is consistent with any limitations on a parent’s decision-making authority mandated by RCW 26.09.191; and
(ii) The agreement is knowing and voluntary.
(b) SOLE DECISION-MAKING AUTHORITY. The court shall order sole decision-making to one parent when it finds that:
(i) A limitation on the other parent’s decision-making authority is mandated by RCW 26.09.191;
(ii) Both parents are opposed to mutual decision making;
(iii) One parent is opposed to mutual decision making, and such opposition is reasonable based on the criteria in (c) of this subsection.
(c) MUTUAL DECISION-MAKING AUTHORITY. Except as provided in (a) and (b) of this subsection, the court shall consider the following criteria in allocating decision-making authority:
(i) The existence of a limitation under RCW 26.09.191;
(ii) The history of participation of each parent in decision making in each of the areas in RCW 26.09.184(5)(a);
(iii) Whether the parents have a demonstrated ability and desire to cooperate with one another in decision making in each of the areas in RCW 26.09.184(5)(a); and
(iv) The parents’ geographic proximity to one another, to the extent that it affects their ability to make timely mutual decisions.
(3) RESIDENTIAL PROVISIONS.
(a) The court shall make residential provisions for each child which encourage each parent to maintain a loving, stable, and nurturing relationship with the child, consistent with the child’s developmental level and the family’s social and economic circumstances. The child’s residential schedule shall be consistent with RCW 26.09.191. Where the limitations of RCW 26.09.191 are not dispositive of the child’s residential schedule, the court shall consider the following factors:
(i) The relative strength, nature, and stability of the child’s relationship with each parent;
(ii) The agreements of the parties, provided they were entered into knowingly and voluntarily;
(iii) Each parent’s past and potential for future performance of parenting functions as defined in RCW 26.09.004(3), including whether a parent has taken greater responsibility for performing parenting functions relating to the daily needs of the child;
(iv) The emotional needs and developmental level of the child;
(v) The child’s relationship with siblings and with other significant adults, as well as the child’s involvement with his or her physical surroundings, school, or other significant activities;
(vi) The wishes of the parents and the wishes of a child who is sufficiently mature to express reasoned and independent preferences as to his or her residential schedule; and
(vii) Each parent’s employment schedule, and shall make accommodations consistent with those schedules.
Factor (i) shall be given the greatest weight.
(b) Where the limitations of RCW 26.09.191 are not dispositive, the court may order that a child frequently alternate his or her residence between the households of the parents for brief and substantially equal intervals of time if such provision is in the best interests of the child. In determining whether such an arrangement is in the best interests of the child, the court may consider the parties geographic proximity to the extent necessary to ensure the ability to share performance of the parenting functions.
(c) For any child, residential provisions may contain any reasonable terms or conditions that facilitate the orderly and meaningful exercise of residential time by a parent, including but not limited to requirements of reasonable notice when residential time will not occur.
26.09.191. Restrictions in temporary or permanent parenting plans
(1) The permanent parenting plan shall not require mutual decision-making or designation of a dispute resolution process other than court action if it is found that a parent has engaged in any of the following conduct: (a) Willful abandonment that continues for an extended period of time or substantial refusal to perform parenting functions; (b) physical, sexual, or a pattern of emotional abuse of a child; or (c) a history of acts of domestic violence as defined in RCW 7.105.010 or an assault or sexual assault that causes grievous bodily harm or the fear of such harm or that results in a pregnancy.
(2)(a) The parent’s residential time with the child shall be limited if it is found that the parent has engaged in any of the following conduct: (i) Willful abandonment that continues for an extended period of time or substantial refusal to perform parenting functions; (ii) physical, sexual, or a pattern of emotional abuse of a child; (iii) a history of acts of domestic violence as defined in RCW 7.105.010 or an assault or sexual assault that causes grievous bodily harm or the fear of such harm or that results in a pregnancy; or (iv) the parent has been convicted as an adult of a sex offense under:
(A) RCW 9A.44.076 if, because of the difference in age between the offender and the victim, no rebuttable presumption exists under (d) of this subsection;
(B) RCW 9A.44.079 if, because of the difference in age between the offender and the victim, no rebuttable presumption exists under (d) of this subsection;
(C) RCW 9A.44.086 if, because of the difference in age between the offender and the victim, no rebuttable presumption exists under (d) of this subsection;
(D) RCW 9A.44.089;
(E) RCW 9A.44.093;
(F) RCW 9A.44.096;
(G) RCW 9A.64.020 (1) or (2) if, because of the difference in age between the offender and the victim, no rebuttable presumption exists under (d) of this subsection;
(H) Chapter 9.68A RCW;
(I) Any predecessor or antecedent statute for the offenses listed in (a)(iv)(A) through (H) of this subsection;
(J) Any statute from any other jurisdiction that describes an offense analogous to the offenses listed in (a)(iv)(A) through (H) of this subsection.
This subsection (2)(a) shall not apply when (c) or (d) of this subsection applies.
(b) The parent’s residential time with the child shall be limited if it is found that the parent resides with a person who has engaged in any of the following conduct: (i) Physical, sexual, or a pattern of emotional abuse of a child; (ii) a history of acts of domestic violence as defined in RCW 7.105.010 or an assault or sexual assault that causes grievous bodily harm or the fear of such harm or that results in a pregnancy; or (iii) the person has been convicted as an adult or as a juvenile has been adjudicated of a sex offense under:
(A) RCW 9A.44.076 if, because of the difference in age between the offender and the victim, no rebuttable presumption exists under (e) of this subsection;
(B) RCW 9A.44.079 if, because of the difference in age between the offender and the victim, no rebuttable presumption exists under (e) of this subsection;
(C) RCW 9A.44.086 if, because of the difference in age between the offender and the victim, no rebuttable presumption exists under (e) of this subsection;
(D) RCW 9A.44.089;
(E) RCW 9A.44.093;
(F) RCW 9A.44.096;
(G) RCW 9A.64.020 (1) or (2) if, because of the difference in age between the offender and the victim, no rebuttable presumption exists under (e) of this subsection;
(H) Chapter 9.68A RCW;
(I) Any predecessor or antecedent statute for the offenses listed in (b)(iii)(A) through (H) of this subsection;
(J) Any statute from any other jurisdiction that describes an offense analogous to the offenses listed in (b)(iii)(A) through (H) of this subsection.
This subsection (2)(b) shall not apply when (c) or (e) of this subsection applies.
(c) If a parent has been found to be a sexual predator under chapter 71.09 RCW or under an analogous statute of any other jurisdiction, the court shall restrain the parent from contact with a child that would otherwise be allowed under this chapter. If a parent resides with an adult or a juvenile who has been found to be a sexual predator under chapter 71.09 RCW or under an analogous statute of any other jurisdiction, the court shall restrain the parent from contact with the parent’s child except contact that occurs outside that person’s presence.
(d) There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent who has been convicted as an adult of a sex offense listed in (d)(i) through (ix) of this subsection poses a present danger to a child. Unless the parent rebuts this presumption, the court shall restrain the parent from contact with a child that would otherwise be allowed under this chapter:
(i) RCW 9A.64.020 (1) or (2), provided that the person convicted was at least five years older than the other person;
(ii) RCW 9A.44.073;
(iii) RCW 9A.44.076, provided that the person convicted was at least eight years older than the victim;
(iv) RCW 9A.44.079, provided that the person convicted was at least eight years older than the victim;
(v) RCW 9A.44.083;
(vi) RCW 9A.44.086, provided that the person convicted was at least eight years older than the victim;
(vii) RCW 9A.44.100;
(viii) Any predecessor or antecedent statute for the offenses listed in (d)(i) through (vii) of this subsection;
(ix) Any statute from any other jurisdiction that describes an offense analogous to the offenses listed in (d)(i) through (vii) of this subsection.
(e) There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent who resides with a person who, as an adult, has been convicted, or as a juvenile has been adjudicated, of the sex offenses listed in (e)(i) through (ix) of this subsection places a child at risk of abuse or harm when that parent exercises residential time in the presence of the convicted or adjudicated person. Unless the parent rebuts the presumption, the court shall restrain the parent from contact with the parent’s child except for contact that occurs outside of the convicted or adjudicated person’s presence:
(i) RCW 9A.64.020 (1) or (2), provided that the person convicted was at least five years older than the other person;
(ii) RCW 9A.44.073;
(iii) RCW 9A.44.076, provided that the person convicted was at least eight years older than the victim;
(iv) RCW 9A.44.079, provided that the person convicted was at least eight years older than the victim;
(v) RCW 9A.44.083;
(vi) RCW 9A.44.086, provided that the person convicted was at least eight years older than the victim;
(vii) RCW 9A.44.100;
(viii) Any predecessor or antecedent statute for the offenses listed in (e)(i) through (vii) of this subsection;
(ix) Any statute from any other jurisdiction that describes an offense analogous to the offenses listed in (e)(i) through (vii) of this subsection.
(f) The presumption established in (d) of this subsection may be rebutted only after a written finding that the child was not conceived and subsequently born as a result of a sexual assault committed by the parent requesting residential time and that:
(i) If the child was not the victim of the sex offense committed by the parent requesting residential time, (A) contact between the child and the offending parent is appropriate and poses minimal risk to the child, and (B) the offending parent has successfully engaged in treatment for sex offenders or is engaged in and making progress in such treatment, if any was ordered by a court, and the treatment provider believes such contact is appropriate and poses minimal risk to the child; or
(ii) If the child was the victim of the sex offense committed by the parent requesting residential time, (A) contact between the child and the offending parent is appropriate and poses minimal risk to the child, (B) if the child is in or has been in therapy for victims of sexual abuse, the child’s counselor believes such contact between the child and the offending parent is in the child’s best interest, and (C) the offending parent has successfully engaged in treatment for sex offenders or is engaged in and making progress in such treatment, if any was ordered by a court, and the treatment provider believes such contact is appropriate and poses minimal risk to the child.
(g) The presumption established in (e) of this subsection may be rebutted only after a written finding that the child was not conceived and subsequently born as a result of a sexual assault committed by the parent requesting residential time and that:
(i) If the child was not the victim of the sex offense committed by the person who is residing with the parent requesting residential time, (A) contact between the child and the parent residing with the convicted or adjudicated person is appropriate and that parent is able to protect the child in the presence of the convicted or adjudicated person, and (B) the convicted or adjudicated person has successfully engaged in treatment for sex offenders or is engaged in and making progress in such treatment, if any was ordered by a court, and the treatment provider believes such contact is appropriate and poses minimal risk to the child; or
(ii) If the child was the victim of the sex offense committed by the person who is residing with the parent requesting residential time, (A) contact between the child and the parent in the presence of the convicted or adjudicated person is appropriate and poses minimal risk to the child, (B) if the child is in or has been in therapy for victims of sexual abuse, the child’s counselor believes such contact between the child and the parent residing with the convicted or adjudicated person in the presence of the convicted or adjudicated person is in the child’s best interest, and (C) the convicted or adjudicated person has successfully engaged in treatment for sex offenders or is engaged in and making progress in such treatment, if any was ordered by a court, and the treatment provider believes contact between the parent and child in the presence of the convicted or adjudicated person is appropriate and poses minimal risk to the child.
(h) If the court finds that the parent has met the burden of rebutting the presumption under (f) of this subsection, the court may allow a parent who has been convicted as an adult of a sex offense listed in (d)(i) through (ix) of this subsection to have residential time with the child supervised by a neutral and independent adult and pursuant to an adequate plan for supervision of such residential time. The court shall not approve of a supervisor for contact between the child and the parent unless the court finds, based on the evidence, that the supervisor is willing and capable of protecting the child from harm. The court shall revoke court approval of the supervisor upon finding, based on the evidence, that the supervisor has failed to protect the child or is no longer willing or capable of protecting the child.
(i) If the court finds that the parent has met the burden of rebutting the presumption under (g) of this subsection, the court may allow a parent residing with a person who has been adjudicated as a juvenile of a sex offense listed in (e)(i) through (ix) of this subsection to have residential time with the child in the presence of the person adjudicated as a juvenile, supervised by a neutral and independent adult and pursuant to an adequate plan for supervision of such residential time. The court shall not approve of a supervisor for contact between the child and the parent unless the court finds, based on the evidence, that the supervisor is willing and capable of protecting the child from harm. The court shall revoke court approval of the supervisor upon finding, based on the evidence, that the supervisor has failed to protect the child or is no longer willing or capable of protecting the child.
(j) If the court finds that the parent has met the burden of rebutting the presumption under (g) of this subsection, the court may allow a parent residing with a person who, as an adult, has been convicted of a sex offense listed in (e)(i) through (ix) of this subsection to have residential time with the child in the presence of the convicted person supervised by a neutral and independent adult and pursuant to an adequate plan for supervision of such residential time. The court shall not approve of a supervisor for contact between the child and the parent unless the court finds, based on the evidence, that the supervisor is willing and capable of protecting the child from harm. The court shall revoke court approval of the supervisor upon finding, based on the evidence, that the supervisor has failed to protect the child or is no longer willing or capable of protecting the child.
(k) A court shall not order unsupervised contact between the offending parent and a child of the offending parent who was sexually abused by that parent. A court may order unsupervised contact between the offending parent and a child who was not sexually abused by the parent after the presumption under (d) of this subsection has been rebutted and supervised residential time has occurred for at least two years with no further arrests or convictions of sex offenses involving children under chapter 9A.44 RCW, RCW 9A.64.020, or chapter 9.68A RCW and (i) the sex offense of the offending parent was not committed against a child of the offending parent, and (ii) the court finds that unsupervised contact between the child and the offending parent is appropriate and poses minimal risk to the child, after consideration of the testimony of a state-certified therapist, mental health counselor, or social worker with expertise in treating child sexual abuse victims who has supervised at least one period of residential time between the parent and the child, and after consideration of evidence of the offending parent’s compliance with community supervision requirements, if any. If the offending parent was not ordered by a court to participate in treatment for sex offenders, then the parent shall obtain a psychosexual evaluation conducted by a certified sex offender treatment provider or a certified affiliate sex offender treatment provider indicating that the offender has the lowest likelihood of risk to reoffend before the court grants unsupervised contact between the parent and a child.
(l) A court may order unsupervised contact between the parent and a child which may occur in the presence of a juvenile adjudicated of a sex offense listed in (e)(i) through (ix) of this subsection who resides with the parent after the presumption under (e) of this subsection has been rebutted and supervised residential time has occurred for at least two years during which time the adjudicated juvenile has had no further arrests, adjudications, or convictions of sex offenses involving children under chapter 9A.44 RCW, RCW 9A.64.020, or chapter 9.68A RCW, and (i) the court finds that unsupervised contact between the child and the parent that may occur in the presence of the adjudicated juvenile is appropriate and poses minimal risk to the child, after consideration of the testimony of a state-certified therapist, mental health counselor, or social worker with expertise in treatment of child sexual abuse victims who has supervised at least one period of residential time between the parent and the child in the presence of the adjudicated juvenile, and after consideration of evidence of the adjudicated juvenile’s compliance with community supervision or parole requirements, if any. If the adjudicated juvenile was not ordered by a court to participate in treatment for sex offenders, then the adjudicated juvenile shall obtain a psychosexual evaluation conducted by a certified sex offender treatment provider or a certified affiliate sex offender treatment provider indicating that the adjudicated juvenile has the lowest likelihood of risk to reoffend before the court grants unsupervised contact between the parent and a child which may occur in the presence of the adjudicated juvenile who is residing with the parent.
(m)(i) The limitations imposed by the court under (a) or (b) of this subsection shall be reasonably calculated to protect the child from the physical, sexual, or emotional abuse or harm that could result if the child has contact with the parent requesting residential time. The limitations shall also be reasonably calculated to provide for the safety of the parent who may be at risk of physical, sexual, or emotional abuse or harm that could result if the parent has contact with the parent requesting residential time. The limitations the court may impose include, but are not limited to: Supervised contact between the child and the parent or completion of relevant counseling or treatment. If the court expressly finds based on the evidence that limitations on the residential time with the child will not adequately protect the child from the harm or abuse that could result if the child has contact with the parent requesting residential time, the court shall restrain the parent requesting residential time from all contact with the child.
(ii) The court shall not enter an order under (a) of this subsection allowing a parent to have contact with a child if the parent has been found by clear and convincing evidence in a civil action or by a preponderance of the evidence in a dependency action to have sexually abused the child, except upon recommendation by an evaluator or therapist for the child that the child is ready for contact with the parent and will not be harmed by the contact. The court shall not enter an order allowing a parent to have contact with the child in the offender’s presence if the parent resides with a person who has been found by clear and convincing evidence in a civil action or by a preponderance of the evidence in a dependency action to have sexually abused a child, unless the court finds that the parent accepts that the person engaged in the harmful conduct and the parent is willing to and capable of protecting the child from harm from the person.
(iii) The court shall not enter an order under (a) of this subsection allowing a parent to have contact with a child if the parent has been found by clear and convincing evidence pursuant to RCW 26.26A.465 to have committed sexual assault, as defined in RCW 26.26A.465, against the child’s parent, and that the child was born within three hundred twenty days of the sexual assault.
(iv) If the court limits residential time under (a) or (b) of this subsection to require supervised contact between the child and the parent, the court shall not approve of a supervisor for contact between a child and a parent who has engaged in physical, sexual, or a pattern of emotional abuse of the child unless the court finds based upon the evidence that the supervisor accepts that the harmful conduct occurred and is willing to and capable of protecting the child from harm. The court shall revoke court approval of the supervisor upon finding, based on the evidence, that the supervisor has failed to protect the child or is no longer willing to or capable of protecting the child.
(n) If the court expressly finds based on the evidence that contact between the parent and the child will not cause physical, sexual, or emotional abuse or harm to the child and that the probability that the parent’s or other person’s harmful or abusive conduct will recur is so remote that it would not be in the child’s best interests to apply the limitations of (a), (b), and (m)(i) and (iv) of this subsection, or if the court expressly finds that the parent’s conduct did not have an impact on the child, then the court need not apply the limitations of (a), (b), and (m)(i) and (iv) of this subsection. The weight given to the existence of a protection order issued under chapter 7.105 RCW or former chapter 26.50 RCW as to domestic violence is within the discretion of the court. This subsection shall not apply when (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h), (i), (j), (k), (l), and (m)(ii) of this subsection apply.
(3) A parent’s involvement or conduct may have an adverse effect on the child’s best interests, and the court may preclude or limit any provisions of the parenting plan, if any of the following factors exist:
(a) A parent’s neglect or substantial nonperformance of parenting functions;
(b) A long-term emotional or physical impairment which interferes with the parent’s performance of parenting functions as defined in RCW 26.09.004;
(c) A long-term impairment resulting from drug, alcohol, or other substance abuse that interferes with the performance of parenting functions;
(d) The absence or substantial impairment of emotional ties between the parent and the child;
(e) The abusive use of conflict by the parent which creates the danger of serious damage to the child’s psychological development. Abusive use of conflict includes, but is not limited to, abusive litigation as defined in RCW 26.51.020. If the court finds a parent has engaged in abusive litigation, the court may impose any restrictions or remedies set forth in chapter 26.51 RCW in addition to including a finding in the parenting plan. Litigation that is aggressive or improper but that does not meet the definition of abusive litigation shall not constitute a basis for a finding under this section. A report made in good faith to law enforcement, a medical professional, or child protective services of sexual, physical, or mental abuse of a child shall not constitute a basis for a finding of abusive use of conflict;
(f) A parent has withheld from the other parent access to the child for a protracted period without good cause; or
(g) Such other factors or conduct as the court expressly finds adverse to the best interests of the child.
(4) In cases involving allegations of limiting factors under subsection (2)(a)(ii) and (iii) of this section, both parties shall be screened to determine the appropriateness of a comprehensive assessment regarding the impact of the limiting factor on the child and the parties.
(5) In entering a permanent parenting plan, the court shall not draw any presumptions from the provisions of the temporary parenting plan.
(6) In determining whether any of the conduct described in this section has occurred, the court shall apply the civil rules of evidence, proof, and procedure.
(7) For the purposes of this section:
(a) “A parent’s child” means that parent’s natural child, adopted child, or stepchild; and
(b) “Social worker” means a person with a master’s or further advanced degree from a social work educational program accredited and approved as provided in RCW 18.320.010.
26.09.194. Proposed temporary parenting plan -- Temporary order -- Amendment -- Vacation of order
(1) A parent seeking a temporary order relating to parenting shall file and serve a proposed temporary parenting plan by motion. The other parent, if contesting the proposed temporary parenting plan, shall file and serve a responsive proposed parenting plan. Either parent may move to have a proposed temporary parenting plan entered as part of a temporary order. The parents may enter an agreed temporary parenting plan at any time as part of a temporary order. The proposed temporary parenting plan may be supported by relevant evidence and shall be accompanied by an affidavit or declaration which shall state at a minimum the following:
(a) The name, address, and length of residence with the person or persons with whom the child has lived for the preceding twelve months;
(b) The performance by each parent during the last twelve months of the parenting functions relating to the daily needs of the child;
(c) The parents’ work and child-care schedules for the preceding twelve months;
(d) The parents’ current work and child-care schedules; and
(e) Any of the circumstances set forth in RCW 26.09.191 that are likely to pose a serious risk to the child and that warrant limitation on the award to a parent of temporary residence or time with the child pending entry of a permanent parenting plan.
(2) At the hearing, the court shall enter a temporary parenting order incorporating a temporary parenting plan which includes:
(a) A schedule for the child’s time with each parent when appropriate;
(b) Designation of a temporary residence for the child;
(c) Allocation of decision-making authority, if any. Absent allocation of decision-making authority consistent with RCW 26.09.187(2), neither party shall make any decision for the child other than those relating to day-to-day or emergency care of the child, which shall be made by the party who is present with the child;
(d) Provisions for temporary support for the child; and
(e) Restraining orders, if applicable, under RCW 26.09.060.
(3) A parent may make a motion for an order to show cause and the court may enter a temporary order, including a temporary parenting plan, upon a showing of necessity.
(4) A parent may move for amendment of a temporary parenting plan, and the court may order amendment to the temporary parenting plan, if the amendment conforms to the limitations of RCW 26.09.191 and is in the best interest of the child.
(5) If a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or dissolution of domestic partnership, legal separation, or declaration of invalidity is dismissed, any temporary order or temporary parenting plan is vacated.
26.09.197. Issuance of temporary parenting plan -- Criteria
After considering the affidavit required by RCW 26.09.194(1) and other relevant evidence presented, the court shall make a temporary parenting plan that is in the best interest of the child. In making this determination, the court shall give particular consideration to:
(1) The relative strength, nature, and stability of the child’s relationship with each parent; and
(2) Which parenting arrangements will cause the least disruption to the child’s emotional stability while the action is pending.
The court shall also consider the factors used to determine residential provisions in the permanent parenting plan.
26.09.210. Parenting plans -- Interview with child by court -- Advice of professional personnel
The court may interview the child in chambers to ascertain the child’s wishes as to the child’s residential schedule in a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or domestic partnership, legal separation, or declaration of invalidity. The court may permit counsel to be present at the interview. The court shall cause a record of the interview to be made and to be made part of the record in the case.
The court may seek the advice of professional personnel whether or not they are employed on a regular basis by the court. The advice given shall be in writing and shall be made available by the court to counsel upon request. Counsel may call for cross-examination any professional personnel consulted by the court.
26.09.225. Access to child's education and health care records
(1) Each parent shall have full and equal access to the education and health care records of the child absent a court order to the contrary. Neither parent may veto the access requested by the other parent.
(2) Educational records are limited to academic, attendance, and disciplinary records of public and private schools in all grades kindergarten through twelve and any form of alternative school for all periods for which child support is paid or the child is the dependent in fact of the parent requesting access to the records.
(3) Educational records of postsecondary educational institutions are limited to enrollment and academic records necessary to determine, establish, or continue support ordered pursuant to RCW 26.19.090.
26.09.255. Remedies when a child is taken, enticed, or concealed
(1) A relative may bring civil action against any other relative if, with intent to deny access to a child by that relative of the child who has a right to physical custody of or visitation with the child or a parent with whom the child resides pursuant to a parenting plan order, the relative takes, entices, or conceals the child from that relative. The plaintiff may be awarded, in addition to any damages awarded by the court, the reasonable expenses incurred by the plaintiff in locating the child, including, but not limited to, investigative services and reasonable attorneys’ fees.
(2) “Relative” means an ancestor, descendant, or sibling including a relative of the same degree through marriage, domestic partnership, or adoption, or a spouse or domestic partner.
26.09.260. Modification of parenting plan or custody decree
(1) Except as otherwise provided in subsections (4), (5), (6), (8), and (10) of this section, the court shall not modify a prior custody decree or a parenting plan unless it finds, upon the basis of facts that have arisen since the prior decree or plan or that were unknown to the court at the time of the prior decree or plan, that a substantial change has occurred in the circumstances of the child or the nonmoving party and that the modification is in the best interest of the child and is necessary to serve the best interests of the child. The effect of a parent’s military duties potentially impacting parenting functions shall not, by itself, be a substantial change of circumstances justifying a permanent modification of a prior decree or plan.
(2) In applying these standards, the court shall retain the residential schedule established by the decree or parenting plan unless:
(a) The parents agree to the modification;
(b) The child has been integrated into the family of the petitioner with the consent of the other parent in substantial deviation from the parenting plan;
(c) The child’s present environment is detrimental to the child’s physical, mental, or emotional health and the harm likely to be caused by a change of environment is outweighed by the advantage of a change to the child; or
(d) The court has found the nonmoving parent in contempt of court at least twice within three years because the parent failed to comply with the residential time provisions in the court-ordered parenting plan, or the parent has been convicted of custodial interference in the first or second degree under RCW 9A.40.060 or 9A.40.070.
(3) A conviction of custodial interference in the first or second degree under RCW 9A.40.060 or 9A.40.070 shall constitute a substantial change of circumstances for the purposes of this section.
(4) The court may reduce or restrict contact between the child and the parent with whom the child does not reside a majority of the time if it finds that the reduction or restriction would serve and protect the best interests of the child using the criteria in RCW 26.09.191.
(5) The court may order adjustments to the residential aspects of a parenting plan upon a showing of a substantial change in circumstances of either parent or of the child, and without consideration of the factors set forth in subsection (2) of this section, if the proposed modification is only a minor modification in the residential schedule that does not change the residence the child is scheduled to reside in the majority of the time and:
(a) Does not exceed twenty-four full days in a calendar year; or
(b) Is based on a change of residence of the parent with whom the child does not reside the majority of the time or an involuntary change in work schedule by a parent which makes the residential schedule in the parenting plan impractical to follow; or
(c) Does not result in a schedule that exceeds ninety overnights per year in total, if the court finds that, at the time the petition for modification is filed, the decree of dissolution or parenting plan does not provide reasonable time with the parent with whom the child does not reside a majority of the time, and further, the court finds that it is in the best interests of the child to increase residential time with the parent in excess of the residential time period in (a) of this subsection. However, any motion under this subsection (5)(c) is subject to the factors established in subsection (2) of this section if the party bringing the petition has previously been granted a modification under this same subsection within twenty-four months of the current motion. Relief granted under this section shall not be the sole basis for adjusting or modifying child support.
(6) The court may order adjustments to the residential aspects of a parenting plan pursuant to a proceeding to permit or restrain a relocation of the child. The person objecting to the relocation of the child or the relocating person’s proposed revised residential schedule may file a petition to modify the parenting plan, including a change of the residence in which the child resides the majority of the time, without a showing of adequate cause other than the proposed relocation itself. A hearing to determine adequate cause for modification shall not be required so long as the request for relocation of the child is being pursued. In making a determination of a modification pursuant to relocation of the child, the court shall first determine whether to permit or restrain the relocation of the child using the procedures and standards provided in RCW 26.09.405 through 26.09.560. Following that determination, the court shall determine what modification pursuant to relocation should be made, if any, to the parenting plan or custody order or visitation order.
(7) A parent with whom the child does not reside a majority of the time and whose residential time with the child is subject to limitations pursuant to RCW 26.09.191 (2) or (3) may not seek expansion of residential time under subsection (5)(c) of this section unless that parent demonstrates a substantial change in circumstances specifically related to the basis for the limitation.
(8)(a) If a parent with whom the child does not reside a majority of the time voluntarily fails to exercise residential time for an extended period, that is, one year or longer, the court upon proper motion may make adjustments to the parenting plan in keeping with the best interests of the minor child.
(b) For the purposes of determining whether the parent has failed to exercise residential time for one year or longer, the court may not count any time periods during which the parent did not exercise residential time due to the effect of the parent’s military duties potentially impacting parenting functions.
(9) A parent with whom the child does not reside a majority of the time who is required by the existing parenting plan to complete evaluations, treatment, parenting, or other classes may not seek expansion of residential time under subsection (5)(c) of this section unless that parent has fully complied with such requirements.
(10) The court may order adjustments to any of the nonresidential aspects of a parenting plan upon a showing of a substantial change of circumstances of either parent or of a child, and the adjustment is in the best interest of the child. Adjustments ordered under this section may be made without consideration of the factors set forth in subsection (2) of this section.
(11) If the parent with whom the child resides a majority of the time receives temporary duty, deployment, activation, or mobilization orders from the military that involve moving a substantial distance away from the parent’s residence or otherwise would have a material effect on the parent’s ability to exercise parenting functions and primary placement responsibilities, then:
(a) Any temporary custody order for the child during the parent’s absence shall end no later than ten days after the returning parent provides notice to the temporary custodian, but shall not impair the discretion of the court to conduct an expedited or emergency hearing for resolution of the child’s residential placement upon return of the parent and within ten days of the filing of a motion alleging an immediate danger of irreparable harm to the child. If a motion alleging immediate danger has not been filed, the motion for an order restoring the previous residential schedule shall be granted; and
(b) The temporary duty, activation, mobilization, or deployment and the temporary disruption to the child’s schedule shall not be a factor in a determination of change of circumstances if a motion is filed to transfer residential placement from the parent who is a military service member.
(12) If a parent receives military temporary duty, deployment, activation, or mobilization orders that involve moving a substantial distance away from the military parent’s residence or otherwise have a material effect on the military parent’s ability to exercise residential time or visitation rights, at the request of the military parent, the court may delegate the military parent’s residential time or visitation rights, or a portion thereof, to a child’s family member, including a stepparent, or another person other than a parent, with a close and substantial relationship to the minor child for the duration of the military parent’s absence, if delegating residential time or visitation rights is in the child’s best interest. The court may not permit the delegation of residential time or visitation rights to a person who would be subject to limitations on residential time under RCW 26.09.191. The parties shall attempt to resolve disputes regarding delegation of residential time or visitation rights through the dispute resolution process specified in their parenting plan, unless excused by the court for good cause shown. Such a court-ordered temporary delegation of a military parent’s residential time or visitation rights does not create separate rights to residential time or visitation for a person other than a parent.
(13) If the court finds that a motion to modify a prior decree or parenting plan has been brought in bad faith, the court shall assess the attorney’s fees and court costs of the nonmoving parent against the moving party.
26.09.270. Child custody -- Temporary custody order, temporary parenting plan, or modification of custody decree -- Affidavits required
A party seeking a temporary custody order or a temporary parenting plan or modification of a custody decree or parenting plan shall submit together with his or her motion, an affidavit setting forth facts supporting the requested order or modification and shall give notice, together with a copy of his or her affidavit, to other parties to the proceedings, who may file opposing affidavits. The court shall deny the motion unless it finds that adequate cause for hearing the motion is established by the affidavits, in which case it shall set a date for hearing on an order to show cause why the requested order or modification should not be granted.
26.09.280. Parenting plan or child support modification or enforcement -- Venue
Every action or proceeding to change, modify, or enforce any final order, judgment, or decree entered in any dissolution or legal separation or declaration concerning the validity of a marriage or domestic partnership, whether under this chapter or prior law, regarding the parenting plan or child support for the minor children of the marriage or the domestic partnership may be brought in the county where the minor children are then residing, or in the court in which the final order, judgment, or decree was entered, or in the county where the parent or other person who has the care, custody, or control of the children is then residing.
26.09.430. Notice requirement
Except as provided in RCW 26.09.460, a person with whom the child resides a majority of the time, or a person with substantially equal residential time, shall notify every other person entitled to residential time or visitation with the child under a court order if the person intends to relocate. Notice shall be given as prescribed in RCW 26.09.440 and 26.09.450.
26.09.440. Notice--Contents and delivery
(1) Except as provided in RCW 26.09.450 and 26.09.460, the notice of an intended relocation of the child must be given by:
(a) Personal service or any form of mail requiring a return receipt; and
(b) No less than:
(i) Sixty days before the date of the intended relocation of the child; or
(ii) No more than five days after the date that the person knows the information required to be furnished under subsection (2) of this section, if the person did not know and could not reasonably have known the information in sufficient time to provide the sixty-days’ notice, and it is not reasonable to delay the relocation.
(2)(a) The notice of intended relocation of the child must include: (i) An address at which service of process may be accomplished during the period for objection; (ii) a brief statement of the specific reasons for the intended relocation of the child; and (iii) a notice to the nonrelocating person that an objection to the intended relocation of the child or to the relocating person’s proposed revised residential schedule must be filed with the court and served on the opposing person within thirty days or the relocation of the child will be permitted and the residential schedule may be modified pursuant to RCW 26.09.500. The notice shall not be deemed to be in substantial compliance for purposes of RCW 26.09.470 unless the notice contains the following statement: “THE RELOCATION OF THE CHILD WILL BE PERMITTED AND THE PROPOSED REVISED RESIDENTIAL SCHEDULE MAY BE CONFIRMED UNLESS, WITHIN THIRTY DAYS, YOU FILE A PETITION AND MOTION WITH THE COURT TO BLOCK THE RELOCATION OR OBJECT TO THE PROPOSED REVISED RESIDENTIAL SCHEDULE AND SERVE THE PETITION AND MOTION ON THE PERSON PROPOSING RELOCATION AND ALL OTHER PERSONS ENTITLED BY COURT ORDER TO RESIDENTIAL TIME OR VISITATION WITH THE CHILD.”
(b) Except as provided in RCW 26.09.450 and 26.09.460, the following information shall also be included in every notice of intended relocation of the child, if available:
(i) The specific street address of the intended new residence, if known, or as much of the intended address as is known, such as city and state;
(ii) The new mailing address, if different from the intended new residence address;
(iii) The new home telephone number;
(iv) The name and address of the child’s new school and day care facility, if applicable;
(v) The date of the intended relocation of the child; and
(vi) A proposal in the form of a proposed parenting plan for a revised schedule of residential time or visitation with the child, if any.
(3) A person required to give notice of an intended relocation of the child has a continuing duty to promptly update the information required with the notice as that new information becomes known.
26.09.450. Notice--Relocation within the same school district
(1) When the intended relocation of the child is within the school district in which the child currently resides the majority of the time, the person intending to relocate the child, in lieu of notice prescribed in RCW 26.09.440, may provide actual notice by any reasonable means to every other person entitled to residential time or visitation with the child under a court order.
(2) A person who is entitled to residential time or visitation with the child under a court order may not object to the intended relocation of the child within the school district in which the child currently resides the majority of the time, but he or she retains the right to move for modification under RCW 26.09.260.
26.09.460. Limitation of notices
(1) If a person intending to relocate the child is entering a domestic violence shelter due to the danger imposed by another person, notice may be delayed for twenty-one days. This section shall not be construed to compel the disclosure by any domestic violence shelter of information protected by confidentiality except as provided by RCW 70.123.075 or equivalent laws of the state in which the shelter is located.
(2) If a person intending to relocate the child is a participant in the address confidentiality program pursuant to chapter 40.24 RCW or has a court order which permits the party to withhold some or all of the information required by RCW 26.09.440(2)(b), the confidential or protected information is not required to be given with the notice.
(3) If a person intending to relocate the child is relocating to avoid a clear, immediate, and unreasonable risk to the health or safety of a person or the child, notice may be delayed for twenty-one days.
(4) A person intending to relocate the child who believes that his or her health or safety or the health or safety of the child would be unreasonably put at risk by notice or disclosure of certain information in the notice may request an ex parte hearing with the court to have all or part of the notice requirements waived. If the court finds that the health or safety of a person or a child would be unreasonably put at risk by notice or the disclosure of certain information in the notice, the court may:
(a) Order that the notice requirements be less than complete or waived to the extent necessary to protect confidentiality or the health or safety of a person or child; or
(b) Provide such other relief as the court finds necessary to facilitate the legitimate needs of the parties and the best interests of the child under the circumstances.
(5) This section does not deprive a person entitled to residential time or visitation with a child under a court order the opportunity to object to the intended relocation of the child or the proposed revised residential schedule before the relocation occurs.
26.09.470. Failure to give notice
(1) The failure to provide the required notice is grounds for sanctions, including contempt if applicable.
(2) In determining whether a person has failed to comply with the notice requirements for the purposes of this section, the court may consider whether:
(a) The person has substantially complied with the notice requirements;
(b) The court order in effect at the time of the relocation was issued prior to June 8, 2000, and the person substantially complied with the notice requirements, if any, in the existing order;
(c) A waiver of notice was granted;
(d) A person entitled to receive notice was substantially harmed; and
(e) Any other factor the court deems relevant.
(3) A person entitled to file an objection to the intended relocation of the child may file such objection whether or not the person has received proper notice.
26.09.480. Objection to relocation or proposed revised residential schedule
(1) A party objecting to the intended relocation of the child or the relocating parent’s proposed revised residential schedule shall do so by filing the objection with the court and serving the objection on the relocating party and all other persons entitled by court order to residential time or visitation with the child by means of personal service or mailing by any form of mail requiring a return receipt to the relocating party at the address designated for service on the notice of intended relocation and to other parties requiring notice at their mailing address. The objection must be filed and served, including a three-day waiting period if the objection is served by mail, within thirty days of receipt of the notice of intended relocation of the child. The objection shall be in the form of: (a) A petition for modification of the parenting plan pursuant to relocation; or (b) other court proceeding adequate to provide grounds for relief.
(2) Unless the special circumstances described in RCW 26.09.460 apply, the person intending to relocate the child shall not, without a court order, change the principal residence of the child during the period in which a party may object. The order required under this subsection may be obtained ex parte. If the objecting party notes a court hearing to prevent the relocation of the child for a date not more than fifteen days following timely service of an objection to relocation, the party intending to relocate the child shall not change the principal residence of the child pending the hearing unless the special circumstances described in RCW 26.09.460(3) apply.
(3) The administrator for the courts shall develop a standard form, separate from existing dissolution or modification forms, for use in filing an objection to relocation of the child or objection of the relocating person’s proposed revised residential schedule.
26.09.500. Failure to object
(1) Except for good cause shown, if a person entitled to object to the relocation of the child does not file an objection with the court within thirty days after receipt of the relocation notice, then the relocation of the child shall be permitted.
(2) A nonobjecting person shall be entitled to the residential time or visitation with the child specified in the proposed residential schedule included with the relocation notice.
(3) Any person entitled to residential time or visitation with a child under a court order retains his or her right to move for modification under RCW 26.09.260.
(4) If a person entitled to object to the relocation of the child does not file an objection with the court within thirty days after receipt of the relocation notice, a person entitled to residential time with the child may not be held in contempt of court for any act or omission that is in compliance with the proposed revised residential schedule set forth in the notice given.
(5) Any party entitled to residential time or visitation with the child under a court order may, after thirty days have elapsed since the receipt of the notice, obtain ex parte and file with the court an order modifying the residential schedule in conformity with the relocating party’s proposed residential schedule specified in the notice upon filing a copy of the notice and proof of service of such notice. A party may obtain ex parte and file with the court an order modifying the residential schedule in conformity with the proposed residential schedule specified in the notice before the thirty days have elapsed if the party files a copy of the notice, proof of service of such notice, and proof that no objection will be filed.
26.09.520. Basis for determination
The person proposing to relocate with the child shall provide his or her reasons for the intended relocation. There is a rebuttable presumption that the intended relocation of the child will be permitted. A person entitled to object to the intended relocation of the child may rebut the presumption by demonstrating that the detrimental effect of the relocation outweighs the benefit of the change to the child and the relocating person, based upon the following factors. The factors listed in this section are not weighted. No inference is to be drawn from the order in which the following factors are listed:
(1) The relative strength, nature, quality, extent of involvement, and stability of the child’s relationship with each parent, siblings, and other significant persons in the child’s life;
(2) Prior agreements of the parties;
(3) Whether disrupting the contact between the child and the person seeking relocation would be more detrimental to the child than disrupting contact between the child and the person objecting to the relocation;
(4) Whether either parent or a person entitled to residential time with the child is subject to limitations under RCW 26.09.191;
(5) The reasons of each person for seeking or opposing the relocation and the good faith of each of the parties in requesting or opposing the relocation;
(6) The age, developmental stage, and needs of the child, and the likely impact the relocation or its prevention will have on the child’s physical, educational, and emotional development, taking into consideration any special needs of the child;
(7) The quality of life, resources, and opportunities available to the child and to the relocating party in the current and proposed geographic locations;
(8) The availability of alternative arrangements to foster and continue the child’s relationship with and access to the other parent;
(9) The alternatives to relocation and whether it is feasible and desirable for the other party to relocate also;
(10) The financial impact and logistics of the relocation or its prevention; and
(11) For a temporary order, the amount of time before a final decision can be made at trial.
26.09.525. Substantially equal residential time
(1) If the person proposing relocation of a child has substantially equal residential time:
(a) The presumption in RCW 26.09.520 does not apply; and
(b) In determining whether to restrict a parent’s right to relocate with a child or in determining a modification of the court order as defined in RCW 26.09.410 based on the proposed relocation, the court shall make a determination in the best interests of the child considering the factors set forth in RCW 26.09.520.
(2) For the purposes of this section and RCW 26.09.430, “substantially equal residential time” includes arrangements in which forty-five percent or more of the child’s residential time is spent with each parent. In determining the percentage, the court must (a) consider only time spent with parents and not any time ordered for nonparents under chapter 26.11 RCW; and (b) base its determination on the amount of time designated in the court order unless: (i) There has been an ongoing pattern of substantial deviation from the residential schedule; (ii) both parents have agreed to the deviation; and (iii) the deviation is not based on circumstances that are beyond either parent’s ability to control.
Chapter 26.11. Nonparental Child Visitation--Relatives
26.11.010. Definitions
The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
(1) “Parent” means a legal parent whose rights have not been terminated, relinquished, or declared not to exist.
(2)(a) “Relative” means:
(i) Any blood relative, including those of half-blood, and including first cousins, second cousins, nephews or nieces, and persons of preceding generations as denoted by prefixes of grand, great, or great-great;
(ii) Stepfather, stepmother, stepbrother, and stepsister;
(iii) A person who legally adopts a child or the child’s parent as well as the biological and other legally adopted children of such persons, and other relatives of the adoptive parents in accordance with state law;
(iv) Spouses of any persons named in (a)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this subsection, even after the marriage is terminated;
(v) Relatives, as named in (a)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this subsection, of any half sibling of the child; or
(vi) Extended family members, as defined by the law or custom of an Indian child’s tribe or, in the absence of such law or custom, a person who has reached the age of eighteen and who is the Indian child’s grandparent, aunt or uncle, brother or sister, brother-in-law or sister-in-law, niece or nephew, first or second cousin, or stepparent who provides care in the family abode on a twenty-four hour basis to an Indian child as defined in 25 U.S.C. Sec. 1903(4).
(b) “Relative” does not include a person whose parental rights have been terminated, relinquished, or determined not to exist with respect to a child who is the subject of a petition under this chapter.
26.11.020. Petition for visitation--Criteria--Ongoing and substantial relationship with child--Relatives--Likelihood of harm to child
(1) A person who is not the parent of the child may petition for visitation with the child if:
(a) The petitioner has an ongoing and substantial relationship with the child;
(b) The petitioner is a relative of the child or a parent of the child; and
(c) The child is likely to suffer harm or a substantial risk of harm if visitation is denied.
(2) A person has established an ongoing and substantial relationship with a child if the person and the child have had a relationship formed and sustained through interaction, companionship, and mutuality of interest and affection, without expectation of financial compensation, with substantial continuity for at least two years unless the child is under the age of two years, in which case there must be substantial continuity for at least half of the child’s life, and with a shared expectation of and desire for an ongoing relationship.
Chapter 26.16. Husband and Wife- Rights and Liabilities- Community Property
26.16.125. Custody of children
Henceforth the rights and responsibilities of the parents in the absence of misconduct shall be equal, and one parent shall be as fully entitled to the custody, control and earnings of the children as the other parent, and in case of one parent’s death, the other parent shall come into full and complete control of the children and their estate .
Chapter 26.19. Child Support Schedule
26.19.020. Child support economic table
MONTHLY BASIC SUPPORT OBLIGATION
|
PER CHILD
|
|
COMBINED
|
|||
MONTHLY
|
ONE
|
TWO
|
|
NET
|
CHILD
|
CHILDREN
|
|
INCOME
|
FAMILY
|
FAMILY
|
For income less than $1000 the obligation is based upon the resources and living expenses of each household. Minimum support may not be less than $50 per child per month except when allowed by RCW 26.19.065(2).
|
1000
|
216
|
167
|
|
1100
|
238
|
184
|
|
1200
|
260
|
200
|
|
1300
|
281
|
217
|
|
1400
|
303
|
234
|
|
1500
|
325
|
251
|
|
1600
|
346
|
267
|
|
1700
|
368
|
284
|
|
1800
|
390
|
301
|
|
1900
|
412
|
317
|
|
2000
|
433
|
334
|
|
2100
|
455
|
350
|
|
2200
|
477
|
367
|
|
2300
|
499
|
384
|
|
2400
|
521
|
400
|
|
2500
|
543
|
417
|
|
2600
|
565
|
433
|
|
2700
|
587
|
450
|
|
2800
|
609
|
467
|
|
2900
|
630
|
483
|
|
3000
|
652
|
500
|
|
3100
|
674
|
516
|
|
3200
|
696
|
533
|
|
3300
|
718
|
550
|
|
3400
|
740
|
566
|
|
3500
|
762
|
583
|
|
3600
|
784
|
599
|
|
3700
|
803
|
614
|
|
3800
|
816
|
624
|
|
3900
|
830
|
634
|
|
4000
|
843
|
643
|
|
4100
|
857
|
653
|
|
4200
|
867
|
660
|
|
4300
|
877
|
668
|
|
4400
|
887
|
675
|
|
4500
|
896
|
682
|
|
4600
|
906
|
689
|
|
4700
|
916
|
697
|
|
4800
|
927
|
705
|
|
4900
|
939
|
714
|
|
5000
|
951
|
723
|
|
5100
|
963
|
732
|
|
5200
|
975
|
741
|
|
5300
|
987
|
750
|
|
5400
|
999
|
759
|
|
5500
|
1011
|
768
|
|
5600
|
1023
|
777
|
|
5700
|
1030
|
782
|
|
5800
|
1036
|
786
|
|
5900
|
1042
|
791
|
|
6000
|
1048
|
795
|
|
6100
|
1054
|
800
|
|
6200
|
1061
|
804
|
|
6300
|
1067
|
809
|
|
6400
|
1073
|
813
|
|
6500
|
1081
|
819
|
|
6600
|
1096
|
830
|
|
6700
|
1111
|
842
|
|
6800
|
1126
|
853
|
|
6900
|
1141
|
864
|
|
7000
|
1156
|
875
|
|
7100
|
1170
|
886
|
|
7200
|
1185
|
898
|
|
7300
|
1200
|
909
|
|
7400
|
1212
|
918
|
|
7500
|
1222
|
925
|
|
7600
|
1231
|
932
|
|
7700
|
1241
|
939
|
|
7800
|
1251
|
946
|
|
7900
|
1261
|
953
|
|
8000
|
1270
|
960
|
|
8100
|
1280
|
968
|
|
8200
|
1290
|
975
|
|
8300
|
1299
|
981
|
|
8400
|
1308
|
987
|
|
8500
|
1316
|
994
|
|
8600
|
1325
|
1000
|
|
8700
|
1334
|
1007
|
|
8800
|
1343
|
1013
|
|
8900
|
1352
|
1019
|
|
9000
|
1361
|
1026
|
|
9100
|
1370
|
1032
|
|
9200
|
1379
|
1040
|
|
9300
|
1387
|
1047
|
|
9400
|
1396
|
1055
|
|
9500
|
1405
|
1062
|
|
9600
|
1414
|
1069
|
|
9700
|
1423
|
1077
|
|
9800
|
1432
|
1084
|
|
9900
|
1441
|
1092
|
|
10000
|
1451
|
1099
|
|
10100
|
1462
|
1107
|
|
10200
|
1473
|
1114
|
|
10300
|
1484
|
1122
|
|
10400
|
1495
|
1129
|
|
10500
|
1507
|
1136
|
|
10600
|
1518
|
1144
|
|
10700
|
1529
|
1151
|
|
10800
|
1539
|
1159
|
|
10900
|
1542
|
1161
|
|
11000
|
1545
|
1164
|
|
11100
|
1548
|
1166
|
|
11200
|
1551
|
1169
|
|
11300
|
1554
|
1172
|
|
11400
|
1556
|
1174
|
|
11500
|
1559
|
1177
|
|
11600
|
1562
|
1179
|
|
11700
|
1565
|
1182
|
|
11800
|
1568
|
1184
|
|
11900
|
1571
|
1187
|
|
12000
|
1573
|
1190
|
COMBINED
|
||||
MONTHLY
|
THREE
|
FOUR
|
FIVE
|
|
NET
|
CHILDREN
|
CHILDREN
|
CHILDREN
|
|
INCOME
|
FAMILY
|
FAMILY
|
FAMILY
|
|
|
For income less than $1000 the obligation is based upon the resources and living expenses of each household. Minimum support may not be less than $50 per child per month except when allowed by RCW 26.19.065(2).
|
1000
|
136
|
114
|
100
|
|
1100
|
150
|
125
|
110
|
|
1200
|
163
|
137
|
120
|
|
1300
|
177
|
148
|
130
|
|
1400
|
191
|
160
|
141
|
|
1500
|
204
|
171
|
151
|
|
1600
|
218
|
182
|
161
|
|
1700
|
231
|
194
|
171
|
|
1800
|
245
|
205
|
180
|
|
1900
|
258
|
216
|
190
|
|
2000
|
271
|
227
|
200
|
|
2100
|
285
|
239
|
210
|
|
2200
|
298
|
250
|
220
|
|
2300
|
311
|
261
|
230
|
|
2400
|
325
|
272
|
239
|
|
2500
|
338
|
283
|
249
|
|
2600
|
351
|
294
|
259
|
|
2700
|
365
|
305
|
269
|
|
2800
|
378
|
317
|
279
|
|
2900
|
391
|
328
|
288
|
|
3000
|
405
|
339
|
298
|
|
3100
|
418
|
350
|
308
|
|
3200
|
431
|
361
|
318
|
|
3300
|
444
|
372
|
328
|
|
3400
|
458
|
384
|
337
|
|
3500
|
471
|
395
|
347
|
|
3600
|
484
|
406
|
357
|
|
3700
|
496
|
416
|
366
|
|
3800
|
503
|
422
|
371
|
|
3900
|
511
|
428
|
377
|
|
4000
|
518
|
434
|
382
|
|
4100
|
526
|
440
|
388
|
|
4200
|
531
|
445
|
392
|
|
4300
|
537
|
450
|
396
|
|
4400
|
543
|
455
|
400
|
|
4500
|
548
|
459
|
404
|
|
4600
|
554
|
464
|
408
|
|
4700
|
559
|
469
|
412
|
|
4800
|
566
|
474
|
417
|
|
4900
|
573
|
480
|
422
|
|
5000
|
580
|
486
|
428
|
|
5100
|
587
|
492
|
433
|
|
5200
|
594
|
498
|
438
|
|
5300
|
602
|
504
|
443
|
|
5400
|
609
|
510
|
449
|
|
5500
|
616
|
516
|
454
|
|
5600
|
623
|
522
|
459
|
|
5700
|
627
|
525
|
462
|
|
5800
|
630
|
528
|
465
|
|
5900
|
634
|
531
|
467
|
|
6000
|
637
|
534
|
470
|
|
6100
|
641
|
537
|
472
|
|
6200
|
644
|
540
|
475
|
|
6300
|
648
|
543
|
477
|
|
6400
|
651
|
545
|
480
|
|
6500
|
656
|
549
|
483
|
|
6600
|
665
|
557
|
490
|
|
6700
|
674
|
564
|
497
|
|
6800
|
683
|
572
|
503
|
|
6900
|
692
|
579
|
510
|
|
7000
|
701
|
587
|
516
|
|
7100
|
710
|
594
|
523
|
|
7200
|
719
|
602
|
530
|
|
7300
|
727
|
609
|
536
|
|
7400
|
734
|
615
|
541
|
|
7500
|
740
|
620
|
545
|
|
7600
|
745
|
624
|
549
|
|
7700
|
751
|
629
|
554
|
|
7800
|
756
|
634
|
558
|
|
7900
|
762
|
638
|
562
|
|
8000
|
767
|
643
|
566
|
|
8100
|
773
|
647
|
570
|
|
8200
|
778
|
652
|
574
|
|
8300
|
783
|
656
|
577
|
|
8400
|
788
|
660
|
581
|
|
8500
|
793
|
664
|
584
|
|
8600
|
797
|
668
|
588
|
|
8700
|
802
|
672
|
591
|
|
8800
|
807
|
676
|
595
|
|
8900
|
812
|
680
|
599
|
|
9000
|
817
|
684
|
602
|
|
9100
|
822
|
689
|
606
|
|
9200
|
828
|
694
|
611
|
|
9300
|
835
|
699
|
616
|
|
9400
|
841
|
705
|
620
|
|
9500
|
848
|
710
|
625
|
|
9600
|
854
|
716
|
630
|
|
9700
|
861
|
721
|
635
|
|
9800
|
867
|
727
|
639
|
|
9900
|
874
|
732
|
644
|
|
10000
|
879
|
737
|
648
|
|
10100
|
885
|
741
|
652
|
|
10200
|
890
|
745
|
656
|
|
10300
|
895
|
750
|
660
|
|
10400
|
900
|
754
|
664
|
|
10500
|
906
|
759
|
668
|
|
10600
|
911
|
763
|
672
|
|
10700
|
916
|
767
|
675
|
|
10800
|
921
|
772
|
679
|
|
10900
|
924
|
774
|
681
|
|
11000
|
926
|
776
|
683
|
|
11100
|
928
|
778
|
684
|
|
11200
|
931
|
780
|
686
|
|
11300
|
933
|
782
|
688
|
|
11400
|
936
|
784
|
690
|
|
11500
|
938
|
786
|
692
|
|
11600
|
940
|
788
|
693
|
|
11700
|
943
|
790
|
695
|
|
11800
|
945
|
792
|
697
|
|
11900
|
948
|
794
|
699
|
|
12000
|
950
|
796
|
700
|
26.19.050. Worksheets and instructions
(1) The administrative office of the courts shall develop and adopt worksheets and instructions to assist the parties and courts in establishing the appropriate child support level and apportionment of support. The administrative office of the courts shall attempt to the greatest extent possible to make the worksheets and instructions understandable by persons who are not represented by legal counsel.
(2) The administrative office of the courts shall develop and adopt standards for the printing of worksheets and shall establish a process for certifying printed worksheets. The administrator may maintain a register of sources for approved worksheets.
(3) The administrative office of the courts should explore methods to assist pro se parties and judges in the courtroom to calculate support payments through automated software, equipment, or personal assistance.
26.19.065. Standards for establishing lower and upper limits on child support amounts
(1) Limit at forty-five percent of a parent’s net income. Neither parent’s child support obligation owed for all his or her biological or legal children may exceed forty-five percent of net income except for good cause shown.
(a) Each child is entitled to a pro rata share of the income available for support, but the court only applies the pro rata share to the children in the case before the court.
(b) Before determining whether to apply the forty-five percent limitation, the court must consider whether it would be unjust to apply the limitation after considering the best interests of the child and the circumstances of each parent. Such circumstances include, but are not limited to, leaving insufficient funds in the custodial parent’s household to meet the basic needs of the child, comparative hardship to the affected households, assets or liabilities, and any involuntary limits on either parent’s earning capacity including incarceration, disabilities, or incapacity.
(c) Good cause includes, but is not limited to, possession of substantial wealth, children with day care expenses, special medical need, educational need, psychological need, and larger families.
(2) Presumptive minimum support obligation. (a) When a parent’s monthly net income is below one hundred twenty-five percent of the federal poverty guideline for a one-person family, a support order of not less than fifty dollars per child per month shall be entered unless the obligor parent establishes that it would be unjust to do so in that particular case. The decision whether there is a sufficient basis to deviate below the presumptive minimum payment must take into consideration the best interests of the child and the circumstances of each parent. Such circumstances can include leaving insufficient funds in the custodial parent’s household to meet the basic needs of the child, comparative hardship to the affected households, assets or liabilities, and earning capacity.
(b) The basic support obligation of the parent making the transfer payment, excluding health care, day care, and special child-rearing expenses, shall not reduce his or her net income below the self-support reserve of one hundred twenty-five percent of the federal poverty level for a one-person family, except for the presumptive minimum payment of fifty dollars per child per month or when it would be unjust to apply the self-support reserve limitation after considering the best interests of the child and the circumstances of each parent. Such circumstances include, but are not limited to, leaving insufficient funds in the custodial parent’s household to meet the basic needs of the child, comparative hardship to the affected households, assets or liabilities, and earning capacity. This section shall not be construed to require monthly substantiation of income.
(3) Income above twelve thousand dollars. The economic table is presumptive for combined monthly net incomes up to and including twelve thousand dollars. When combined monthly net income exceeds twelve thousand dollars, the court may exceed the presumptive amount of support set for combined monthly net incomes of twelve thousand dollars upon written findings of fact.
Chapter 26.23. State Support Registry
26.23.050. Support orders--Provisions--Enforcement--Confidential information form--Rules
(1) If the division of child support is providing support enforcement services under RCW 26.23.045, or if a party is applying for support enforcement services by signing the application form on the bottom of the support order, the superior court shall include in all court orders that establish or modify a support obligation:
(a) A provision that orders and directs the person required to pay support to make all support payments to the Washington state support registry;
(b) A statement that withholding action may be taken against wages, earnings, assets, or benefits, and liens enforced against real and personal property under the child support statutes of this or any other state, without further notice to the person required to pay support at any time after entry of the court order, unless:
(i) One of the parties demonstrates, and the court finds, that there is good cause not to require immediate income withholding and that withholding should be delayed until a payment is past due; or
(ii) The parties reach a written agreement that is approved by the court that provides for an alternate arrangement;
(c) A statement that the payee under the order or the person entitled to receive support might be required to submit an accounting of how the support, including any cash medical support, is being spent to benefit the child;
(d) A statement that a party to the support order who is required to provide health care coverage for the child or children covered by the order must notify the division of child support and the other party to the support order when the coverage terminates;
(e) A statement that any privilege of the person required to pay support to obtain and maintain a license, as defined in RCW 74.20A.320, may not be renewed, or may be suspended if the person is not in compliance with a support order as provided in RCW 74.20A.320; and
(f) A statement that the support obligation under the order may be abated as provided in RCW 26.09.320 if the person required to pay support is confined in a jail, prison, or correctional facility for at least six months, or is serving a sentence greater than six months in a jail, prison, or correctional facility.
As used in this subsection and subsection (3) of this section, “good cause not to require immediate income withholding” means a written determination of why implementing immediate wage withholding would not be in the child’s best interests and, in modification cases, proof of timely payment of previously ordered support.
(2) In all other cases not under subsection (1) of this section, the court may order the person required to pay support to make payments directly to the person entitled to receive the payments, to the Washington state support registry, or may order that payments be made in accordance with an alternate arrangement agreed upon by the parties.
(a) The superior court shall include in all orders under this subsection that establish or modify a support obligation:
(i) A statement that withholding action may be taken against wages, earnings, assets, or benefits, and liens enforced against real and personal property under the child support statutes of this or any other state, without further notice to the person required to pay support at any time after entry of the court order, unless:
(A) One of the parties demonstrates, and the court finds, that there is good cause not to require immediate income withholding and that withholding should be delayed until a payment is past due; or
(B) The parties reach a written agreement that is approved by the court that provides for an alternate arrangement;
(ii) A statement that the payee under the order or the person entitled to receive support may be required to submit an accounting of how the support is being spent to benefit the child;
(iii) A statement that any party to the order required to provide health care coverage for the child or children covered by the order must notify the division of child support and the other party to the order when the coverage terminates; and
(iv) A statement that a party to the order seeking to enforce the other party’s obligation to provide health care coverage may:
(A) File a motion in the underlying superior court action; or
(B) If there is not already an underlying superior court action, initiate an action in the superior court.
As used in this subsection, “good cause not to require immediate income withholding” is any reason that the court finds appropriate.
(b) The superior court may order immediate or delayed income withholding as follows:
(i) Immediate income withholding may be ordered if the person required to pay support has earnings. If immediate income withholding is ordered under this subsection, all support payments shall be paid to the Washington state support registry. The superior court shall issue a mandatory wage assignment order as set forth in chapter 26.18 RCW when the support order is signed by the court. The payee under the order or the person entitled to receive the transfer payment is responsible for serving the employer with the order and for its enforcement as set forth in chapter 26.18 RCW.
(ii) If immediate income withholding is not ordered, the court shall require that income withholding be delayed until a payment is past due. The support order shall contain a statement that withholding action may be taken against wages, earnings, assets, or benefits, and liens enforced against real and personal property under the child support statutes of this or any other state, without further notice to the person required to pay support, after a payment is past due.
(c) If a mandatory income withholding order under chapter 26.18 RCW is issued under this subsection and the division of child support provides support enforcement services under RCW 26.23.045, the existing wage withholding assignment is prospectively superseded upon the division of child support’s subsequent service of an income withholding order.
(3) The office of administrative hearings and the department of social and health services shall require that all support obligations established as administrative orders include a provision which orders and directs that the person required to pay support shall make all support payments to the Washington state support registry. All administrative orders shall also state that any privilege of the person required to pay support to obtain and maintain a license, as defined in RCW 74.20A.320, may not be renewed, or may be suspended if the person is not in compliance with a support order as provided in RCW 74.20A.320. All administrative orders shall also state that withholding action may be taken against wages, earnings, assets, or benefits, and liens enforced against real and personal property under the child support statutes of this or any other state without further notice to the person required to pay support at any time after entry of the order, unless:
(a) One of the parties demonstrates, and the presiding officer finds, that there is good cause not to require immediate income withholding; or
(b) The parties reach a written agreement that is approved by the presiding officer that provides for an alternate agreement.
(4) If the support order does not include the provision ordering and directing that all payments be made to the Washington state support registry and a statement that withholding action may be taken against wages, earnings, assets, or benefits if a support payment is past due or at any time after the entry of the order, or that licensing privileges of the person required to pay support may not be renewed, or may be suspended, the division of child support may serve a notice on the person stating such requirements and authorizations. Service may be by personal service or any form of mail requiring a return receipt.
(5) Every support order shall state:
(a) The address where the support payment is to be sent;
(b) That withholding action may be taken against wages, earnings, assets, or benefits, and liens enforced against real and personal property under the child support statutes of this or any other state, without further notice to the person required to pay support at any time after entry of a support order, unless:
(i) One of the parties demonstrates, and the court finds, that there is good cause not to require immediate income withholding; or
(ii) The parties reach a written agreement that is approved by the court that provides for an alternate arrangement;
(c) The income of the parties, if known, or that their income is unknown and the income upon which the support award is based;
(d) The support award as a sum certain amount;
(e) The specific day or date on which the support payment is due;
(f) The names and ages of the dependent children;
(g) A provision requiring both the person required to pay support, and the payee under the order or the person entitled to receive support who is a parent of the child or children covered by the order, to keep the Washington state support registry informed of whether he or she has access to health care coverage at reasonable cost and, if so, the health care coverage information;
(h) That either or both the person required to pay support, and the payee under the order or the person entitled to receive support who is a parent of the child or children covered by the order, shall be obligated to provide medical support for a child or children covered by the order through health care coverage if:
(i) The person obligated to provide medical support provides accessible coverage for the child or children through private or public health care coverage; or
(ii) Coverage that can be extended to cover the child or children is or becomes available to the person obligated to provide medical support through employment or is union-related; or
(iii) In the absence of such coverage, through an additional sum certain amount, as that obligated person’s monthly payment toward the premium as provided under RCW 26.09.105;
(i) That a person obligated to provide medical support who is providing health care coverage must notify both the division of child support and the other party to the order when coverage terminates;
(j) That if proof of health care coverage or proof that the coverage is unavailable is not provided within twenty days, the person seeking enforcement or the department may seek direct enforcement of the coverage through the employer or union of the person required to provide medical support without further notice to the person as provided under chapter 26.18 RCW;
(k) The reasons for not ordering health care coverage if the order fails to require such coverage;
(l) That any privilege of the person required to pay support to obtain and maintain a license, as defined in RCW 74.20A.320, may not be renewed, or may be suspended if the person is not in compliance with a support order as provided in RCW 74.20A.320;
(m) That each party to the support order must:
(i) Promptly file with the court and update as necessary the confidential information form required by subsection (7) of this section; and
(ii) Provide the state case registry and update as necessary the information required by subsection (7) of this section; and
(n) That parties to administrative support orders shall provide to the state case registry and update as necessary their residential addresses and the address of the employer of the person required to pay support. The division of child support may adopt rules that govern the collection of parties’ current residence and mailing addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, social security numbers, the names of the children, social security numbers of the children, dates of birth of the children, driver’s license numbers, and the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the parties’ employers to enforce an administrative support order. The division of child support shall not release this information if the division of child support determines that there is reason to believe that release of the information may result in physical or emotional harm to the party or to the child, or a restraining order or protective order is in effect to protect one party from the other party.
(6) After the person required to pay support has been ordered or notified to make payments to the Washington state support registry under this section, that person shall be fully responsible for making all payments to the Washington state support registry and shall be subject to payroll deduction or other income-withholding action. The person required to pay support shall not be entitled to credit against a support obligation for any payments made to a person or agency other than to the Washington state support registry except as provided under RCW 74.20.101. A civil action may be brought by the person required to pay support to recover payments made to persons or agencies who have received and retained support moneys paid contrary to the provisions of this section.
(7) All petitioners and parties to all court actions under chapters 26.09, 26.12, 26.18, 26.21A, 26.23, 26.26A, 26.26B, and 26.27 RCW and minor guardianships under chapter 11.130 RCW shall complete to the best of their knowledge a verified and signed confidential information form or equivalent that provides the parties’ current residence and mailing addresses, telephone numbers, dates of birth, social security numbers, driver’s license numbers, and the names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the parties’ employers, to ensure that the parties’ information is added to the judicial information system’s person database. The clerk of the court shall not accept petitions, except in parentage actions initiated by the state, orders of child support, decrees of dissolution, or parentage orders for filing in such actions unless accompanied by the confidential information form or equivalent, or unless the confidential information form or equivalent is already on file with the court clerk. In lieu of or in addition to requiring the parties to complete a separate confidential information form, the clerk may collect the information in electronic form. The clerk of the court shall transmit the confidential information form or its data to the division of child support with a copy of the order of child support or parentage order, and may provide copies of the confidential information form or its data and any related findings, decrees, parenting plans, orders, or other documents to the state administrative agency that administers Title IV-A, IV-D, IV-E, or XIX of the federal social security act. In state initiated parentage actions, the parties adjudicated the parents of the child or children shall complete the confidential information form or equivalent or the state’s attorney of record may complete that form to the best of the attorney’s knowledge.
(8) The department has rule-making authority to enact rules consistent with 42 U.S.C. Sec. 652(f) and 42 U.S.C. Sec. 666(a)(19) as amended by section 7307 of the deficit reduction act of 2005. Additionally, the department has rule-making authority to implement regulations required under 45 C.F.R. Parts 302, 303, 304, 305, and 308.
Chapter 26.26A. Uniform Parentage Act
Voluntary Acknowledgment of Parentage
26.26A.200. Acknowledgment of parentage
A woman who gave birth to a child and an alleged genetic father of the child, intended parent under RCW 26.26A.600 through 26.26A.635, or presumed parent may sign an acknowledgment of parentage to establish the parentage of the child.
26.26A.205. Execution of acknowledgment of parentage
(1) An acknowledgment of parentage under RCW 26.26A.200 must:
(a) Be in a record signed by the woman who gave birth to the child and by the individual seeking to establish a parent-child relationship, and the signatures must be attested by a notarial officer or witnessed;
(b) State that the child whose parentage is being acknowledged:
(i) Does not have a presumed parent other than the individual seeking to establish the parent-child relationship or has a presumed parent whose full name is stated; and
(ii) Does not have another acknowledged parent, adjudicated parent, or individual who is a parent of the child under RCW 26.26A.600through 26.26A.635 and 26.26A.700 through 26.26A.785, other than the woman who gave birth to the child; and
(c) State that the signatories understand that the acknowledgment is the equivalent of an adjudication of parentage of the child and that a challenge to the acknowledgment is permitted only under limited circumstances and is barred four years after the effective date of the acknowledgment.
(2) An acknowledgment of parentage is void if, at the time of signing:
(a) An individual other than the individual seeking to establish parentage is a presumed parent, unless a denial of parentage by the presumed parent in a signed record is filed with the state registrar of vital statistics; or
(b) An individual, other than the woman who gave birth to the child or the individual seeking to establish parentage, is an acknowledged or adjudicated parent or a parent under RCW 26.26A.600 through 26.26A.635 and 26.26A.700 through 26.26A.785.
26.26A.215. Acknowledgment or denial of parentage--Requirements
(1) An acknowledgment of parentage and a denial of parentage may be contained in a single document or may be in counterparts and may be filed with the state registrar of vital statistics separately or simultaneously. If filing of the acknowledgment and denial both are required under this chapter, neither is effective until both are filed.
(2) An acknowledgment of parentage or denial of parentage may be signed before or after the birth of the child.
(3) Subject to subsection (1) of this section, an acknowledgment of parentage or denial of parentage takes effect on the birth of the child or filing of the document with the state registrar of vital statistics, whichever occurs later.
(4) An acknowledgment of parentage or denial of parentage signed by a minor is valid if the acknowledgment complies with this chapter.
26.26A.220. Effect of acknowledgment or denial of parentage
(1) Except as otherwise provided in RCW 26.26A.235 and 26.26A.240, an acknowledgment of parentage that complies with RCW 26.26A.200 through 26.26A.265 and is filed with the state registrar of vital statistics is equivalent to an adjudication of parentage of the child and confers on the acknowledged parent all rights and duties of a parent.
(2) Except as otherwise provided in RCW 26.26A.235 and 26.26A.240, a denial of parentage by a presumed parent or alleged genetic parent which complies with RCW 26.26A.200 through 26.26A.265 and is filed with the state registrar of vital statistics with an acknowledgment of parentage that complies with RCW 26.26A.200 through 26.26A.265 is equivalent to an adjudication of the nonparentage of the presumed parent or alleged genetic parent and discharges the presumed parent or alleged genetic parent from all rights and duties of a parent.
Chapter 26.26B. Miscellaneous Parentage Act Provisions
26.26B.010. Mandatory use of approved forms
(1) Effective January 1, 1992, a party shall not file any pleading with the clerk of the court in an action commenced under this chapter or chapter 26.26A RCW unless on forms approved by the administrative office of the courts.
(2) The parties shall comply with requirements for submission to the court of forms as provided in RCW 26.18.220.
26.26B.020. Judgment or order determining parent and child relationship--Support judgment and orders--Residential provisions--Custody--Restraining orders--Notice of modification or termination of restraining order
(1) The judgment and order of the court determining the existence or nonexistence of the parent and child relationship shall be determinative for all purposes.
(2) If the judgment and order of the court is at variance with the child’s birth certificate, the court shall order that an amended birth certificate be issued.
(3) The judgment and order shall contain other appropriate provisions directed to the appropriate parties to the proceeding, concerning the duty of current and future support, the extent of any liability for past support furnished to the child if that issue is before the court, the furnishing of bond or other security for the payment of the judgment, or any other matter in the best interest of the child. The judgment and order may direct one parent to pay the reasonable expenses of the mother’s pregnancy and childbirth. The judgment and order may include a continuing restraining order or injunction. In issuing the order, the court shall consider the provisions of RCW 9.41.800.
(4) The judgment and order shall contain a provision that each party must file with the court and the Washington state child support registry and update as necessary the information required in the confidential information form required by RCW 26.23.050.
(5) Support judgment and orders shall be for periodic payments which may vary in amount. The court may limit the parent’s liability for the past support to the child to the proportion of the expenses already incurred as the court deems just. The court shall not limit or affect in any manner the right of nonparties including the state of Washington to seek reimbursement for support and other services previously furnished to the child.
(6) After considering all relevant factors, the court shall order either or both parents to pay an amount determined pursuant to the schedule and standards contained in chapter 26.19 RCW.
(7) On the same basis as provided in chapter 26.09 RCW, the court shall make residential provisions with regard to minor children of the parties, except that a parenting plan shall not be required unless requested by a party. If a parenting plan or residential schedule was not entered at the time the order establishing parentage was entered, a parent may move the court for entry of a parenting plan or residential schedule:
(a) By filing a motion and proposed parenting plan or residential schedule and providing notice to the other parent and other persons who have residential time with the child pursuant to a court order: PROVIDED, That at the time of filing the motion less than twenty-four months have passed since entry of the order establishing parentage and that the proposed parenting plan or residential schedule does not change the designation of the parent with whom the child spends the majority of time; or
(b) By filing a petition for modification under RCW 26.09.260 or petition to establish a parenting plan, residential schedule, or residential provisions.
(8) In any dispute between the persons claiming parentage of a child and a person or persons who have (a) commenced adoption proceedings or who have been granted an order of adoption, and (b) pursuant to a court order, or placement by the department of social and health services or by a licensed agency, have had actual custody of the child for a period of one year or more before court action is commenced by the persons claiming parentage, the court shall consider the best welfare and interests of the child, including the child’s need for situation stability, in determining the matter of custody, and the parent or person who is more fit shall have the superior right to custody.
(9) In entering an order under this chapter or chapter 26.26A RCW, the court may issue any necessary continuing restraining orders, including the restraint provisions of domestic violence protection orders or antiharassment protection orders under chapter 7.105 RCW.
(10) Restraining orders issued under this section restraining or enjoining the person from molesting or disturbing another party, from going onto the grounds of or entering the home, workplace, or school of the other party or the day care or school of any child, or prohibiting the person from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance of a location, a protected party’s person, or a protected party’s vehicle, shall prominently bear on the front page of the order the legend: VIOLATION OF THIS ORDER WITH ACTUAL NOTICE OF ITS TERMS IS A CRIMINAL OFFENSE UNDER CHAPTER 7.105 RCW AND WILL SUBJECT A VIOLATOR TO ARREST.
(11) The court shall order that any restraining order bearing a criminal offense legend, any domestic violence protection order, or any antiharassment protection order granted under this section be forwarded by the clerk of the court on or before the next judicial day to the appropriate law enforcement agency specified in the order. Upon receipt of the order, the law enforcement agency shall forthwith enter the order into any computer-based criminal intelligence information system available in this state used by law enforcement agencies to list outstanding warrants. The order is fully enforceable in any county in the state.
(12) If a restraining order issued pursuant to this section is modified or terminated, the clerk of the court shall notify the law enforcement agency specified in the order on or before the next judicial day. Upon receipt of notice that an order has been terminated, the law enforcement agency shall remove the order from any computer-based criminal intelligence system.
26.26B.030. Support orders--Compliance with RCW 26.23.050
Every court order or decree establishing a child support obligation shall be entered in compliance with RCW 26.23.050.
26.26B.040. Support orders--Time limit, exception
A court may not order payment for support provided or expenses incurred more than five years prior to the commencement of the action. Any period of time in which the responsible party has concealed himself or herself or avoided the jurisdiction of the court under this chapter or chapter 26.26A RCW shall not be included within the five-year period.
26.26B.050. Restraining order--Knowing violation--Penalty--Law enforcement immunity
(1) Whenever a restraining order is issued under this chapter or chapter 26.26A RCW, and the person to be restrained knows of the order, a violation of the provisions restricting the person from acts or threats of violence or of a provision restraining the person from going onto the grounds of or entering the residence, workplace, school, or day care of another, or prohibiting the person from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance of a location, a protected party’s person, or a protected party’s vehicle, is punishable under RCW 7.105.450.
(2) A person is deemed to have notice of a restraining order if:
(a) The person to be restrained or the person’s attorney signed the order;
(b) The order recites that the person to be restrained or the person’s attorney appeared in person before the court;
(c) The order was served upon the person to be restrained; or
(d) The peace officer gives the person oral or written evidence of the order by reading from it or handing to the person a certified copy of the original order, certified to be an accurate copy of the original by a notary public or by the clerk of the court.
(3) A peace officer shall verify the existence of a restraining order by:
(a) Obtaining information confirming the existence and terms of the order from a law enforcement agency; or
(b) Obtaining a certified copy of the order, certified to be an accurate copy of the original by a notary public or by the clerk of the court.
(4) A peace officer shall arrest and take into custody, pending release on bail, personal recognizance, or court order, a person without a warrant when the officer has probable cause to believe that:
(a) A restraining order has been issued under this chapter or chapter 26.26A RCW;
(b) The respondent or person to be restrained knows of the order; and
(c) The person to be arrested has violated the terms of the order restraining the person from acts or threats of violence or restraining the person from going onto the grounds of or entering the residence, workplace, school, or day care of another, or prohibiting the person from knowingly coming within, or knowingly remaining within, a specified distance of a location, a protected party’s person, or a protected party’s vehicle.
(5) It is a defense to prosecution under subsection (1) of this section that the court order was issued contrary to law or court rule.
(6) No peace officer may be held criminally or civilly liable for making an arrest under subsection (4) of this section if the officer acts in good faith and without malice.
26.26B.060. Costs
The court may order reasonable fees of experts and the child’s guardian ad litem, and other costs of the action, including blood or genetic test costs, to be paid by the parties in proportions and at times determined by the court. The court may order that all or a portion of a party’s reasonable attorney’s fees be paid by another party, except that an award of attorney’s fees assessed against the state or any of its agencies or representatives shall be under RCW 4.84.185.
26.26B.070. Proof of certain support and parentage establishment costs
In all actions brought under this chapter or chapter 26.26A RCW, bills for pregnancy, childbirth, and genetic testing shall:
(1) Be admissible as evidence without requiring third-party foundation testimony; and
(2) Constitute prima facie evidence of amounts incurred for such services or for testing on behalf of the child.
26.26B.080. Enforcement of judgments or orders
(1) If existence of the parent and child relationship is declared, or parentage or a duty of support has been acknowledged or adjudicated under this chapter or chapter 26.26A RCW or under prior law, the obligation of the parent may be enforced in the same or other proceedings by the other parent, the child, the state of Washington, the public authority that has furnished or may furnish the reasonable expenses of pregnancy, childbirth, education, support, or funeral, or by any other person, including a private agency, to the extent he or she has furnished or is furnishing these expenses.
(2) The court shall order support payments to be made to the Washington state support registry, or the person entitled to receive the payments under an alternate arrangement approved by the court as provided in RCW 26.23.050(2).
(3) All remedies for the enforcement of judgments apply.
26.26B.090. Modification of judgment or order--Continuing jurisdiction
(1) Except as provided in subsection (2) of this section the court has continuing jurisdiction to prospectively modify a judgment and order for future education and future support, and with respect to matters listed in *RCW 26.26.130 (3) and (5), and *RCW 26.26.150(2) upon showing a substantial change of circumstances. The procedures set forth in RCW 26.09.175 shall be used in modification proceedings under this section.
(2) A judgment or order entered under **this chapter may be modified without a showing of substantial change of circumstances upon the same grounds as RCW 26.09.170 permits support orders to be modified without a showing of a substantial change of circumstance.
(3) The court may modify a parenting plan or residential provisions adopted pursuant to *RCW 26.26.130(7) in accordance with the provisions of chapter 26.09 RCW.
(4) The court shall hear and review petitions for modifications of a parenting plan, custody order, visitation order, or other order governing the residence of a child, and conduct any proceedings concerning a relocation of the residence where the child resides a majority of the time, pursuant to chapter 26.09 RCW.
26.26B.100. Health care coverage
(1) In entering or modifying a support order under this chapter or chapter 26.26A RCW, the court shall require either or both parents to maintain or provide health care coverage for any dependent child as provided under RCW 26.09.105.
(2) This section shall not be construed to limit the authority of the court to enter or modify support orders containing provisions for payment of uninsured health expenses, health costs, or insurance premiums which are in addition to and not inconsistent with this section.
(3) A parent ordered to provide health care coverage shall provide proof of such coverage or proof that such coverage is unavailable within twenty days of the entry of the order to:
(a) The physical custodian; or
(b) The department of social and health services if the parent has been notified or ordered to make support payments to the Washington state support registry.
(4) Every order requiring a parent to provide health care coverage shall be entered in compliance with *RCW 26.23.050 and be subject to direct enforcement as provided under chapter 26.18 RCW.
26.26B.110. Relinquishment of child for adoption--Notice to other parent
If a parent relinquishes or proposes to relinquish for adoption a child, the other parent shall be given notice of the adoption proceeding and have the rights provided under the provisions of chapter 26.33 RCW.
26.26B.120. Parenting plan--Designation of parent for other state and federal purposes
Solely for the purposes of all other state and federal statutes which require a designation or determination of custody, a parenting plan shall designate the parent with whom the child is scheduled to reside a majority of the time as the custodian of the child. However, this designation shall not affect either parent’s rights and responsibilities under the parenting plan. In the absence of such a designation, the parent with whom the child is scheduled to reside the majority of the time shall be deemed to be the custodian of the child for the purposes of such federal and state statutes.
26.26B.130. Judicial proceedings for parenting and support of a child
(1) After the period for rescission of an acknowledgment of parentage provided in RCW 26.26A.235 has passed, a parent executing an acknowledgment of parentage of the child named therein may commence a judicial proceeding for:
(a) Making residential provisions or a parenting plan with regard to the minor child on the same basis as provided in chapter 26.09 RCW; or
(b) Establishing a child support obligation under chapter 26.19 RCW and maintaining health care coverage under RCW 26.09.105.
(2) Pursuant to RCW 26.09.010(3), a proceeding authorized by this section shall be titled “In re the parenting and support of….”
(3) Before the period for a challenge to the acknowledgment or denial of parentage has elapsed under RCW 26.26A.240, the petitioner must specifically allege under penalty of perjury, to the best of the petitioner’s knowledge, that: (a) No person other than a person who executed the acknowledgment of parentage is a parent of the child; (b) there is not currently pending a proceeding to adjudicate the parentage of the child or that another person is adjudicated the child’s parent; and (c) the petitioner has provided notice of the proceeding to any other persons who have claimed parentage of the child. Should the respondent or any other person appearing in the action deny the allegations, a permanent parenting plan or residential schedule may not be entered for the child without the matter being converted to a proceeding to challenge the acknowledgment of parentage under RCW 26.26A.240 and 26.26A.445. A copy of the acknowledgment of parentage or the birth certificate issued by the state in which the child was born must be filed with the petition or response. The court may convert the matter to a proceeding to challenge the acknowledgment on its own motion.
Chapter 26.27. Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction Act
Article 1. General Provisions
26.27.011. Short title
This chapter may be cited as the uniform child custody jurisdiction and enforcement act.
26.27.021. Definitions
The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter, unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
(1) “Abandoned” means left without provision for reasonable and necessary care or supervision.
(2) “Child” means an individual who has not attained eighteen years of age.
(3) “Child custody determination” means a judgment, decree, parenting plan, or other order of a court providing for the legal custody, physical custody, or visitation with respect to a child. The term includes a permanent, temporary, initial, and modification order. The term does not include an order relating to child support or other monetary obligation of an individual.
(4) “Child custody proceeding” means a proceeding in which legal custody, physical custody, a parenting plan, or visitation with respect to a child is an issue. The term includes a proceeding for dissolution, divorce, separation, neglect, abuse, dependency, guardianship, paternity, termination of parental rights, and protection from domestic violence, in which the issue may appear. The term does not include a proceeding involving juvenile delinquency, emancipation proceedings under chapter 13.64 RCW, proceedings under chapter 13.32A RCW, or enforcement under Article 3.
(5) “Commencement” means the filing of the first pleading in a proceeding.
(6) “Court” means an entity authorized under the law of a state to establish, enforce, or modify a child custody determination.
(7) “Home state” means the state in which a child lived with a parent or a person acting as a parent for at least six consecutive months immediately before the commencement of a child custody proceeding. In the case of a child less than six months of age, the term means the state in which the child lived from birth with a parent or person acting as a parent. A period of temporary absence of a child, parent, or person acting as a parent is part of the period.
(8) “Initial determination” means the first child custody determination concerning a particular child.
(9) “Issuing court” means the court that makes a child custody determination for which enforcement is sought under this chapter.
(10) “Issuing state” means the state in which a child custody determination is made.
(11) “Modification” means a child custody determination that changes, replaces, supersedes, or is otherwise made after a previous determination concerning the same child, whether or not it is made by the court that made the previous determination.
(12) “Person” means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture, government, governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality, public corporation, or any other legal or commercial entity.
(13) “Person acting as a parent” means a person, other than a parent, who:
(a) Has physical custody of the child or has had physical custody for a period of six consecutive months, including any temporary absence, within one year immediately before the commencement of a child custody proceeding; and
(b) Has been awarded legal custody by a court or claims a right to legal custody under the law of this state.
(14) “Physical custody” means the physical care and supervision of a child.
(15) “State” means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.
(16) “Tribe” means an Indian tribe or band, or Alaskan Native village, that is recognized by federal law or formally acknowledged by a state.
(17) “Warrant” means an order issued by a court authorizing law enforcement officers to take physical custody of a child.
26.27.041. Application to Indian tribes
(1) A child custody proceeding that pertains to an Indian child as defined in the federal Indian child welfare act, 25 U.S.C. Sec. 1901 et seq., is not subject to this chapter to the extent that it is governed by the federal Indian child welfare act.
(2) A court of this state shall treat a tribe as if it were a state of the United States for the purpose of applying Articles 1 and 2.
(3) A child custody determination made by a tribe under factual circumstances in substantial conformity with the jurisdictional standards of this chapter must be recognized and enforced under Article 3.
26.27.051. International application of chapter
(1) A court of this state shall treat a foreign country as if it were a state of the United States for the purpose of applying Articles 1 and 2.
(2) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (3) or (4) of this section, a child custody determination made in a foreign country under factual circumstances in substantial conformity with the jurisdictional standards of this chapter must be recognized and enforced under Article 3.
(3) A court of this state need not apply this chapter if the child custody law of a foreign country violates fundamental principles of human rights.
(4) A court of this state need not apply this chapter if the law of a foreign country holds that apostasy, or a sincerely held religious belief or practice, or homosexuality are punishable by death, and a parent or child may be at demonstrable risk of being subject to such laws. For the purposes of this subsection, “apostasy” means the abandonment or renunciation of a religious or political belief.
26.27.061. Effect of child custody determination
A child custody determination made by a court of this state that had jurisdiction under this chapter binds all persons who have been served in accordance with the laws of this state or notified in accordance with RCW 26.27.081 or who have submitted to the jurisdiction of the court, and who have been given an opportunity to be heard. As to those persons, the determination is conclusive as to all decided issues of law and fact except to the extent the determination is modified.
26.27.081. Notice to persons outside state
(1) Notice required for the exercise of jurisdiction when a person is outside this state may be given in a manner prescribed for service of process by the law of the state in which the service is made or given in a manner reasonably calculated to give actual notice, and may be made in any of the following ways:
(a) Personal delivery outside this state in the manner prescribed for service of process within this state;
(b) By any form of mail addressed to the person to be served and requesting a receipt; or
(c) As directed by the court, including publication if other means of notification are ineffective.
(2) Proof of service outside this state may be made:
(a) By affidavit of the individual who made the service;
(b) In the manner prescribed by the law of this state or the law of the state in which the service is made; or
(c) As directed by the order under which the service is made.
If service is made by mail, proof may be a receipt signed by the addressee or other evidence of delivery to the addressee.
(3) Notice is not required for the exercise of jurisdiction with respect to a person who submits to the jurisdiction of the court.
26.27.091. Appearance and limited immunity
(1) Except as provided in subsection (2) of this section, a party to a child custody proceeding, including a modification proceeding, or a petitioner or respondent in a proceeding to enforce or register a child custody determination, is not subject to personal jurisdiction in this state for another proceeding or purpose solely by reason of having participated, or of having been physically present for the purpose of participating, in the proceeding.
(2) A person who is subject to personal jurisdiction in this state on a basis other than physical presence is not immune from service of process in this state. A party present in this state who is subject to the jurisdiction of another state is not immune from service of process allowable under the laws of that state.
(3) The immunity granted by subsection (1) of this section does not extend to civil litigation based on acts unrelated to the participation in a proceeding under this chapter committed by an individual while present in this state.
26.27.101. Communication between courts
(1) A court of this state may communicate with a court in another state concerning a proceeding arising under this chapter.
(2) The court may allow the parties to participate in the communication. If the parties are not able to participate in the communication, they must be given the opportunity to present facts and legal arguments before a decision on jurisdiction is made.
(3) Communication between courts on schedules, calendars, court records, and similar matters may occur without informing the parties. A record need not be made of the communication.
(4) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (3) of this section, a record must be made of a communication under this section. The parties must be informed promptly of the communication and granted access to the record.
(5) For the purposes of this section, “record” means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.
26.27.111. Taking testimony in another state
(1) In addition to other procedures available to a party, a party to a child custody proceeding may offer testimony of witnesses who are located in another state, including testimony of the parties and the child, by deposition or other means allowable in this state for testimony taken in another state. The court on its own motion may order that the testimony of a person be taken in another state and may prescribe the manner in which and the terms upon which the testimony is taken.
(2) A court of this state may permit an individual residing in another state to be deposed or to testify by telephone, audiovisual means, or other electronic means before a designated court or at another location in that state. A court of this state shall cooperate with courts of other states in designating an appropriate location for the deposition or testimony.
(3) Documentary evidence transmitted from another state to a court of this state by technological means that do not produce an original writing may not be excluded from evidence on an objection based on the means of transmission.
26.27.121. Cooperation between courts--Preservation of records
(1) A court of this state may request the appropriate court of another state to:
(a) Hold an evidentiary hearing;
(b) Order a person to produce or give evidence pursuant to procedures of that state;
(c) Order that an evaluation be made with respect to the custody of a child involved in a pending proceeding;
(d) Forward to the court of this state a certified copy of the transcript of the record of the hearing, the evidence otherwise presented, and any evaluation prepared in compliance with the request; and
(e) Order a party to a child custody proceeding or any person having physical custody of the child to appear in the proceeding with or without the child.
(2) Upon request of a court of another state, a court of this state may hold a hearing or enter an order described in subsection (1) of this section.
(3) Travel and other necessary and reasonable expenses incurred under subsections (1) and (2) of this section may be assessed against the parties according to the law of this state.
(4) A court of this state shall preserve the pleadings, orders, decrees, records of hearings, evaluations, and other pertinent records with respect to a child custody proceeding until the child attains eighteen years of age. Upon appropriate request by a court or law enforcement official of another state, the court shall forward a certified copy of those records.
Article 2. Jurisdiction
26.27.201. Initial child custody jurisdiction
(1) Except as otherwise provided in RCW 26.27.231, a court of this state has jurisdiction to make an initial child custody determination only if:
(a) This state is the home state of the child on the date of the commencement of the proceeding, or was the home state of the child within six months before the commencement of the proceeding and the child is absent from this state but a parent or person acting as a parent continues to live in this state;
(b) A court of another state does not have jurisdiction under (a) of this subsection, or a court of the home state of the child has declined to exercise jurisdiction on the ground that this state is the more appropriate forum under RCW 26.27.261 or 26.27.271, and:
(i) The child and the child’s parents, or the child and at least one parent or a person acting as a parent, have a significant connection with this state other than mere physical presence; and
(ii) Substantial evidence is available in this state concerning the child’s care, protection, training, and personal relationships;
(c) All courts having jurisdiction under (a) of this subsection have declined to exercise jurisdiction on the ground that a court of this state is the more appropriate forum to determine the custody of the child under RCW 26.27.261 or 26.27.271; or
(d) No court of any other state would have jurisdiction under the criteria specified in (a), (b), or (c) of this subsection.
(2) Subsection (1) of this section is the exclusive jurisdictional basis for making a child custody determination by a court of this state.
(3) Physical presence of, or personal jurisdiction over, a party or a child is not necessary or sufficient to make a child custody determination.
26.27.211. Exclusive, continuing jurisdiction
(1) Except as otherwise provided in RCW 26.27.231, a court of this state that has made a child custody determination consistent with RCW 26.27.201 or 26.27.221 has exclusive, continuing jurisdiction over the determination until:
(a) A court of this state determines that neither the child, the child’s parents, and any person acting as a parent do not have a significant connection with this state and that substantial evidence is no longer available in this state concerning the child’s care, protection, training, and personal relationships; or
(b) A court of this state or a court of another state determines that the child, the child’s parents, and any person acting as a parent do not presently reside in this state.
(2) A court of this state that has made a child custody determination and does not have exclusive, continuing jurisdiction under this section may modify that determination only if it has jurisdiction to make an initial determination under RCW 26.27.201.
26.27.221. Jurisdiction to modify determination
Except as otherwise provided in RCW 26.27.231, a court of this state may not modify a child custody determination made by a court of another state unless a court of this state has jurisdiction to make an initial determination under RCW 26.27.201(1) (a) or (b) and:
(1) The court of the other state determines it no longer has exclusive, continuing jurisdiction under RCW 26.27.211 or that a court of this state would be a more convenient forum under RCW 26.27.261; or
(2) A court of this state or a court of the other state determines that the child, the child’s parents, and any person acting as a parent do not presently reside in the other state.
26.27.231. Temporary emergency jurisdiction
(1) A court of this state has temporary emergency jurisdiction if the child is present in this state and the child has been abandoned or it is necessary in an emergency to protect the child because the child, or a sibling or parent of the child, is subjected to or threatened with abuse.
(2) If there is no previous child custody determination that is entitled to be enforced under this chapter and a child custody proceeding has not been commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under RCW 26.27.201 through 26.27.221, a child custody determination made under this section remains in effect until an order is obtained from a court of a state having jurisdiction under RCW 26.27.201 through 26.27.221. If a child custody proceeding has not been or is not commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under RCW 26.27.201 through 26.27.221, a child custody determination made under this section becomes a final determination, if it so provides and this state becomes the home state of the child.
(3) If there is a previous child custody determination that is entitled to be enforced under this chapter, or a child custody proceeding has been commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under RCW 26.27.201 through 26.27.221, any order issued by a court of this state under this section must specify in the order a period that the court considers adequate to allow the person seeking an order to obtain an order from the state having jurisdiction under RCW 26.27.201 through 26.27.221. The order issued in this state remains in effect until an order is obtained from the other state within the period specified or the period expires.
(4) A court of this state that has been asked to make a child custody determination under this section, upon being informed that a child custody proceeding has been commenced in, or a child custody determination has been made by, a court of a state having jurisdiction under RCW 26.27.201 through 26.27.221, shall immediately communicate with the other court. A court of this state that is exercising jurisdiction pursuant to RCW 26.27.201 through 26.27.221, upon being informed that a child custody proceeding has been commenced in, or a child custody determination has been made by, a court of another state under a statute similar to this section shall immediately communicate with the court of that state to resolve the emergency, protect the safety of the parties and the child, and determine a period for the duration of the temporary order.
26.27.241. Notice -- Opportunity to be heard -- Joinder
(1) Before a child custody determination is made under this chapter, notice and an opportunity to be heard in accordance with the standards of RCW 26.27.081 must be given to: (a) All persons entitled to notice under the law of this state as in child custody proceedings between residents of this state; (b) any parent whose parental rights have not been previously terminated; and (c) any person having physical custody of the child.
(2) This chapter does not govern the enforceability of a child custody determination made without notice or an opportunity to be heard.
(3) The obligation to join a party and the right to intervene as a party in a child custody proceeding under this chapter are governed by the law of this state as in child custody proceedings between residents of this state.
26.27.251. Simultaneous proceedings
(1) Except as otherwise provided in RCW 26.27.231, a court of this state may not exercise its jurisdiction under this article if, at the time of the commencement of the proceeding, a proceeding concerning the custody of the child has been commenced in a court of another state having jurisdiction substantially in conformity with this chapter, unless the proceeding has been terminated or is stayed by the court of the other state because a court of this state is a more convenient forum under RCW 26.27.261.
(2) Except as otherwise provided in RCW 26.27.231, a court of this state, before hearing a child custody proceeding, shall examine the court documents and other information supplied by the parties pursuant to RCW 26.27.281. If the court determines that a child custody proceeding has been commenced in a court in another state having jurisdiction substantially in accordance with this chapter, the court of this state shall stay its proceeding and communicate with the court of the other state. If the court of the state having jurisdiction substantially in accordance with this chapter does not determine that the court of this state is a more appropriate forum, the court of this state shall dismiss the proceeding.
(3) In a proceeding to modify a child custody determination, a court of this state shall determine whether a proceeding to enforce the determination has been commenced in another state. If a proceeding to enforce a child custody determination has been commenced in another state, the court may:
(a) Stay the proceeding for modification pending the entry of an order of a court of the other state enforcing, staying, denying, or dismissing the proceeding for enforcement;
(b) Enjoin the parties from continuing with the proceeding for enforcement; or
(c) Proceed with the modification under conditions it considers appropriate.
26.27.261. Inconvenient forum
(1) A court of this state which has jurisdiction under this chapter to make a child custody determination may decline to exercise its jurisdiction at any time if it determines that it is an inconvenient forum under the circumstances and that a court of another state is a more appropriate forum. The issue of inconvenient forum may be raised upon motion of a party, the court’s own motion, or request of another court.
(2) Before determining whether it is an inconvenient forum, a court of this state shall consider whether it is appropriate for a court of another state to exercise jurisdiction. For this purpose, the court shall allow the parties to submit information and shall consider all relevant factors, including:
(a) Whether domestic violence has occurred and is likely to continue in the future and which state could best protect the parties and the child;
(b) The length of time the child has resided outside this state;
(c) The distance between the court in this state and the court in the state that would assume jurisdiction;
(d) The relative financial circumstances of the parties;
(e) Any agreement of the parties as to which state should assume jurisdiction;
(f) The nature and location of the evidence required to resolve the pending litigation, including testimony of the child;
(g) The ability of the court of each state to decide the issue expeditiously and the procedures necessary to present the evidence; and
(h) The familiarity of the court of each state with the facts and issues in the pending litigation.
(3) If a court of this state determines that it is an inconvenient forum and that a court of another state is a more appropriate forum, it shall stay the proceedings upon condition that a child custody proceeding be promptly commenced in another designated state and may impose any other condition the court considers just and proper.
(4) A court of this state may decline to exercise its jurisdiction under this chapter if a child custody determination is incidental to an action for dissolution or another proceeding while still retaining jurisdiction over the dissolution or other proceeding.
26.27.271. Jurisdiction declined by reason of conduct
(1) Except as otherwise provided in RCW 26.27.231 or by other law of this state, if a court of this state has jurisdiction under this chapter because a person seeking to invoke its jurisdiction has engaged in unjustifiable conduct, the court shall decline to exercise its jurisdiction unless:
(a) The parents and all persons acting as parents have acquiesced in the exercise of jurisdiction;
(b) A court of the state otherwise having jurisdiction under RCW 26.27.201 through 26.27.221 determines that this state is a more appropriate forum under RCW 26.27.261; or
(c) No court of any other state would have jurisdiction under the criteria specified in RCW 26.27.201 through 26.27.221.
(2) If a court of this state declines to exercise its jurisdiction pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, it may fashion an appropriate remedy to ensure the safety of the child and prevent a repetition of the unjustifiable conduct, including staying the proceeding until a child custody proceeding is commenced in a court having jurisdiction under RCW 26.27.201 through 26.27.221.
(3) If a court dismisses a petition or stays a proceeding because it declines to exercise its jurisdiction pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, it shall assess against the party seeking to invoke its jurisdiction necessary and reasonable expenses including costs, communication expenses, attorneys’ fees, investigative fees, expenses for witnesses, travel expenses, and child care during the course of the proceedings, unless the party from whom fees are sought establishes that the assessment would be clearly inappropriate. The court may not assess fees, costs, or expenses against this state unless authorized by law other than this chapter.
26.27.281. Information to be submitted to court
(1) Subject to laws providing for the confidentiality of procedures, addresses, and other identifying information, in a child custody proceeding, each party, in its first pleading or in an attached affidavit, shall give information, if reasonably ascertainable, under oath as to the child’s present address or whereabouts, the places where the child has lived during the last five years, and the names and present addresses of the persons with whom the child has lived during that period. The pleading or affidavit must state whether the party:
(a) Has participated, as a party or witness or in any other capacity, in any other proceeding concerning the custody of or visitation with the child and, if so, identify the court, the case number, and the date of the child custody determination, if any;
(b) Knows of any proceeding that could affect the current proceeding, including proceedings for enforcement and proceedings relating to domestic violence, protective orders, termination of parental rights, and adoptions and, if so, identify the court, the case number, and the nature of the proceeding; and
(c) Knows the names and addresses of any person not a party to the proceeding who has physical custody of the child or claims rights of legal custody or physical custody of, or visitation with, the child and, if so, the names and addresses of those persons.
(2) If the information required by subsection (1) of this section is not furnished, the court, upon motion of a party or its own motion, may stay the proceeding until the information is furnished.
(3) If the declaration as to any of the items described in subsection (1)(a) through (c) of this section is in the affirmative, the declarant shall give additional information under oath as required by the court. The court may examine the parties under oath as to details of the information furnished and other matters pertinent to the court’s jurisdiction and the disposition of the case.
(4) Each party has a continuing duty to inform the court of any proceeding in this or any other state that could affect the current proceeding.
(5) If a party alleges in an affidavit or a pleading under oath that the health, safety, or liberty of a party or child would be jeopardized by disclosure of identifying information, the information must be sealed and may not be disclosed to the other party or the public unless the court orders the disclosure to be made after a hearing in which the court takes into consideration the health, safety, or liberty of the party or child and determines that the disclosure is in the interest of justice.
26.27.291. Appearance of parties and child
(1) In a child custody proceeding in this state, the court may order a party to the proceeding who is in this state to appear before the court in person with or without the child. The court may order any person who is in this state and who has physical custody or control of the child to appear in person with the child.
(2) If a party to a child custody proceeding whose presence is desired by the court is outside this state, the court may order that a notice given pursuant to RCW 26.27.081 include a statement directing the party to appear in person with or without the child and informing the party that failure to appear may result in a decision adverse to the party.
(3) The court may enter any orders necessary to ensure the safety of the child and of any person ordered to appear under this section.
(4) If a party to a child custody proceeding who is outside this state is directed to appear under subsection (2) of this section or desires to appear personally before the court with or without the child, the court may require another party to pay reasonable and necessary travel and other expenses of the party so appearing and of the child.
Article 3. Enforcement
26.27.401. Definitions
The definitions in this section apply throughout this article, unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
(1) “Petitioner” means a person who seeks enforcement of an order for return of a child under the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction or enforcement of a child custody determination.
(2) “Respondent” means a person against whom a proceeding has been commenced for enforcement of an order for return of a child under the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction or enforcement of a child custody determination.
26.27.411. Enforcement under Hague Convention
Under this article a court of this state may enforce an order for the return of the child made under the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction as if it were a child custody determination.
26.27.421. Duty to enforce
(1) A court of this state shall recognize and enforce a child custody determination of a court of another state if the latter court exercised jurisdiction in substantial conformity with this chapter or the determination was made under factual circumstances meeting the jurisdictional standards of this chapter and the determination has not been modified in accordance with this chapter.
(2) A court of this state may use any remedy available under other law of this state including writs of habeas corpus under chapter 7.36 RCW and enforcement proceedings under Title 26 RCW to enforce a child custody determination made by a court of another state. The remedies provided in this article are cumulative and do not affect the availability of other remedies to enforce a child custody determination.
26.27.431. Temporary visitation
(1) A court of this state that does not have jurisdiction to modify a child custody determination may issue a temporary order enforcing:
(a) A visitation schedule made by a court of another state; or
(b) The visitation provisions of a child custody determination of another state that does not provide for a specific visitation schedule.
(2) If a court of this state makes an order under subsection (1)(b) of this section, it shall specify in the order a period that it considers adequate to allow the petitioner to obtain an order from a court having jurisdiction under the criteria specified in Article 2. The order remains in effect until an order is obtained from the other court or the period expires.
26.27.441. Registration of child custody determination
(1) A child custody determination issued by a court of another state may be registered in this state, with or without a simultaneous request for enforcement, by sending to the appropriate court in this state:
(a) A letter or other document requesting registration;
(b) Two copies, including one certified copy, of the determination sought to be registered, and a statement under penalty of perjury that to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person seeking registration, the determination has not been modified; and
(c) Except as otherwise provided in RCW 26.27.281, the name and address of the person seeking registration and any parent or person acting as a parent who has been awarded custody or visitation in the child custody determination sought to be registered.
(2) On receipt of the documents required by subsection (1) of this section, the registering court shall:
(a) Cause the determination to be filed as a foreign judgment, together with one copy of any accompanying documents and information, regardless of their form; and
(b) Serve notice upon the persons named pursuant to subsection (1)(c) of this section and provide them with an opportunity to contest the registration in accordance with this section.
(3) The notice required by subsection (2)(b) of this section must state that:
(a) A registered determination is enforceable as of the date of the registration in the same manner as a determination issued by a court of this state;
(b) A hearing to contest the validity of the registered determination must be requested within twenty days after service of notice; and
(c) Failure to contest the registration will result in confirmation of the child custody determination and preclude further contest of that determination with respect to any matter that could have been asserted.
(4) A person seeking to contest the validity of a registered determination must request a hearing within twenty days after service of the notice. At that hearing, the court shall confirm the registered determination unless the person contesting registration establishes that:
(a) The issuing court did not have jurisdiction under Article 2;
(b) The child custody determination sought to be registered has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court having jurisdiction to do so under Article 2; or
(c) The person contesting registration was entitled to notice, but notice was not given in accordance with the standards of RCW 26.27.081, in the proceedings before the court that issued the determination for which registration is sought.
(5) If a timely request for a hearing to contest the validity of the registration is not made, the registration is confirmed as a matter of law and the person requesting registration and all persons served must be notified of the confirmation.
(6) Confirmation of a registered determination, whether by operation of law or after notice and hearing, precludes further contest of the determination with respect to any matter that could have been asserted at the time of registration.
26.27.451. Enforcement of registered determination
(1) A court of this state may grant any relief normally available under the law of this state to enforce a registered child custody determination made by a court of another state.
(2) A court of this state shall recognize and enforce, but may not modify, except in accordance with Article 2, a registered child custody determination of a court of another state.
26.27.461. Simultaneous proceedings
If a proceeding for enforcement under this article is commenced in a court of this state and the court determines that a proceeding to modify the determination is pending in a court of another state having jurisdiction to modify the determination under Article 2, the enforcing court shall immediately communicate with the modifying court. The proceeding for enforcement continues unless the enforcing court, after consultation with the modifying court, stays or dismisses the proceeding.
26.27.471. Expedited enforcement of child custody determination
(1) A petition under this article must be verified. Certified copies of all orders sought to be enforced and of any order confirming registration must be attached to the petition. A copy of a certified copy of an order may be attached instead of the original.
(2) A petition for enforcement of a child custody determination must state:
(a) Whether the court that issued the determination identified the jurisdictional basis it relied upon in exercising jurisdiction and, if so, what the basis was;
(b) Whether the determination for which enforcement is sought has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court whose decision must be enforced under this chapter and, if so, identify the court, the case number, and the nature of the proceeding;
(c) Whether any proceeding has been commenced that could affect the current proceeding, including proceedings relating to domestic violence, protective orders, termination of parental rights, and adoptions and, if so, identify the court, the case number, and the nature of the proceeding;
(d) The present physical address of the child and the respondent, if known;
(e) Whether relief in addition to the immediate physical custody of the child and attorneys’ fees is sought, including a request for assistance from law enforcement officials and, if so, the relief sought; and
(f) If the child custody determination has been registered and confirmed under RCW 26.27.441, the date and place of registration.
(3) Upon the filing of a petition, the court shall issue an order directing the respondent to appear in person with or without the child at a hearing and may enter any order necessary to ensure the safety of the parties and the child. The hearing must be held on the next judicial day after service of the order unless that date is impossible. In that event, the court shall hold the hearing on the first judicial day possible. The court may extend the date of hearing at the request of the petitioner.
(4) An order issued under subsection (3) of this section must state the time and place of the hearing and advise the respondent that at the hearing the court will order that the petitioner may take immediate physical custody of the child and the payment of fees, costs, and expenses under RCW 26.27.511, and may schedule a hearing to determine whether further relief is appropriate, unless the respondent appears and establishes that:
(a) The child custody determination has not been registered and confirmed under RCW 26.27.441 and that:
(i) The issuing court did not have jurisdiction under Article 2;
(ii) The child custody determination for which enforcement is sought has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court having jurisdiction to do so under Article 2;
(iii) The respondent was entitled to notice, but notice was not given in accordance with the standards of RCW 26.27.081, in the proceedings before the court that issued the order for which enforcement is sought; or
(b) The child custody determination for which enforcement is sought was registered and confirmed under RCW 26.27.431, but has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court of a state having jurisdiction to do so under Article 2.
26.27.481. Service of petition and order
Except as otherwise provided in RCW 26.27.501, the petition and order must be served, by any method authorized by the law of this state, upon the respondent and any person who has physical custody of the child.
26.27.491. Hearing and order
(1) Unless the court issues a temporary emergency order pursuant to RCW 26.27.231, upon a finding that a petitioner is entitled to immediate physical custody of the child, the court shall order that the petitioner may take immediate physical custody of the child unless the respondent establishes that:
(a) The child custody determination has not been registered and confirmed under RCW 26.27.441 and that:
(i) The issuing court did not have jurisdiction under Article 2;
(ii) The child custody determination for which enforcement is sought has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court of a state having jurisdiction to do so under Article 2; or
(iii) The respondent was entitled to notice, but notice was not given in accordance with the standards of RCW 26.27.081, in the proceedings before the court that issued the order for which enforcement is sought; or
(b) The child custody determination for which enforcement is sought was registered and confirmed under RCW 26.27.441 but has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court of a state having jurisdiction to do so under Article 2.
(2) The court shall award the fees, costs, and expenses authorized under RCW 26.27.511 and may grant additional relief, including a request for the assistance of law enforcement officials, and set a further hearing to determine whether additional relief is appropriate.
(3) If a party called to testify refuses to answer on the ground that the testimony may be self-incriminating, the court may draw an adverse inference from the refusal.
(4) A privilege against disclosure of communications between spouses and a defense of immunity based on the relationship of husband and wife or parent and child may not be invoked in a proceeding under this article.
26.27.501. Authorization to take physical custody of child
An order under this chapter directing law enforcement to obtain physical custody of the child from the other parent or a third party holding the child may only be sought pursuant to a writ of habeas corpus under chapter 7.36 RCW.
26.27.511. Costs, fees, and expenses
(1) The court shall award the prevailing party, including a state, necessary and reasonable expenses incurred by or on behalf of the party, including costs, communication expenses, attorneys’ fees, investigative fees, expenses for witnesses, travel expenses, and child care during the course of the proceedings, unless the party from whom fees or expenses are sought establishes that the award would be clearly inappropriate.
(2) The court may not assess fees, costs, or expenses against a state unless authorized by law other than this chapter.
26.27.521. Recognition and enforcement
A court of this state shall accord full faith and credit to an order issued by another state and consistent with this chapter that enforces a child custody determination by a court of another state unless the order has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court having jurisdiction to do so under Article 2.
26.27.531. Appeals
An appeal may be taken from a final order in a proceeding under this article in accordance with expedited appellate procedures in other civil cases relating to minor children. Unless the court enters a temporary emergency order under RCW 26.27.231, the enforcing court may not stay an order enforcing a child custody determination pending appeal.
26.27.541. Role of prosecutor or attorney general
(1) In a case arising under this chapter or involving the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction, the prosecutor or attorney general may take any lawful action, including resorting to a proceeding under this article or any other available civil proceeding to locate a child, obtain the return of a child, or enforce a child custody determination if there is:
(a) An existing child custody determination;
(b) A request to do so from a court in a pending child custody proceeding;
(c) A reasonable belief that a criminal statute has been violated; or
(d) A reasonable belief that the child has been wrongfully removed or retained in violation of the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction.
(2) A prosecutor or attorney general acting under this section acts on behalf of the court and may not represent any party.
26.27.551. Role of law enforcement
At the request of a prosecutor or attorney general acting under RCW 26.27.541, a law enforcement officer may take any lawful action reasonably necessary to locate a child or a party and assist a prosecutor or attorney general with responsibilities under RCW 26.27.541.
26.27.561. Costs and expenses
If the respondent is not the prevailing party, the court may assess against the respondent all direct expenses and costs incurred by the prosecutor or attorney general and law enforcement officers under RCW 26.27.541 or 26.27.551.
Chapter 26.51. Abusive Litigation--Domestic Violence
26.51.010. Findings--Intent
The legislature recognizes that individuals who abuse their intimate partners often misuse court proceedings in order to control, harass, intimidate, coerce, and/or impoverish the abused partner. Court proceedings can provide a means for an abuser to exert and reestablish power and control over a domestic violence survivor long after a relationship has ended. The legal system unwittingly becomes another avenue that abusers exploit to cause psychological, emotional, and financial devastation. This misuse of the court system by abusers has been referred to as legal bullying, stalking through the courts, paper abuse, and similar terms. The legislature finds that the term “abusive litigation” is the most common term and that it accurately describes this problem. Abusive litigation against domestic violence survivors arises in a variety of contexts. Family law cases such as dissolutions, legal separations, parenting plan actions or modifications, and protection order proceedings are particularly common forums for abusive litigation. It is also not uncommon for abusers to file civil lawsuits against survivors, such as defamation, tort, or breach of contract claims. Even if a lawsuit is meritless, forcing a survivor to spend time, money, and emotional resources responding to the action provides a means for the abuser to assert power and control over the survivor.The legislature finds that courts have considerable authority to respond to abusive litigation tactics, while upholding litigants’ constitutional rights to access to the courts. Because courts have inherent authority to control the conduct of litigants, they have considerable discretion to fashion creative remedies in order to curb abusive litigation. The legislature intends to provide the courts with an additional tool to curb abusive litigation and to mitigate the harms abusive litigation perpetuates.
26.51.020. Definitions
The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
(1) “Abusive litigation” means litigation where the following apply:
(a)(i) The opposing parties have a current or former intimate partner relationship;
(ii) The party who is filing, initiating, advancing, or continuing the litigation has been found by a court to have committed domestic violence against the other party pursuant to: (A) An order entered under chapter 7.105 RCW or former chapter 26.50 RCW; (B) a parenting plan with restrictions based on RCW 26.09.191(2)(a)(iii); or (C) a restraining order entered under chapter 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW, provided that the issuing court made a specific finding that the restraining order was necessary due to domestic violence; and
(iii) The litigation is being initiated, advanced, or continued primarily for the purpose of harassing, intimidating, or maintaining contact with the other party; and
(b) At least one of the following factors apply:
(i) Claims, allegations, and other legal contentions made in the litigation are not warranted by existing law or by a reasonable argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, or the establishment of new law;
(ii) Allegations and other factual contentions made in the litigation are without the existence of evidentiary support; or
(iii) An issue or issues that are the basis of the litigation have previously been filed in one or more other courts or jurisdictions and the actions have been litigated and disposed of unfavorably to the party filing, initiating, advancing, or continuing the litigation.
(2) “Intimate partner” is defined in RCW 7.105.010.
(3) “Litigation” means any kind of legal action or proceeding including, but not limited to: (a) Filing a summons, complaint, demand, or petition; (b) serving a summons, complaint, demand, or petition, regardless of whether it has been filed; (c) filing a motion, notice of court date, note for motion docket, or order to appear; (d) serving a motion, notice of court date, note for motion docket, or order to appear, regardless of whether it has been filed or scheduled; (e) filing a subpoena, subpoena duces tecum, request for interrogatories, request for production, notice of deposition, or other discovery request; or (f) serving a subpoena, subpoena duces tecum, request for interrogatories, request for production, notice of deposition, or other discovery request.
(4) “Perpetrator of abusive litigation” means a person who files, initiates, advances, or continues litigation in violation of an order restricting abusive litigation.
26.51.030. Order restricting abusive litigation--Who may request, when--Instructions, brochures, and forms--Fees
(1) A party to a case may request from the court an order restricting abusive litigation if the parties are current or former intimate partners and one party has been found by the court to have committed domestic violence against the other party:
(a) In any answer or response to the litigation being filed, initiated, advanced, or continued;
(b) By motion made at any time during any open or ongoing case; or
(c) By separate motion made under this chapter, within five years of the entry of an order for protection even if the order has since expired.
(2) Any court of competent jurisdiction may, on its own motion, determine that a hearing pursuant to RCW 26.51.040 is necessary to determine if a party is engaging in abusive litigation.
(3) The administrative office of the courts shall update the instructions, brochures, standard petition, and order for protection forms, and create new forms for the motion for order restricting abusive litigation and order restricting abusive litigation, and update the court staff handbook when changes in the law make an update necessary.
(4) No filing fee may be charged to the unrestricted party for proceedings under this section regardless of whether it is filed under this chapter or another action in this title. Forms and instructional brochures shall be provided free of charge.
(5) The provisions of this section are nonexclusive and do not affect any other remedy available.
26.51.040. Hearing--Procedure
(1) If a party asserts that they are being subjected to abusive litigation, the court shall attempt to verify that the parties have or previously had an intimate partner relationship and that the party raising the claim of abusive litigation has been found to be a victim of domestic violence by the other party. If the court verifies that both elements are true, or is unable to verify that they are not true, the court shall set a hearing to determine whether the litigation meets the definition of abusive litigation.
(2) At the time set for the hearing on the alleged abusive civil action, the court shall hear all relevant testimony and may require any affidavits, documentary evidence, or other records the court deems necessary.
26.51.050. Evidence creating a rebuttable presumption that the litigation is primarily for the purpose of harassing, intimidating, or maintaining contact with the other party
At the hearing conducted pursuant to RCW 26.51.040, evidence of any of the following creates a rebuttable presumption that litigation is being initiated, advanced, or continued primarily for the purpose of harassing, intimidating, or maintaining contact with the other party:
(1) The same or substantially similar issues between the same or substantially similar parties have been litigated within the past five years in the same court or any other court of competent jurisdiction; or
(2) The same or substantially similar issues between the same or substantially similar parties have been raised, pled, or alleged in the past five years and were dismissed on the merits or with prejudice; or
(3) Within the last ten years, the party allegedly engaging in abusive litigation has been sanctioned under superior court civil rule 11 or a similar rule or law in another jurisdiction for filing one or more cases, petitions, motions, or other filings, that were found to have been frivolous, vexatious, intransigent, or brought in bad faith involving the same opposing party; or(4) A court of record in another judicial district has determined that the party allegedly engaging in abusive litigation has previously engaged in abusive litigation or similar conduct and has been subject to a court order imposing prefiling restrictions.
26.51.060. Burden of proof--Dismissal or denial of pending abusive litigation--Entry of order restricting abusive litigation
(1) If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that a party is engaging in abusive litigation, and that any or all of the motions or actions pending before the court are abusive litigation, the litigation shall be dismissed, denied, stricken, or resolved by other disposition with prejudice.
(2) In addition to dismissal or denial of any pending abusive litigation within the jurisdiction of the court, the court shall enter an “order restricting abusive litigation.” The order shall:
(a) Impose all costs of any abusive civil action pending in the court at the time of the court’s finding pursuant to subsection (1) of this section against the party advancing the abusive litigation;
(b) Award the other party reasonable attorneys’ fees and costs of responding to the abusive litigation including the cost of seeking the order restricting abusive litigation; and
(c) Identify the party protected by the order and impose prefiling restrictions upon the party found to have engaged in abusive litigation for a period of not less than forty-eight months nor more than seventy-two months.
(3) If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the litigation does not constitute abusive litigation, the court shall enter written findings and the litigation shall proceed. Nothing in this section or chapter shall be construed as limiting the court’s inherent authority to control the proceedings and litigants before it.
(4) The provisions of this section are nonexclusive and do not affect any other remedy available to the person who is protected by the order restricting abusive litigation or to the court.
26.51.070. Filing of new case or motion by person subject to an order restricting abusive litigation--Requirements--Procedures
(1) Except as provided in this section, a person who is subject to an order restricting abusive litigation is prohibited from filing, initiating, advancing, or continuing the litigation against the protected party for the period of time the filing restrictions are in effect.
(2) Notwithstanding subsection (1) of this section and consistent with the state Constitution, a person who is subject to an order restricting abusive litigation may seek permission to file a new case or a motion in an existing case using the procedure set out in subsection (3) of this section.
(3)(a) A person who is subject to an order restricting litigation against whom prefiling restrictions have been imposed pursuant to this chapter who wishes to initiate a new case or file a motion in an existing case during the time the person is under filing restrictions must first appear before the judicial officer who imposed the prefiling restrictions to make application for permission to institute the civil action.
(b)(i) The judicial officer may examine witnesses, court records, and any other available evidence to determine if the proposed litigation is abusive litigation or if there are reasonable and legitimate grounds upon which the litigation is based.
(ii) If the judicial officer determines the proposed litigation is abusive litigation, based on reviewing the records as well as any evidence from the person who is subject to the order, then it is not necessary for the person protected by the order to appear or participate in any way. If the judicial officer is unable to determine whether the proposed litigation is abusive without hearing from the person protected by the order, then the court shall issue an order scheduling a hearing, and notifying the protected party of the party’s right to appear and/or participate in the hearing. The order should specify whether the protected party is expected to submit a written response. When possible, the protected party should be permitted to appear telephonically and provided instructions for how to appear telephonically.
(c)(i) If the judicial officer believes the litigation that the party who is subject to the prefiling order is making application to file will constitute abusive litigation, the application shall be denied, dismissed, or otherwise disposed with prejudice.
(ii) If the judicial officer reasonably believes that the litigation the party who is subject to the prefiling order is making application to file will not be abusive litigation, the judicial officer may grant the application and issue an order permitting the filing of the case, motion, or pleading. The order shall be attached to the front of the pleading to be filed with the clerk. The party who is protected by the order shall be served with a copy of the order at the same time as the underlying pleading.
(d) The findings of the judicial officer shall be reduced to writing and made a part of the record in the matter. If the party who is subject to the order disputes the finding of the judge, the party may seek review of the decision as provided by the applicable court rules.
(4) If the application for the filing of a pleading is granted pursuant to this section, the period of time commencing with the filing of the application requesting permission to file the action and ending with the issuance of an order permitting filing of the action shall not be computed as a part of any applicable period of limitations within which the matter must be instituted.
(5) If, after a party who is subject to prefiling restrictions has made application and been granted permission to file or advance a case pursuant to this section, any judicial officer hearing or presiding over the case, or any part thereof, determines that the person is attempting to add parties, amend the complaint, or is otherwise attempting to alter the parties and issues involved in the litigation in a manner that the judicial officer reasonably believes would constitute abusive litigation, the judicial officer shall stay the proceedings and refer the case back to the judicial officer who granted the application to file, for further disposition.
(6)(a) If a party who is protected by an order restricting abusive litigation is served with a pleading filed by the person who is subject to the order, and the pleading does not have an attached order allowing the pleading, the protected party may respond to the case by filing a copy of the order restricting abusive litigation.
(b) If it is brought to the attention of the court that a person against whom prefiling restrictions have been imposed has filed a new case or is continuing an existing case without having been granted permission pursuant to this section, the court shall dismiss, deny, or otherwise dispose of the matter. This action may be taken by the court on the court’s own motion or initiative. The court may take whatever action against the perpetrator of abusive litigation deemed necessary and appropriate for a violation of the order restricting abusive litigation.
(c) If a party who is protected by an order restricting abusive litigation is served with a pleading filed by the person who is subject to the order, and the pleading does not have an attached order allowing the pleading, the protected party is under no obligation or duty to respond to the summons, complaint, petition, motion, to answer interrogatories, to appear for depositions, or any other responsive action required by rule or statute in a civil action.(7) If the judicial officer who imposed the prefiling restrictions is no longer serving in the same capacity in the same judicial district where the restrictions were placed, or is otherwise unavailable for any reason, any other judicial officer in that judicial district may perform the review required and permitted by this section.
26.51.900. Construction
This act shall be construed liberally so as to effectuate the goal of protecting survivors of domestic violence from abusive litigation.
26.51.901. Effective date
This act takes effect January 1, 2021.
Chapter 26.52. Foreign Protection Order Full Faith and Credit Act
26.52.020. Foreign protection orders--Validity
A foreign protection order is valid if the issuing court had jurisdiction over the parties and matter under the law of the state, territory, possession, tribe, or United States military tribunal. There is a presumption in favor of validity where an order appears authentic on its face.
A person under restraint must be given reasonable notice and the opportunity to be heard before the order of the foreign state, territory, possession, tribe, or United States military tribunal was issued, provided, in the case of ex parte orders, notice and opportunity to be heard was given as soon as possible after the order was issued, consistent with due process.
26.52.030. Foreign protection orders--Filing--Assistance
(1) A person entitled to protection who has a valid foreign protection order may file that order by presenting a certified, authenticated, or exemplified copy of the foreign protection order to a clerk of the court of a Washington court in which the person entitled to protection resides or to a clerk of the court of a Washington court where the person entitled to protection believes enforcement may be necessary. Any out-of-state department, agency, or court responsible for maintaining protection order records, may by facsimile or electronic transmission send a reproduction of the foreign protection order to the clerk of the court of Washington as long as it contains a facsimile or electronic signature by any person authorized to make such transmission.
(2) Filing of a foreign protection order with a court and entry of the foreign protection order into any computer-based criminal intelligence information system available in this state used by law enforcement agencies to list outstanding warrants are not prerequisites for enforcement of the foreign protection order.
(3) The court shall accept the filing of a foreign protection order without a fee or cost.
(4) The clerk of the court shall provide information to a person entitled to protection of the availability of domestic violence, sexual abuse, and other services to victims in the community where the court is located and in the state.
(5) The clerk of the court shall assist the person entitled to protection in completing an information form that must include, but need not be limited to, the following:
(a) The name of the person entitled to protection and any other protected parties;
(b) The name and address of the person who is subject to the restraint provisions of the foreign protection order;
(c) The date the foreign protection order was entered;
(d) The date the foreign protection order expires;
(e) The relief granted under ………. (specify the relief awarded and citations thereto, and designate which of the violations are arrestable offenses);
(f) The judicial district and contact information for court administration for the court in which the foreign protection order was entered;
(g) The social security number, date of birth, and description of the person subject to the restraint provisions of the foreign protection order;
(h) Whether the person who is subject to the restraint provisions of the foreign protection order is believed to be armed and dangerous;
(i) Whether the person who is subject to the restraint provisions of the foreign protection order was served with the order, and if so, the method used to serve the order;
(j) The type and location of any other legal proceedings between the person who is subject to the restraint provisions and the person entitled to protection.
An inability to answer any of the above questions does not preclude the filing or enforcement of a foreign protection order.
(6) The clerk of the court shall provide the person entitled to protection with a copy bearing proof of filing with the court.
(7) Any assistance provided by the clerk under this section does not constitute the practice of law. The clerk is not liable for any incomplete or incorrect information that he or she is provided.
26.52.040. Filed foreign protection orders--Transmittal to law enforcement agency--Entry into law enforcement information system
(1) The clerk of the court shall forward a copy of a foreign protection order that is filed under this chapter on or before the next judicial day to the county sheriff along with the completed information form. The clerk may forward the foreign protection order to the county sheriff by facsimile or electronic transmission.
Upon receipt of a filed foreign protection order, the county sheriff shall immediately enter the foreign protection order into any computer-based criminal intelligence information system available in this state used by law enforcement agencies to list outstanding warrants. The foreign protection order must remain in the computer for the period stated in the order. The county sheriff shall only expunge from the computer-based criminal intelligence information system foreign protection orders that are expired, vacated, or superseded. Entry into the law enforcement information system constitutes notice to all law enforcement agencies of the existence of the foreign protection order. The foreign protection order is fully enforceable in any county in the state.
(2) The information entered into the computer-based criminal intelligence information system must include, if available, notice to law enforcement whether the foreign protection order was served and the method of service.
26.52.080. Child custody disputes
(1) Any disputes regarding provisions in foreign protection orders dealing with custody of children, residential placement of children, or visitation with children shall be resolved judicially. The proper venue and jurisdiction for such judicial proceedings shall be determined in accordance with chapter 26.27 RCW and in accordance with the parental kidnapping prevention act, 28 U.S.C. 1738A.
(2) A peace officer shall not remove a child from his or her current placement unless:
(a) A writ of habeas corpus to produce the child has been issued by a superior court of this state; or
(b) There is probable cause to believe that the child is abused or neglected and the child would be injured or could not be taken into custody if it were necessary to first obtain a court order pursuant to RCW 13.34.050.
Title 36. Counties
Chapter 36.18. Fees of County Officers
36.18.020. Clerk's fees, surcharges
(1) Revenue collected under this section is subject to division with the state under RCW 36.18.025 and with the county or regional law library fund under RCW 27.24.070, except as provided in subsection (5) of this section.
(2) Clerks of superior courts shall collect the following fees for their official services:
(a) In addition to any other fee required by law, the party filing the first or initial document in any civil action, including, but not limited to an action for restitution, adoption, or change of name, and any party filing a counterclaim, cross-claim, or third-party claim in any such civil action, shall pay, at the time the document is filed, a fee of $200 except, in an unlawful detainer action under chapter 59.18 or 59.20 RCW for which the plaintiff shall pay a case initiating filing fee of $45, or in proceedings filed under RCW 28A.225.030 alleging a violation of the compulsory attendance laws where the petitioner shall not pay a filing fee. The $45 filing fee under this subsection for an unlawful detainer action shall not include an order to show cause or any other order or judgment except a default order or default judgment in an unlawful detainer action.
(b) Any party, except a defendant in a criminal case, filing the first or initial document on an appeal from a court of limited jurisdiction or any party on any civil appeal, shall pay, when the document is filed, a fee of $200.
(c) For filing of a petition for judicial review as required under RCW 34.05.514 a filing fee of $200.
(d) For filing of a petition for an antiharassment protection order under RCW 7.105.100 a filing fee of $53.
(e) For filing the notice of debt due for the compensation of a crime victim under RCW 7.68.120(2)(a) a fee of $200.
(f) In probate proceedings, the party instituting such proceedings, shall pay at the time of filing the first document therein, a fee of $200.
(g) For filing any petition to contest a will admitted to probate or a petition to admit a will which has been rejected, or a petition objecting to a written agreement or memorandum as provided in RCW 11.96A.220, there shall be paid a fee of $200.
(h) Upon conviction or plea of guilty, upon failure to prosecute an appeal from a court of limited jurisdiction as provided by law, or upon affirmance of a conviction by a court of limited jurisdiction, an adult defendant in a criminal case shall be liable for a fee of two hundred dollars, except this fee shall not be imposed on a defendant who is indigent as defined in RCW 10.01.160(3). Upon motion by the defendant, the court may waive or reduce any fee previously imposed under this subsection if the court finds that the defendant is indigent as defined in RCW 10.01.160(3).
(i) With the exception of demands for jury hereafter made and garnishments hereafter issued, civil actions and probate proceedings filed prior to midnight, July 1, 1972, shall be completed and governed by the fee schedule in effect as of January 1, 1972. However, no fee shall be assessed if an order of dismissal on the clerk’s record be filed as provided by rule of the supreme court.
(3) No fee shall be collected when a petition for relinquishment of parental rights is filed pursuant to RCW 26.33.080 or for forms and instructional brochures provided under RCW 7.105.115.
(4) No fee shall be collected when an abstract of judgment is filed by the county clerk of another county for the purposes of collection of legal financial obligations.
(5)(a) In addition to the fees required to be collected under this section, clerks of the superior courts must collect surcharges as provided in this subsection (5) of which 75 percent must be remitted to the state treasurer for deposit in the judicial stabilization trust account and 25 percent must be retained by the county.
(b) On filing fees required to be collected under subsection (2)(b) of this section, a surcharge of $30 must be collected.
(c) On all filing fees required to be collected under this section, except for fees required under subsection (2)(b), (d), and (h) of this section, a surcharge of $40 must be collected.
Title 46. Motor Vehicles
Chapter 46.61. Rules of the Road
46.61.502. Driving under the influence
(1) A person is guilty of driving while under the influence of intoxicating liquor, cannabis, or any drug if the person drives a vehicle within this state:
(a) And the person has, within two hours after driving, an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or higher as shown by analysis of the person’s breath or blood made under RCW 46.61.506; or
(b) The person has, within two hours after driving, a THC concentration of 5.00 or higher as shown by analysis of the person’s blood made under RCW 46.61.506; or
(c) While the person is under the influence of or affected by intoxicating liquor, cannabis, or any drug; or
(d) While the person is under the combined influence of or affected by intoxicating liquor, cannabis, and any drug.
(2) The fact that a person charged with a violation of this section is or has been entitled to use a drug under the laws of this state shall not constitute a defense against a charge of violating this section.
(3)(a) It is an affirmative defense to a violation of subsection (1)(a) of this section, which the defendant must prove by a preponderance of the evidence, that the defendant consumed a sufficient quantity of alcohol after the time of driving and before the administration of an analysis of the person’s breath or blood to cause the defendant’s alcohol concentration to be 0.08 or more within two hours after driving. The court shall not admit evidence of this defense unless the defendant notifies the prosecution prior to the omnibus or pretrial hearing in the case of the defendant’s intent to assert the affirmative defense.
(b) It is an affirmative defense to a violation of subsection (1)(b) of this section, which the defendant must prove by a preponderance of the evidence, that the defendant consumed a sufficient quantity of cannabis after the time of driving and before the administration of an analysis of the person’s blood to cause the defendant’s THC concentration to be 5.00 or more within two hours after driving. The court shall not admit evidence of this defense unless the defendant notifies the prosecution prior to the omnibus or pretrial hearing in the case of the defendant’s intent to assert the affirmative defense.
(4)(a) Analyses of blood or breath samples obtained more than two hours after the alleged driving may be used as evidence that within two hours of the alleged driving, a person had an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more in violation of subsection (1)(a) of this section, and in any case in which the analysis shows an alcohol concentration above 0.00 may be used as evidence that a person was under the influence of or affected by intoxicating liquor or any drug in violation of subsection (1)(c) or (d) of this section.
(b) Analyses of blood samples obtained more than two hours after the alleged driving may be used as evidence that within two hours of the alleged driving, a person had a THC concentration of 5.00 or more in violation of subsection (1)(b) of this section, and in any case in which the analysis shows a THC concentration above 0.00 may be used as evidence that a person was under the influence of or affected by cannabis in violation of subsection (1)(c) or (d) of this section.
(5) Except as provided in subsection (6) of this section, a violation of this section is a gross misdemeanor.
(6) It is a class B felony punishable under chapter 9.94A RCW, or chapter 13.40 RCW if the person is a juvenile, if:
(a) The person has three or more prior offenses within ten years as defined in RCW 46.61.5055; or
(b) The person has ever previously been convicted of:
(i) Vehicular homicide while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug, RCW 46.61.520(1)(a);
(ii) Vehicular assault while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug, RCW 46.61.522(1)(b);
(iii) An out-of-state offense comparable to the offense specified in (b)(i) or (ii) of this subsection; or
(iv) A violation of this subsection (6) or RCW 46.61.504(6).
46.61.504. Physical control of vehicle while under the influence
(1) A person is guilty of being in actual physical control of a motor vehicle while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug if the person has actual physical control of a vehicle within this state:
(a) And the person has, within two hours after being in actual physical control of the vehicle, an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or higher as shown by analysis of the person’s breath or blood made under RCW 46.61.506; or
(b) The person has, within two hours after being in actual physical control of a vehicle, a THC concentration of 5.00 or higher as shown by analysis of the person’s blood made under RCW 46.61.506; or
(c) While the person is under the influence of or affected by intoxicating liquor or any drug; or
(d) While the person is under the combined influence of or affected by intoxicating liquor and any drug.
(2) The fact that a person charged with a violation of this section is or has been entitled to use a drug under the laws of this state does not constitute a defense against any charge of violating this section. No person may be convicted under this section and it is an affirmative defense to any action pursuant to RCW 46.20.308 to suspend, revoke, or deny the privilege to drive if, prior to being pursued by a law enforcement officer, the person has moved the vehicle safely off the roadway.
(3)(a) It is an affirmative defense to a violation of subsection (1)(a) of this section which the defendant must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant consumed a sufficient quantity of alcohol after the time of being in actual physical control of the vehicle and before the administration of an analysis of the person’s breath or blood to cause the defendant’s alcohol concentration to be 0.08 or more within two hours after being in such control. The court shall not admit evidence of this defense unless the defendant notifies the prosecution prior to the omnibus or pretrial hearing in the case of the defendant’s intent to assert the affirmative defense.
(b) It is an affirmative defense to a violation of subsection (1)(b) of this section, which the defendant must prove by a preponderance of the evidence, that the defendant consumed a sufficient quantity of cannabis after the time of being in actual physical control of the vehicle and before the administration of an analysis of the person’s blood to cause the defendant’s THC concentration to be 5.00 or more within two hours after being in control of the vehicle. The court shall not admit evidence of this defense unless the defendant notifies the prosecution prior to the omnibus or pretrial hearing in the case of the defendant’s intent to assert the affirmative defense.
(4)(a) Analyses of blood or breath samples obtained more than two hours after the alleged being in actual physical control of a vehicle may be used as evidence that within two hours of the alleged being in such control, a person had an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more in violation of subsection (1)(a) of this section, and in any case in which the analysis shows an alcohol concentration above 0.00 may be used as evidence that a person was under the influence of or affected by intoxicating liquor or any drug in violation of subsection (1)(c) or (d) of this section.
(b) Analyses of blood samples obtained more than two hours after the alleged being in actual physical control of a vehicle may be used as evidence that within two hours of the alleged being in control of the vehicle, a person had a THC concentration of 5.00 or more in violation of subsection (1)(b) of this section, and in any case in which the analysis shows a THC concentration above 0.00 may be used as evidence that a person was under the influence of or affected by cannabis in violation of subsection (1)(c) or (d) of this section.
(5) Except as provided in subsection (6) of this section, a violation of this section is a gross misdemeanor.
(6) It is a class C felony punishable under chapter 9.94A RCW, or chapter 13.40 RCW if the person is a juvenile, if:
(a) The person has three or more prior offenses within ten years as defined in RCW 46.61.5055; or
(b) The person has ever previously been convicted of:
(i) Vehicular homicide while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug, RCW 46.61.520(1)(a);
(ii) Vehicular assault while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug, RCW 46.61.522(1)(b);
(iii) An out-of-state offense comparable to the offense specified in (b)(i) or (ii) of this subsection; or
(iv) A violation of this subsection (6) or RCW 46.61.502(6).
46.61.5055. Alcohol and drug violators--Penalty schedule
(1) No prior offenses in seven years. Except as provided in RCW 46.61.502(6) or 46.61.504(6), a person who is convicted of a violation of RCW 46.61.502 or 46.61.504 and who has no prior offense within seven years shall be punished as follows:
(a) Penalty for alcohol concentration less than 0.15. In the case of a person whose alcohol concentration was less than 0.15, or for whom for reasons other than the person’s refusal to take a test offered pursuant to RCW 46.20.308 there is no test result indicating the person’s alcohol concentration:
(i) By imprisonment for not less than twenty-four consecutive hours nor more than three hundred sixty-four days. In lieu of the mandatory minimum term of imprisonment required under this subsection (1)(a)(i), the court, in its discretion, may order not less than fifteen days of electronic home monitoring or a ninety-day period of 24/7 sobriety program monitoring. The court may consider the offender’s pretrial 24/7 sobriety program monitoring as fulfilling a portion of posttrial sentencing. The offender shall pay the cost of electronic home monitoring. The county or municipality in which the penalty is being imposed shall determine the cost. The court may also require the offender’s electronic home monitoring device or other separate alcohol monitoring device to include an alcohol detection breathalyzer, and the court may restrict the amount of alcohol the offender may consume during the time the offender is on electronic home monitoring; and
(ii) By a fine of not less than three hundred fifty dollars nor more than five thousand dollars. Three hundred fifty dollars of the fine may not be suspended unless the court finds the offender to be indigent; or
(b) Penalty for alcohol concentration at least 0.15. In the case of a person whose alcohol concentration was at least 0.15, or for whom by reason of the person’s refusal to take a test offered pursuant to RCW 46.20.308 there is no test result indicating the person’s alcohol concentration:
(i) By imprisonment for not less than forty-eight consecutive hours nor more than three hundred sixty-four days. In lieu of the mandatory minimum term of imprisonment required under this subsection (1)(b)(i), the court, in its discretion, may order not less than thirty days of electronic home monitoring or a one hundred twenty day period of 24/7 sobriety program monitoring. The court may consider the offender’s pretrial 24/7 sobriety program testing as fulfilling a portion of posttrial sentencing. The offender shall pay the cost of electronic home monitoring. The county or municipality in which the penalty is being imposed shall determine the cost. The court may also require the offender’s electronic home monitoring device to include an alcohol detection breathalyzer or other separate alcohol monitoring device, and the court may restrict the amount of alcohol the offender may consume during the time the offender is on electronic home monitoring; and
(ii) By a fine of not less than five hundred dollars nor more than five thousand dollars. Five hundred dollars of the fine may not be suspended unless the court finds the offender to be indigent.
(2) One prior offense in seven years. Except as provided in RCW 46.61.502(6) or 46.61.504(6), a person who is convicted of a violation of RCW 46.61.502 or 46.61.504 and who has one prior offense within seven years shall be punished as follows:
(a) Penalty for alcohol concentration less than 0.15. In the case of a person whose alcohol concentration was less than 0.15, or for whom for reasons other than the person’s refusal to take a test offered pursuant to RCW 46.20.308 there is no test result indicating the person’s alcohol concentration:
(i) By imprisonment for not less than thirty days nor more than three hundred sixty-four days and sixty days of electronic home monitoring. Thirty days of imprisonment and sixty days of electronic home monitoring may not be suspended or converted unless the court finds that the imposition of this mandatory minimum sentence would impose a substantial risk to the offender’s physical or mental well-being. If the offender shows that the imposition of this mandatory minimum sentence would impose a substantial risk to the offender’s physical or mental well-being, in lieu of the mandatory term of imprisonment and electronic home monitoring under this subsection (2)(a)(i), the court may order a minimum of either one hundred eighty days of electronic home monitoring or a one hundred twenty-day period of 24/7 sobriety program monitoring pursuant to RCW 36.28A.300 through 36.28A.390. Whenever the mandatory minimum sentence is suspended or converted, the court shall state in writing the reason for granting the suspension or conversion and the facts upon which the suspension or conversion is based. The court may consider the offender’s pretrial 24/7 sobriety program monitoring as fulfilling a portion of posttrial sentencing. The court shall order an expanded substance use disorder assessment and treatment, if deemed appropriate by the assessment. The offender shall pay for the cost of the electronic monitoring. The county or municipality where the penalty is being imposed shall determine the cost. The court may also require the offender’s electronic home monitoring device include an alcohol detection breathalyzer or other separate alcohol monitoring device, and may restrict the amount of alcohol the offender may consume during the time the offender is on electronic home monitoring; and
(ii) By a fine of not less than five hundred dollars nor more than five thousand dollars. Five hundred dollars of the fine may not be suspended unless the court finds the offender to be indigent; or
(b) Penalty for alcohol concentration at least 0.15. In the case of a person whose alcohol concentration was at least 0.15, or for whom by reason of the person’s refusal to take a test offered pursuant to RCW 46.20.308 there is no test result indicating the person’s alcohol concentration:
(i) By imprisonment for not less than forty-five days nor more than three hundred sixty-four days and ninety days of electronic home monitoring. Forty-five days of imprisonment and ninety days of electronic home monitoring may not be suspended or converted unless the court finds that the imposition of this mandatory minimum sentence would impose a substantial risk to the offender’s physical or mental well-being. If the offender shows that the imposition of this mandatory minimum sentence would impose a substantial risk to the offender’s physical or mental well-being, in lieu of the mandatory minimum term of imprisonment and electronic home monitoring under this subsection (2)(b)(i), the court may order a minimum of either six months of electronic home monitoring or a one hundred twenty-day period of 24/7 sobriety program monitoring pursuant to RCW 36.28A.300 through 36.28A.390. Whenever the mandatory minimum sentence is suspended or converted, the court shall state in writing the reason for granting the suspension or conversion and the facts upon which the suspension or conversion is based. The court may consider the offender’s pretrial 24/7 sobriety program monitoring as fulfilling a portion of posttrial sentencing. The court shall order an expanded substance use disorder assessment and treatment, if deemed appropriate by the assessment. The offender shall pay for the cost of the electronic monitoring. The county or municipality where the penalty is being imposed shall determine the cost. The court may also require the offender’s electronic home monitoring device include an alcohol detection breathalyzer or other separate alcohol monitoring device, and may restrict the amount of alcohol the offender may consume during the time the offender is on electronic home monitoring; and
(ii) By a fine of not less than seven hundred fifty dollars nor more than five thousand dollars. Seven hundred fifty dollars of the fine may not be suspended unless the court finds the offender to be indigent.
(3) Two prior offenses in seven years. Except as provided in RCW 46.61.502(6) or 46.61.504(6), a person who is convicted of a violation of RCW 46.61.502 or 46.61.504 and who has two prior offenses within seven years shall be punished as follows:
(a) Penalty for alcohol concentration less than 0.15. In the case of a person whose alcohol concentration was less than 0.15, or for whom for reasons other than the person’s refusal to take a test offered pursuant to RCW 46.20.308 there is no test result indicating the person’s alcohol concentration:
(i) By imprisonment for not less than ninety days nor more than three hundred sixty-four days, if available in that county or city, a six-month period of 24/7 sobriety program monitoring pursuant to RCW 36.28A.300 through 36.28A.390, and one hundred twenty days of electronic home monitoring. Ninety days of imprisonment and one hundred twenty days of electronic home monitoring may not be suspended or converted unless the court finds that the imposition of this mandatory minimum sentence would impose a substantial risk to the offender’s physical or mental well-being. If the offender shows that the imposition of this mandatory minimum sentence would impose a substantial risk to the offender’s physical or mental well-being, in lieu of the mandatory minimum term of ninety days of imprisonment and one hundred twenty days of electronic home monitoring, the court may order three hundred sixty days of electronic home monitoring or a three hundred sixty-day period of 24/7 sobriety monitoring pursuant to RCW 36.28A.300 through 36.28A.390. Whenever the mandatory minimum sentence is suspended or converted, the court shall state in writing the reason for granting the suspension or conversion and the facts upon which the suspension or conversion is based. The court shall order an expanded substance use disorder assessment and treatment, if deemed appropriate by the assessment. The offender shall pay for the cost of the electronic monitoring. The county or municipality where the penalty is being imposed shall determine the cost. The court may also require the offender’s electronic home monitoring device include an alcohol detection breathalyzer or other separate alcohol monitoring device, and may restrict the amount of alcohol the offender may consume during the time the offender is on electronic home monitoring; and
(ii) By a fine of not less than one thousand dollars nor more than five thousand dollars. One thousand dollars of the fine may not be suspended unless the court finds the offender to be indigent; or
(b) Penalty for alcohol concentration at least 0.15. In the case of a person whose alcohol concentration was at least 0.15, or for whom by reason of the person’s refusal to take a test offered pursuant to RCW 46.20.308 there is no test result indicating the person’s alcohol concentration:
(i) By imprisonment for not less than one hundred twenty days nor more than three hundred sixty-four days, if available in that county or city, a six-month period of 24/7 sobriety program monitoring pursuant to RCW 36.28A.300 through 36.28A.390, and one hundred fifty days of electronic home monitoring. One hundred twenty days of imprisonment and one hundred fifty days of electronic home monitoring may not be suspended or converted unless the court finds that the imposition of this mandatory minimum sentence would impose a substantial risk to the offender’s physical or mental well-being. If the offender shows that the imposition of this mandatory minimum sentence would impose a substantial risk to the offender’s physical or mental well-being, in lieu of the mandatory minimum term of one hundred twenty days of imprisonment and one hundred fifty days of electronic home monitoring, the court may order three hundred sixty days of electronic home monitoring or a three hundred sixty-day period of 24/7 sobriety monitoring pursuant to RCW 36.28A.300 through 36.28A.390. Whenever the mandatory minimum sentence is suspended or converted, the court shall state in writing the reason for granting the suspension or conversion and the facts upon which the suspension or conversion is based. The offender shall pay for the cost of the electronic monitoring. The court shall order an expanded substance use disorder assessment and treatment, if deemed appropriate by the assessment. The county or municipality where the penalty is being imposed shall determine the cost. The court may also require the offender’s electronic home monitoring device include an alcohol detection breathalyzer or other separate alcohol monitoring device, and may restrict the amount of alcohol the offender may consume during the time the offender is on electronic home monitoring; and
(ii) By a fine of not less than one thousand five hundred dollars nor more than five thousand dollars. One thousand five hundred dollars of the fine may not be suspended unless the court finds the offender to be indigent.
(4) Three or more prior offenses in ten years. A person who is convicted of a violation of RCW 46.61.502 or 46.61.504 shall be punished under chapter 9.94A RCW if:
(a) The person has three or more prior offenses within ten years; or
(b) The person has ever previously been convicted of:
(i) A violation of RCW 46.61.520 committed while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug;
(ii) A violation of RCW 46.61.522 committed while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug;
(iii) An out-of-state offense comparable to the offense specified in (b)(i) or (ii) of this subsection; or
(iv) A violation of RCW 46.61.502(6) or 46.61.504(6).
(5) Monitoring. (a) Ignition interlock device. The court shall require any person convicted of a violation of RCW 46.61.502 or 46.61.504 or an equivalent local ordinance to comply with the rules and requirements of the department regarding the installation and use of a functioning ignition interlock device installed on all motor vehicles operated by the person.
(b) Monitoring devices. If the court orders that a person refrain from consuming any alcohol, the court may order the person to submit to alcohol monitoring through an alcohol detection breathalyzer device, transdermal sensor device, or other technology designed to detect alcohol in a person’s system. The person shall pay for the cost of the monitoring, unless the court specifies that the cost of monitoring will be paid with funds that are available from an alternative source identified by the court. The county or municipality where the penalty is being imposed shall determine the cost.
(c) 24/7 sobriety program monitoring. In any county or city where a 24/7 sobriety program is available and verified by the Washington association of sheriffs and police chiefs, the court shall:
(i) Order the person to install and use a functioning ignition interlock or other device in lieu of such period of 24/7 sobriety program monitoring;
(ii) Order the person to a period of 24/7 sobriety program monitoring pursuant to subsections (1) through (3) of this section; or
(iii) Order the person to install and use a functioning ignition interlock or other device in addition to a period of 24/7 sobriety program monitoring pursuant to subsections (1) through (3) of this section.
(6) Penalty for having a minor passenger in vehicle. If a person who is convicted of a violation of RCW 46.61.502 or 46.61.504 committed the offense while one or more passengers under the age of sixteen were in the vehicle, the court shall:
(a) Order the use of an ignition interlock or other device for an additional twelve months for each passenger under the age of sixteen when the person is subject to the penalties under subsection (1)(a), (2)(a), or (3)(a) of this section; and order the use of an ignition interlock device for an additional eighteen months for each passenger under the age of sixteen when the person is subject to the penalties under subsection (1)(b), (2)(b), (3)(b), or (4) of this section;
(b) In any case in which the person has no prior offenses within seven years, and except as provided in RCW 46.61.502(6) or 46.61.504(6), order an additional twenty-four hours of imprisonment to be served consecutively for each passenger under the age of sixteen, and a fine of not less than one thousand dollars and not more than five thousand dollars for each passenger under the age of sixteen. One thousand dollars of the fine for each passenger under the age of sixteen may not be suspended unless the court finds the offender to be indigent;
(c) In any case in which the person has one prior offense within seven years, and except as provided in RCW 46.61.502(6) or 46.61.504(6), order an additional five days of imprisonment to be served consecutively for each passenger under the age of sixteen, and a fine of not less than two thousand dollars and not more than five thousand dollars for each passenger under the age of sixteen. One thousand dollars of the fine for each passenger under the age of sixteen may not be suspended unless the court finds the offender to be indigent;
(d) In any case in which the person has two prior offenses within seven years, and except as provided in RCW 46.61.502(6) or 46.61.504(6), order an additional ten days of imprisonment to be served consecutively for each passenger under the age of sixteen, and a fine of not less than three thousand dollars and not more than ten thousand dollars for each passenger under the age of sixteen. One thousand dollars of the fine for each passenger under the age of sixteen may not be suspended unless the court finds the offender to be indigent.
(7) Other items courts must consider while setting penalties. In exercising its discretion in setting penalties within the limits allowed by this section, the court shall particularly consider the following:
(a) Whether the person’s driving at the time of the offense was responsible for injury or damage to another or another’s property;
(b) Whether at the time of the offense the person was driving or in physical control of a vehicle with one or more passengers;
(c) Whether the driver was driving in the opposite direction of the normal flow of traffic on a multiple lane highway, as defined by RCW 46.04.350, with a posted speed limit of forty-five miles per hour or greater; and
(d) Whether a child passenger under the age of sixteen was an occupant in the driver’s vehicle.
(8) Treatment and information school. An offender punishable under this section is subject to the substance use disorder assessment and treatment provisions of RCW 46.61.5056.
(9) Driver’s license privileges of the defendant. (a) The license, permit, or nonresident privilege of a person convicted of driving or being in physical control of a motor vehicle while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or drugs must:
(i) Penalty for alcohol concentration less than 0.15. If the person’s alcohol concentration was less than 0.15, or if for reasons other than the person’s refusal to take a test offered under RCW 46.20.308 there is no test result indicating the person’s alcohol concentration:
(A) Where there has been no prior offense within seven years, be suspended or denied by the department for ninety days or until the person is evaluated by a substance use disorder agency or probation department pursuant to RCW 46.20.311 and the person completes or is enrolled in a ninety-day period of 24/7 sobriety program monitoring. In no circumstances shall the license suspension be for fewer than two days;
(B) Where there has been one prior offense within seven years, be revoked or denied by the department for two years or until the person is evaluated by a substance use disorder agency or probation department pursuant to RCW 46.20.311 and the person completes or is enrolled in a six-month period of 24/7 sobriety program monitoring. In no circumstances shall the license suspension be for less than one year; or
(C) Where there have been two or more prior offenses within seven years, be revoked or denied by the department for three years;
(ii) Penalty for alcohol concentration at least 0.15. If the person’s alcohol concentration was at least 0.15:
(A) Where there has been no prior offense within seven years, be revoked or denied by the department for one year or until the person is evaluated by a substance use disorder agency or probation department pursuant to RCW 46.20.311 and the person completes or is enrolled in a one hundred twenty day period of 24/7 sobriety program monitoring. In no circumstances shall the license revocation be for fewer than four days;
(B) Where there has been one prior offense within seven years, be revoked or denied by the department for nine hundred days; or
(C) Where there have been two or more prior offenses within seven years, be revoked or denied by the department for four years; or
(iii) Penalty for refusing to take test. If by reason of the person’s refusal to take a test offered under RCW 46.20.308, there is no test result indicating the person’s alcohol concentration:
(A) Where there have been no prior offenses within seven years, be revoked or denied by the department for two years;
(B) Where there has been one prior offense within seven years, be revoked or denied by the department for three years; or
(C) Where there have been two or more previous offenses within seven years, be revoked or denied by the department for four years.
(b)(i) The department shall grant credit on a day-for-day basis for a suspension, revocation, or denial imposed under this subsection (9) for any portion of a suspension, revocation, or denial already served under RCW 46.20.3101 arising out of the same incident.
(ii) If a person has already served a suspension, revocation, or denial under RCW 46.20.3101 for a period equal to or greater than the period imposed under this subsection (9), the department shall provide notice of full credit, shall provide for no further suspension or revocation under this subsection provided the person has completed the requirements under RCW 46.20.311 and paid the probationary license fee under RCW 46.20.355 by the date specified in the notice under RCW 46.20.245, and shall impose no additional reissue fees for this credit.
(c) Upon receipt of a notice from the court under RCW 36.28A.390 that a participant has been removed from a 24/7 sobriety program, the department must resume any suspension, revocation, or denial that had been terminated early under this subsection due to participation in the program, granting credit on a day-for-day basis for any portion of a suspension, revocation, or denial already served under RCW 46.20.3101 or this section arising out of the same incident.
(d) Upon its own motion or upon motion by a person, a court may find, on the record, that notice to the department under RCW 46.20.270 has been delayed for three years or more as a result of a clerical or court error. If so, the court may order that the person’s license, permit, or nonresident privilege shall not be revoked, suspended, or denied for that offense. The court shall send notice of the finding and order to the department and to the person. Upon receipt of the notice from the court, the department shall not revoke, suspend, or deny the license, permit, or nonresident privilege of the person for that offense.
(e) For purposes of this subsection (9), the department shall refer to the driver’s record maintained under RCW 46.52.120 when determining the existence of prior offenses.
(10) Probation of driving privilege. After expiration of any period of suspension, revocation, or denial of the offender’s license, permit, or privilege to drive required by this section, the department shall place the offender’s driving privilege in probationary status pursuant to RCW 46.20.355.
(11) Conditions of probation. (a) In addition to any nonsuspendable and nondeferrable jail sentence required by this section, whenever the court imposes up to three hundred sixty-four days in jail, the court shall also suspend but shall not defer a period of confinement for a period not exceeding five years. The court shall impose conditions of probation that include: (i) Not driving a motor vehicle within this state without a valid license to drive; (ii) not driving a motor vehicle within this state without proof of liability insurance or other financial responsibility for the future pursuant to RCW 46.30.020; (iii) not driving or being in physical control of a motor vehicle within this state while having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more or a THC concentration of 5.00 nanograms per milliliter of whole blood or higher, within two hours after driving; (iv) not refusing to submit to a test of his or her breath or blood to determine alcohol or drug concentration upon request of a law enforcement officer who has reasonable grounds to believe the person was driving or was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle within this state while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or drug; and (v) not driving a motor vehicle in this state without a functioning ignition interlock device as required by the department under RCW 46.20.720. The court may impose conditions of probation that include nonrepetition, installation of an ignition interlock device on the probationer’s motor vehicle, substance use disorder treatment, supervised probation, or other conditions that may be appropriate. The sentence may be imposed in whole or in part upon violation of a condition of probation during the suspension period.
(b) For each violation of mandatory conditions of probation under (a)(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) of this subsection, the court shall order the convicted person to be confined for thirty days, which shall not be suspended or deferred.
(c) For each incident involving a violation of a mandatory condition of probation imposed under this subsection, the license, permit, or privilege to drive of the person shall be suspended by the court for thirty days or, if such license, permit, or privilege to drive already is suspended, revoked, or denied at the time the finding of probation violation is made, the suspension, revocation, or denial then in effect shall be extended by thirty days. The court shall notify the department of any suspension, revocation, or denial or any extension of a suspension, revocation, or denial imposed under this subsection.
(12) Waiver of electronic home monitoring. A court may waive the electronic home monitoring requirements of this chapter when:
(a) The offender does not have a dwelling, telephone service, or any other necessity to operate an electronic home monitoring system. However, if a court determines that an alcohol monitoring device utilizing wireless reporting technology is reasonably available, the court may require the person to obtain such a device during the period of required electronic home monitoring;
(b) The offender does not reside in the state of Washington; or
(c) The court determines that there is reason to believe that the offender would violate the conditions of the electronic home monitoring penalty.
Whenever the mandatory minimum term of electronic home monitoring is waived, the court shall state in writing the reason for granting the waiver and the facts upon which the waiver is based, and shall impose an alternative sentence with similar punitive consequences. The alternative sentence may include, but is not limited to, use of an ignition interlock device, the 24/7 sobriety program monitoring, additional jail time, work crew, or work camp.
Whenever the combination of jail time and electronic home monitoring or alternative sentence would exceed three hundred sixty-four days, the offender shall serve the jail portion of the sentence first, and the electronic home monitoring or alternative portion of the sentence shall be reduced so that the combination does not exceed three hundred sixty-four days.
(13) Extraordinary medical placement. An offender serving a sentence under this section, whether or not a mandatory minimum term has expired, may be granted an extraordinary medical placement by the jail administrator subject to the standards and limitations set forth in RCW 9.94A.728(1)(c).
(14) Definitions. For purposes of this section and RCW 46.61.502 and 46.61.504:
(a) A “prior offense” means any of the following:
(i) A conviction for a violation of RCW 46.61.502 or an equivalent local ordinance;
(ii) A conviction for a violation of RCW 46.61.504 or an equivalent local ordinance;
(iii) A conviction for a violation of RCW 46.25.110 or an equivalent local ordinance;
(iv) A conviction for a violation of RCW 79A.60.040(2) or an equivalent local ordinance;
(v) A conviction for a violation of RCW 79A.60.040(1) or an equivalent local ordinance committed in a reckless manner if the conviction is the result of a charge that was originally filed as a violation of RCW 79A.60.040(2) or an equivalent local ordinance;
(vi) A conviction for a violation of RCW 47.68.220 or an equivalent local ordinance committed while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug;
(vii) A conviction for a violation of RCW 47.68.220 or an equivalent local ordinance committed in a careless or reckless manner if the conviction is the result of a charge that was originally filed as a violation of RCW 47.68.220 or an equivalent local ordinance while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug;
(viii) A conviction for a violation of RCW 46.09.470(2) or an equivalent local ordinance;
(ix) A conviction for a violation of RCW 46.10.490(2) or an equivalent local ordinance;
(x) A conviction for a violation of RCW 46.61.520 committed while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug, or a conviction for a violation of RCW 46.61.520 committed in a reckless manner or with the disregard for the safety of others if the conviction is the result of a charge that was originally filed as a violation of RCW 46.61.520 committed while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug;
(xi) A conviction for a violation of RCW 46.61.522 committed while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug, or a conviction for a violation of RCW 46.61.522 committed in a reckless manner or with the disregard for the safety of others if the conviction is the result of a charge that was originally filed as a violation of RCW 46.61.522 committed while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug;
(xii) A conviction for a violation of RCW 46.61.5249, 46.61.500, or 9A.36.050 or an equivalent local ordinance, if the conviction is the result of a charge that was originally filed as a violation of RCW 46.61.502 or 46.61.504, or an equivalent local ordinance, or of RCW 46.61.520 or 46.61.522;
(xiii) An out-of-state conviction for a violation that would have been a violation of (a)(i), (ii), (x), (xi), or (xii) of this subsection if committed in this state;
(xiv) A deferred prosecution under chapter 10.05 RCW granted in a prosecution for a violation of RCW 46.61.502, 46.61.504, or an equivalent local ordinance;
(xv) A deferred prosecution under chapter 10.05 RCW granted in a prosecution for a violation of RCW 46.61.5249, or an equivalent local ordinance, if the charge under which the deferred prosecution was granted was originally filed as a violation of RCW 46.61.502 or 46.61.504, or an equivalent local ordinance, or of RCW 46.61.520 or 46.61.522;
(xvi) A deferred prosecution granted in another state for a violation of driving or having physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug if the out-of-state deferred prosecution is equivalent to the deferred prosecution under chapter 10.05 RCW, including a requirement that the defendant participate in a chemical dependency treatment program; or
(xvii) A deferred sentence imposed in a prosecution for a violation of RCW 46.61.5249, 46.61.500, or 9A.36.050, or an equivalent local ordinance, if the charge under which the deferred sentence was imposed was originally filed as a violation of RCW 46.61.502 or 46.61.504, or an equivalent local ordinance, or a violation of RCW 46.61.520 or 46.61.522;
If a deferred prosecution is revoked based on a subsequent conviction for an offense listed in this subsection (14)(a), the subsequent conviction shall not be treated as a prior offense of the revoked deferred prosecution for the purposes of sentencing;
(b) “Treatment” means substance use disorder treatment licensed or certified by the department of health;
(c) “Within seven years” means that the arrest for a prior offense occurred within seven years before or after the arrest for the current offense; and
(d) “Within ten years” means that the arrest for a prior offense occurred within ten years before or after the arrest for the current offense.
(15) All fines imposed by this section apply to adult offenders only.
Title 59. Landlord and Tenant
Chapter 59.18. Residential Landlord-Tenant Act
59.18.030. Definitions
As used in this chapter:
(1) “Active duty” means service authorized by the president of the United States, the secretary of defense, or the governor for a period of more than 30 consecutive days.
(2) “Certificate of inspection” means an unsworn statement, declaration, verification, or certificate made in accordance with the requirements of chapter 5.50 RCW by a qualified inspector that states that the landlord has not failed to fulfill any substantial obligation imposed under RCW 59.18.060 that endangers or impairs the health or safety of a tenant, including (a) structural members that are of insufficient size or strength to carry imposed loads with safety, (b) exposure of the occupants to the weather, (c) plumbing and sanitation defects that directly expose the occupants to the risk of illness or injury, (d) not providing facilities adequate to supply heat and water and hot water as reasonably required by the tenant, (e) providing heating or ventilation systems that are not functional or are hazardous, (f) defective, hazardous, or missing electrical wiring or electrical service, (g) defective or hazardous exits that increase the risk of injury to occupants, and (h) conditions that increase the risk of fire.
(3) “Commercially reasonable manner,” with respect to a sale of a deceased tenant’s personal property, means a sale where every aspect of the sale, including the method, manner, time, place, and other terms, must be commercially reasonable. If commercially reasonable, a landlord may sell the tenant’s property by public or private proceedings, by one or more contracts, as a unit or in parcels, and at any time and place and on any terms.
(4) “Comprehensive reusable tenant screening report” means a tenant screening report prepared by a consumer reporting agency at the direction of and paid for by the prospective tenant and made available directly to a prospective landlord at no charge, which contains all of the following: (a) A consumer credit report prepared by a consumer reporting agency within the past 30 days; (b) the prospective tenant’s criminal history; (c) the prospective tenant’s eviction history; (d) an employment verification; and (e) the prospective tenant’s address and rental history.
(5) “Criminal history” means a report containing or summarizing (a) the prospective tenant’s criminal convictions and pending cases, the final disposition of which antedates the report by no more than seven years, and (b) the results of a sex offender registry and United States department of the treasury’s office of foreign assets control search, all based on at least seven years of address history and alias information provided by the prospective tenant or available in the consumer credit report.
(6) “Designated person” means a person designated by the tenant under RCW 59.18.590.
(7) “Distressed home” has the same meaning as in RCW 61.34.020.
(8) “Distressed home conveyance” has the same meaning as in RCW 61.34.020.
(9) “Distressed home purchaser” has the same meaning as in RCW 61.34.020.
(10) “Dwelling unit” is a structure or that part of a structure which is used as a home, residence, or sleeping place by one person or by two or more persons maintaining a common household, including but not limited to single-family residences and units of multiplexes, apartment buildings, and mobile homes.
(11) “Eviction history” means a report containing or summarizing the contents of any records of unlawful detainer actions concerning the prospective tenant that are reportable in accordance with state law, are lawful for landlords to consider, and are obtained after a search based on at least seven years of address history and alias information provided by the prospective tenant or available in the consumer credit report.
(12) “Gang” means a group that: (a) Consists of three or more persons; (b) has identifiable leadership or an identifiable name, sign, or symbol; and (c) on an ongoing basis, regularly conspires and acts in concert mainly for criminal purposes.
(13) “Gang-related activity” means any activity that occurs within the gang or advances a gang purpose.
(14) “Immediate family” includes state registered domestic partner, spouse, parents, grandparents, children, including foster children, siblings, and in-laws.
(15) “In danger of foreclosure” means any of the following:
(a) The homeowner has defaulted on the mortgage and, under the terms of the mortgage, the mortgagee has the right to accelerate full payment of the mortgage and repossess, sell, or cause to be sold the property;
(b) The homeowner is at least 30 days delinquent on any loan that is secured by the property; or
(c) The homeowner has a good faith belief that he or she is likely to default on the mortgage within the upcoming four months due to a lack of funds, and the homeowner has reported this belief to:
(i) The mortgagee;
(ii) A person licensed or required to be licensed under chapter 19.134 RCW;
(iii) A person licensed or required to be licensed under chapter 19.146 RCW;
(iv) A person licensed or required to be licensed under chapter 18.85 RCW;
(v) An attorney-at-law;
(vi) A mortgage counselor or other credit counselor licensed or certified by any federal, state, or local agency; or
(vii) Any other party to a distressed property conveyance.
(16) “Landlord” means the owner, lessor, or sublessor of the dwelling unit or the property of which it is a part, and in addition means any person designated as representative of the owner, lessor, or sublessor including, but not limited to, an agent, a resident manager, or a designated property manager.
(17) “Mortgage” is used in the general sense and includes all instruments, including deeds of trust, that are used to secure an obligation by an interest in real property.
(18) “Orders” means written official military orders, or any written notification, certification, or verification from the service member’s commanding officer, with respect to the service member’s current or future military status.
(19) “Owner” means one or more persons, jointly or severally, in whom is vested:
(a) All or any part of the legal title to property; or
(b) All or part of the beneficial ownership, and a right to present use and enjoyment of the property.
(20) “Permanent change of station” means: (a) Transfer to a unit located at another port or duty station; (b) change in a unit’s home port or permanent duty station; (c) call to active duty for a period not less than 90 days; (d) separation; or (e) retirement.
(21) “Person” means an individual, group of individuals, corporation, government, or governmental agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, or association, two or more persons having a joint or common interest, or any other legal or commercial entity.
(22) “Premises” means a dwelling unit, appurtenances thereto, grounds, and facilities held out for the use of tenants generally and any other area or facility which is held out for use by the tenant.
(23) “Property” or “rental property” means all dwelling units on a contiguous quantity of land managed by the same landlord as a single, rental complex.
(24) “Prospective landlord” means a landlord or a person who advertises, solicits, offers, or otherwise holds a dwelling unit out as available for rent.
(25) “Prospective tenant” means a tenant or a person who has applied for residential housing that is governed under this chapter.
(26) “Qualified inspector” means a United States department of housing and urban development certified inspector; a Washington state licensed home inspector; an American society of home inspectors certified inspector; a private inspector certified by the national association of housing and redevelopment officials, the American association of code enforcement, or other comparable professional association as approved by the local municipality; a municipal code enforcement officer; a Washington licensed structural engineer; or a Washington licensed architect.
(27) “Reasonable attorneys’ fees,” where authorized in this chapter, means an amount to be determined including the following factors: The time and labor required, the novelty and difficulty of the questions involved, the skill requisite to perform the legal service properly, the fee customarily charged in the locality for similar legal services, the amount involved and the results obtained, and the experience, reputation and ability of the lawyer or lawyers performing the services.
(28) “Reasonable manner,” with respect to disposing of a deceased tenant’s personal property, means to dispose of the property by donation to a not-for-profit charitable organization, by removal of the property by a trash hauler or recycler, or by any other method that is reasonable under the circumstances.
(29) “Rent” or “rental amount” means recurring and periodic charges identified in the rental agreement for the use and occupancy of the premises, which may include charges for utilities. Except as provided in RCW 59.18.283(3), these terms do not include nonrecurring charges for costs incurred due to late payment, damages, deposits, legal costs, or other fees, including attorneys’ fees.
(30) “Rental agreement” or “lease” means all agreements which establish or modify the terms, conditions, rules, regulations, or any other provisions concerning the use and occupancy of a dwelling unit.
(31) “Service member” means an active member of the United States armed forces, a member of a military reserve component, or a member of the national guard who is either stationed in or a resident of Washington state.
(32) A “single-family residence” is a structure maintained and used as a single dwelling unit. Notwithstanding that a dwelling unit shares one or more walls with another dwelling unit, it shall be deemed a single-family residence if it has direct access to a street and shares neither heating facilities nor hot water equipment, nor any other essential facility or service, with any other dwelling unit.
(33) “Subsidized housing” refers to rental housing for very low-income or low-income households that is a dwelling unit operated directly by a public housing authority or its affiliate, or that is insured, financed, or assisted in whole or in part through one of the following sources:
(a) A federal program or state housing program administered by the department of commerce or the Washington state housing finance commission;
(b) A federal housing program administered by a city or county government;
(c) An affordable housing levy authorized under RCW 84.52.105; or
(d) The surcharges authorized in RCW 36.22.178 and 36.22.179 and any of the surcharges authorized in chapter 43.185C RCW.
(34) A “tenant” is any person who is entitled to occupy a dwelling unit primarily for living or dwelling purposes under a rental agreement.
(35) “Tenant representative” means:
(a) A personal representative of a deceased tenant’s estate if known to the landlord;
(b) If the landlord has no knowledge that a personal representative has been appointed for the deceased tenant’s estate, a person claiming to be a successor of the deceased tenant who has provided the landlord with proof of death and an affidavit made by the person that meets the requirements of RCW 11.62.010(2);
(c) In the absence of a personal representative under (a) of this subsection or a person claiming to be a successor under (b) of this subsection, a designated person; or
(d) In the absence of a personal representative under (a) of this subsection, a person claiming to be a successor under (b) of this subsection, or a designated person under (c) of this subsection, any person who provides the landlord with reasonable evidence that he or she is a successor of the deceased tenant as defined in RCW 11.62.005. The landlord has no obligation to identify all of the deceased tenant’s successors.
(36) “Tenant screening” means using a consumer report or other information about a prospective tenant in deciding whether to make or accept an offer for residential rental property to or from a prospective tenant.
(37) “Tenant screening report” means a consumer report as defined in RCW 19.182.010 and any other information collected by a tenant screening service.
(38) “Transitional housing” means housing units owned, operated, or managed by a nonprofit organization or governmental entity in which supportive services are provided to individuals and families that were formerly homeless, with the intent to stabilize them and move them to permanent housing within a period of not more than twenty-four months, or longer if the program is limited to tenants within a specified age range or the program is intended for tenants in need of time to complete and transition from educational or training or service programs.Credits
59.18.200. Tenancy from month to month or for rental period--End of tenancy--Armed forces exception--Exclusion of children--Conversion to condominium--Demolition, substantial rehabilitation of the premises--Notice
(1)(a) When premises are rented for an indefinite time, with monthly or other periodic rent reserved, such tenancy shall be construed to be a tenancy from month to month, or from period to period on which rent is payable, and shall end by written notice of 20 days or more, preceding the end of any of the months or periods of tenancy, given by the tenant to the landlord.
(b) Any tenant who is a member of the armed forces, including the national guard and armed forces reserves, or that tenant’s spouse or dependent, may end a rental agreement with less than 20 days’ written notice if the tenant receives permanent change of station or deployment orders that do not allow a 20-day written notice.
(2)(a) Whenever a landlord plans to change to a policy of excluding children, the landlord shall give a written notice to a tenant at least 90 days before the tenancy ends to effectuate such change in policy. Such 90-day notice shall be in lieu of the notice required by subsection (1) of this section. However, if after giving the 90-day notice the change in policy is delayed, the notice requirements of subsection (1) of this section shall apply unless waived by the tenant.
(b) Whenever a landlord plans to change any apartment or apartments to a condominium form of ownership, the landlord shall provide a written notice to a tenant at least 120 days before the tenancy ends, in compliance with RCW 64.34.440(1), to effectuate such change. The 120-day notice is in lieu of the notice required in subsection (1) of this section. However, if after providing the 120-day notice the change to a condominium form of ownership is delayed, the notice requirements in subsection (1) of this section apply unless waived by the tenant.
(c)(i) Whenever a landlord plans to demolish or substantially rehabilitate premises or plans a change of use of premises, the landlord shall provide a written notice to a tenant at least 120 days before the tenancy ends. This subsection (2)(c)(i) does not apply to jurisdictions that have created a relocation assistance program under RCW 59.18.440 and otherwise provide 120 days’ notice.
(ii) For purposes of this subsection (2)(c):
(A) “Assisted housing development” means a multifamily rental housing development that either receives government assistance and is defined as federally assisted housing in RCW 59.28.020, or that receives other federal, state, or local government assistance and is subject to use restrictions.
(B) “Change of use” means: (I) Conversion of any premises from a residential use to a nonresidential use that results in the displacement of an existing tenant; (II) conversion from one type of residential use to another type of residential use that results in the displacement of an existing tenant, such as conversion to a retirement home, emergency shelter, or transient hotel; or (III) conversion following removal of use restrictions from an assisted housing development that results in the displacement of an existing tenant: PROVIDED, That displacement of an existing tenant in order that the owner or a member of the owner’s immediate family may occupy the premises does not constitute a change of use.
(C) “Demolish” means the destruction of premises or the relocation of premises to another site that results in the displacement of an existing tenant.
(D) “Substantially rehabilitate” means extensive structural repair or extensive remodeling of premises that requires a permit such as a building, electrical, plumbing, or mechanical permit, and that results in the displacement of an existing tenant.
59.18.570. Victim protection--Definitions
The definitions in this section apply throughout this section and RCW 59.18.575 through 59.18.585 unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
(1) “Credit reporting agency” has the same meaning as set forth in RCW 19.182.010(5).
(2) “Domestic violence” has the same meaning as set forth in RCW 7.105.010.
(3) “Household member” means a child or adult residing with the tenant other than the perpetrator of domestic violence, stalking, or sexual assault.
(4) “Landlord” has the same meaning as in RCW 59.l8.030 and includes the landlord’s employees.
(5) “Qualified third party” means any of the following people acting in their official capacity:
(a) Law enforcement officers;
(b) Persons subject to the provisions of chapter 18.120 RCW;
(c) Employees of a court of the state;
(d) Licensed mental health professionals or other licensed counselors;
(e) Employees of crime victim/witness programs as defined in RCW 7.69.020 who are trained advocates for the program; and
(f) Members of the clergy as defined in RCW 26.44.020.
(6) “Sexual assault” has the same meaning as set forth in RCW 70.125.030.
(7) “Stalking” has the same meaning as set forth in RCW 9A.46.110.
(8) “Tenant screening service provider” means any nongovernmental agency that provides, for a fee, background information on prospective tenants to landlords.
(9) “Unlawful harassment” has the same meaning as in RCW 7.105.010 and also includes any request for sexual favors to a tenant or household member in return for a change in or performance of any or all terms of a lease or rental agreement.
59.18.575. Victim protection--Notice to landlord--Termination of rental agreement--Procedures
(1)(a) If a tenant notifies the landlord in writing that he or she or a household member was a victim of an act that constitutes a crime of domestic violence, sexual assault, unlawful harassment, or stalking, and either (a)(i) or (ii) of this subsection applies, then subsection (2) of this section applies:
(i) The tenant or the household member has a domestic violence protection order, sexual assault protection order, stalking protection order, or antiharassment protection order under chapter 7.105 RCW, or a valid order for protection under one or more of the following: Chapter 26.26A or 26.26B RCW, or any of the former chapters 7.90 and 26.50 RCW, or RCW 9A.46.040, 9A.46.050, 10.99.040 (2) or (3), or 26.09.050, or former RCW 10.14.080; or
(ii) The tenant or the household member has reported the domestic violence, sexual assault, unlawful harassment, or stalking to a qualified third party acting in his or her official capacity and the qualified third party has provided the tenant or the household member a written record of the report signed by the qualified third party.
(b) When a copy of a valid order for protection or a written record of a report signed by a qualified third party, as required under (a) of this subsection, is made available to the landlord, the tenant may terminate the rental agreement and quit the premises without further obligation under the rental agreement or under this chapter. However, the request to terminate the rental agreement must occur within ninety days of the reported act, event, or circumstance that gave rise to the protective order or report to a qualified third party. A record of the report to a qualified third party that is provided to the tenant or household member shall consist of a document signed and dated by the qualified third party stating: (i) That the tenant or the household member notified him or her that he or she was a victim of an act or acts that constitute a crime of domestic violence, sexual assault, unlawful harassment, or stalking; (ii) the time and date the act or acts occurred; (iii) the location where the act or acts occurred; (iv) a brief description of the act or acts of domestic violence, sexual assault, unlawful harassment, or stalking; and (v) that the tenant or household member informed him or her of the name of the alleged perpetrator of the act or acts. The record of the report provided to the tenant or household member shall not include the name of the alleged perpetrator of the act or acts of domestic violence, sexual assault, unlawful harassment, or stalking. The qualified third party shall keep a copy of the record of the report and shall note on the retained copy the name of the alleged perpetrator of the act or acts of domestic violence, sexual assault, unlawful harassment, or stalking. The record of the report to a qualified third party may be accomplished by completion of a form provided by the qualified third party, in substantially the following form:
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[Name of organization, agency, clinic, professional service provider] |
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I and/or my …… (household member) am/is a victim of |
… domestic violence as defined by RCW 7.105.010. |
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… sexual assault as defined by RCW 70.125.030. |
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… stalking as defined by RCW 9A.46.110. |
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… unlawful harassment as defined by RCW 59.18.570. |
Briefly describe the incident of domestic violence, sexual assault, unlawful harassment, or stalking:
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The incident(s) that I rely on in support of this declaration occurred on the following date(s) and time(s) and at the following location(s):
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The incident(s) that I rely on in support of this declaration were committed by the following person(s):
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I state under penalty of perjury under the laws of the state of Washington that the foregoing is true and correct. Dated at ………. (city) .., Washington, this … day of …., …. (year) |
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Signature of Tenant or |
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Household Member |
I verify that I have provided to the person whose signature appears above the statutes cited in RCW 59.18.575 and that the individual was a victim of an act that constitutes a crime of domestic violence, sexual assault, unlawful harassment, or stalking, and that the individual informed me of the name of the alleged perpetrator of the act. I further verify that I have informed the person whose signature appears above that information about the landlord mitigation program can be found on the website established pursuant to RCW 43.31.605(11), including the form developed pursuant to RCW 43.31.605(1)(d)(iv). |
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Dated this … day of …., …. (year) |
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Signature of authorized |
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officer/employee of |
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(Organization, agency, clinic, |
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professional service provider) |
(2)(a) A tenant who terminates a rental agreement under this section is discharged from the payment of rent for any period following the last day of the month of the quitting date. The tenant shall remain liable for the rent for the month in which he or she terminated the rental agreement unless the termination is in accordance with RCW 59.18.200(1).
(b)(i) Notwithstanding lease provisions that allow for forfeiture of a deposit for early termination, a tenant who terminates under this section is entitled to the return of the full deposit, subject to RCW 59.18.020 and 59.18.280.
(ii) If the landlord seeks reimbursement for damages from the landlord mitigation program pursuant to RCW 43.31.605(1)(d), the landlord is prohibited from retaining any portion of the tenant’s damage or security deposit or proceeding against the tenant who terminates under this section to recover sums exceeding the amount of the tenant’s damage or security deposit for damage to the property.
(c) Other tenants who are parties to the rental agreement, except household members who are the victims of sexual assault, stalking, unlawful harassment, or domestic violence, are not released from their obligations under the rental agreement or other obligations under this chapter.
(3)(a) Notwithstanding any other provision under this section, if a tenant or a household member is a victim of sexual assault, stalking, or unlawful harassment by a landlord, the tenant may terminate the rental agreement and quit the premises without further obligation under the rental agreement or under this chapter prior to making a copy of a valid order for protection or a written record of a report signed by a qualified third party available to the landlord, provided that:
(i) The tenant must deliver a copy of a valid order for protection or written record of a report signed by a qualified third party to the landlord by mail, fax, or personal delivery by a third party within seven days of quitting the tenant’s dwelling unit; and
(ii) A written record of a report signed by the qualified third party must be substantially in the form specified under subsection (1)(b) of this section. The record of the report provided to the landlord must not include the name of the alleged perpetrator of the act. On written request by the landlord, the qualified third party shall, within seven days, provide the name of the alleged perpetrator of the act to the landlord only if the alleged perpetrator was a person meeting the definition of the term “landlord” under RCW 59.18.570.
(b) A tenant who terminates his or her rental agreement under this subsection is discharged from the payment of rent for any period following the latter of: (i) The date the tenant vacates the unit; or (ii) the date the record of the report of the qualified third party and the written notice that the tenant has vacated are delivered to the landlord by mail, fax, or personal delivery by a third party. The tenant is entitled to a pro rata refund of any prepaid rent and must receive a full and specific statement of the basis for retaining any of the deposit together with any refund due in accordance with RCW 59.18.280.
(4) If a tenant or a household member is a victim of sexual assault, stalking, or unlawful harassment by a landlord, the tenant may change or add locks to the tenant’s dwelling unit at the tenant’s expense. If a tenant exercises his or her rights to change or add locks, the following rules apply:
(a) Within seven days of changing or adding locks, the tenant must deliver to the landlord by mail, fax, or personal delivery by a third party: (i) Written notice that the tenant has changed or added locks; and (ii) a copy of a valid order for protection or a written record of a report signed by a qualified third party. A written record of a report signed by a qualified third party must be substantially in the form specified under subsection (1)(b) of this section. The record of the report provided to the landlord must not include the name of the alleged perpetrator of the act. On written request by the landlord, the qualified third party shall, within seven days, provide the name of the alleged perpetrator to the landlord only if the alleged perpetrator was a person meeting the definition of the term “landlord” under RCW 59.18.570.
(b) After the tenant provides notice to the landlord that the tenant has changed or added locks, the tenant’s rental agreement shall terminate on the ninetieth day after providing such notice, unless:
(i) Within sixty days of providing notice that the tenant has changed or added locks, the tenant notifies the landlord in writing that the tenant does not wish to terminate his or her rental agreement. If the perpetrator has been identified by the qualified third party and is no longer an employee or agent of the landlord or owner and does not reside at the property, the tenant shall provide the owner or owner’s designated agent with a copy of the key to the new locks at the same time as providing notice that the tenant does not wish to terminate his or her rental agreement. A tenant who has a valid protection, antiharassment, or other protective order against the owner of the premises or against an employee or agent of the landlord or owner is not required to provide a key to the new locks until the protective order expires or the tenant vacates; or
(ii) The tenant exercises his or her rights to terminate the rental agreement under subsection (3) of this section within sixty days of providing notice that the tenant has changed or added locks.
(c) After a landlord receives notice that a tenant has changed or added locks to his or her dwelling unit under (a) of this subsection, the landlord may not enter the tenant’s dwelling unit except as follows:
(i) In the case of an emergency, the landlord may enter the unit if accompanied by a law enforcement or fire official acting in his or her official capacity. If the landlord reasonably concludes that the circumstances require immediate entry into the unit, the landlord may, after notifying emergency services, use such force as necessary to enter the unit if the tenant is not present; or
(ii) The landlord complies with the requirements of RCW 59.18.150 and clearly specifies in writing the time and date that the landlord intends to enter the unit and the purpose for entering the unit. The tenant must make arrangements to permit access by the landlord.
(d) The exercise of rights to change or add locks under this subsection does not discharge the tenant from the payment of rent until the rental agreement is terminated and the tenant vacates the unit.
(e) The tenant may not change any locks to common areas and must make keys for new locks available to other household members.
(f) Upon vacating the dwelling unit, the tenant must deliver the key and all copies of the key to the landlord by mail or personal delivery by a third party.
(5) A tenant’s remedies under this section do not preempt any other legal remedy available to the tenant.
(6) The provision of verification of a report under subsection (1)(b) of this section does not waive the confidential or privileged nature of the communication between a victim of domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking with a qualified third party pursuant to RCW 5.60.060, 70.123.075, or 70.125.065. No record or evidence obtained from such disclosure may be used in any civil, administrative, or criminal proceeding against the victim unless a written waiver of applicable evidentiary privilege is obtained, except that the verification itself, and no other privileged information, under subsection (1)(b) of this section may be used in civil proceedings brought under this section.
59.18.580. Victim protection--Limitation on tenant screening service provider disclosures and landlord's rental decisions
(1) A tenant screening service provider may not (a) disclose a tenant’s, applicant’s, or household member’s status as a victim of domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking, or (b) knowingly disclose that a tenant, applicant, or household member has previously terminated a rental agreement under RCW 59.18.575.
(2) A landlord may not terminate a tenancy, fail to renew a tenancy, or refuse to enter into a rental agreement based on the tenant’s or applicant’s or a household member’s status as a victim of domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking, or based on the tenant or applicant having terminated a rental agreement under RCW 59.18.575.
(3) A landlord who refuses to enter into a rental agreement in violation of subsection (2) of this section may be liable to the tenant or applicant in a civil action for damages sustained by the tenant or applicant. The prevailing party may also recover court costs and reasonable attorneys’ fees.
(4) It is a defense to an unlawful detainer action under chapter 59.12 RCW that the action to remove the tenant and recover possession of the premises is in violation of subsection (2) of this section.
(5) This section does not prohibit adverse housing decisions based upon other lawful factors within the landlord’s knowledge or prohibit volunteer disclosure by an applicant of any victim circumstances.
59.18.585. Victim protection--Possession of dwelling unit--Exclusion of others--New lock or key
(1) A tenant who has obtained a court order from a court of competent jurisdiction granting him or her possession of a dwelling unit to the exclusion of one or more cotenants may request that a lock be replaced or configured for a new key at the tenant’s expense. The landlord shall, if provided a copy of the order, comply with the request and shall not provide copies of the new keys to the tenant restrained or excluded by the court’s order. This section does not release a cotenant, other than a household member who is the victim of domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking, from liability or obligations under the rental agreement.
(2) A landlord who replaces a lock or configures for a new key of a residential housing unit in accordance with subsection (1) of this section shall be held harmless from liability for any damages that result directly from the lock change.
Title 70. Public Health and Safety
Chapter 70.125. Victims of Sexual Assault Act
70.125.030. Definitions
The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
(1) “Community sexual assault program” means a community-based social service agency that is qualified to provide and provides core services to victims of sexual assault.
(2) “Core services” means those services that are victim-centered community-based advocacy responses to alleviate the impact of sexual assault, as delineated in the Washington state sexual assault services plan of 1995 and its subsequent revisions.
(3) “Department” means the department of commerce.
(4) “Law enforcement agencies” means police and sheriff’s departments and tribal law enforcement departments or agencies of this state.
(5) “Personal representative” means a friend, relative, attorney, or employee or volunteer from a community sexual assault program or specialized treatment service provider.
(6) “Services for underserved populations” means culturally relevant victim-centered community-based advocacy responses to alleviate the impact of sexual assault, as delineated in the Washington state sexual assault services plan of 1995 and its subsequent revisions.
(7) “Sexual assault” means one or more of the following:
(a) Rape or rape of a child;
(b) Assault with intent to commit rape or rape of a child;
(c) Incest or indecent liberties;
(d) Child molestation;
(e) Sexual misconduct with a minor;
(f) Custodial sexual misconduct;
(g) Crimes with a sexual motivation;
(h) Sexual exploitation or commercial sex abuse of a minor;
(i) Promoting prostitution; or
(j) An attempt to commit any of the aforementioned offenses.
(8) “Specialized services” means those services intended to alleviate the impact of sexual assault, as delineated in the Washington state sexual assault services plan of 1995 and its subsequent revisions.(9) “Victim” means any person who suffers physical, emotional, financial, and psychological impact as a proximate result of a sexual assault.
Title 71. Mental Illness
Chapter 71.09. Sexually Violent Predators
71.09.020. Definitions
Unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter.
(1) “Department” means the department of social and health services.
(2) “Fair share principles” and “fair share principles of release” means that each county has adequate options for conditional release housing placements in a number generally equivalent to the number of residents from that county who are subject to total confinement pursuant to this chapter.
(3) “Health care facility” means any hospital, hospice care center, licensed or certified health care facility, health maintenance organization regulated under chapter 48.46 RCW, federally qualified health maintenance organization, federally approved renal dialysis center or facility, or federally approved blood bank.
(4) “Health care practitioner” means an individual or firm licensed or certified to engage actively in a regulated health profession.
(5) “Health care services” means those services provided by health professionals licensed pursuant to RCW 18.120.020(4).
(6) “Health profession” means those licensed or regulated professions set forth in RCW 18.120.020(4).
(7) “Less restrictive alternative” means court-ordered treatment in a setting less restrictive than total confinement which satisfies the conditions set forth in RCW 71.09.092. A less restrictive alternative may not include placement in the community protection program as pursuant to RCW 71A.12.230.
(8) “Likely to engage in predatory acts of sexual violence if not confined in a secure facility” means that the person more probably than not will engage in such acts if released unconditionally from detention on the sexually violent predator petition. Such likelihood must be evidenced by a recent overt act if the person is not totally confined at the time the petition is filed under RCW 71.09.030.
(9) “Mental abnormality” means a congenital or acquired condition affecting the emotional or volitional capacity which predisposes the person to the commission of criminal sexual acts in a degree constituting such person a menace to the health and safety of others.
(10) “Personality disorder” means an enduring pattern of inner experience and behavior that deviates markedly from the expectations of the individual’s culture, is pervasive and inflexible, has onset in adolescence or early adulthood, is stable over time and leads to distress or impairment. Purported evidence of a personality disorder must be supported by testimony of a licensed forensic psychologist or psychiatrist.
(11) “Predatory” means acts directed towards: (a) Strangers; (b) individuals with whom a relationship has been established or promoted for the primary purpose of victimization; or (c) persons of casual acquaintance with whom no substantial personal relationship exists.
(12) “Prosecuting agency” means the prosecuting attorney of the county where the person was convicted or charged or the attorney general if requested by the prosecuting attorney, as provided in RCW 71.09.030.
(13) “Recent overt act” means any act, threat, or combination thereof that has either caused harm of a sexually violent nature or creates a reasonable apprehension of such harm in the mind of an objective person who knows of the history and mental condition of the person engaging in the act or behaviors.
(14) “Risk potential activity” or “risk potential facility” means an activity or facility that provides a higher incidence of risk to the public from persons conditionally released from the special commitment center. Risk potential activities and facilities include: Public and private schools, school bus stops, licensed day care and licensed preschool facilities, public parks, publicly dedicated trails, sports fields, playgrounds, recreational and community centers, churches, synagogues, temples, mosques, public libraries, public and private youth camps, and others identified by the department following the hearings on a potential site required in RCW 71.09.315. For purposes of this chapter, “school bus stops” does not include bus stops established primarily for public transit.
(15) “Secretary” means the secretary of social and health services or the secretary’s designee.
(16) “Secure community transition facility” means a residential facility for persons civilly committed and conditionally released to a less restrictive alternative under this chapter. A secure community transition facility has supervision and security, and either provides or ensures the provision of sex offender treatment services. Secure community transition facilities include but are not limited to the facility established pursuant to RCW 71.09.250(1)(a)(i) and any community-based facilities established under this chapter and operated by the secretary or under contract with the secretary.
(17) “Secure facility” means a residential facility for persons civilly confined under the provisions of this chapter that includes security measures sufficient to protect the community. Such facilities include total confinement facilities, secure community transition facilities, and any residence used as a court-ordered placement under RCW 71.09.096.
(18) “Sexually violent offense” means an act committed on, before, or after July 1, 1990, that is: (a) An act defined in Title 9A RCW as rape in the first degree, rape in the second degree by forcible compulsion, rape of a child in the first or second degree, statutory rape in the first or second degree, indecent liberties by forcible compulsion, indecent liberties against a child under age fourteen, incest against a child under age fourteen, or child molestation in the first or second degree; (b) a felony offense in effect at any time prior to July 1, 1990, that is comparable to a sexually violent offense as defined in (a) of this subsection, or any federal or out-of-state conviction for a felony offense that under the laws of this state would be a sexually violent offense as defined in this subsection; (c) an act of murder in the first or second degree, assault in the first or second degree, assault of a child in the first or second degree, kidnapping in the first or second degree, burglary in the first degree, residential burglary, or unlawful imprisonment, which act, either at the time of sentencing for the offense or subsequently during civil commitment proceedings pursuant to this chapter, has been determined beyond a reasonable doubt to have been sexually motivated, as that term is defined in RCW 9.94A.030; or (d) an act as described in chapter 9A.28 RCW, that is an attempt, criminal solicitation, or criminal conspiracy to commit one of the felonies designated in (a), (b), or (c) of this subsection.
(19) “Sexually violent predator” means any person who has been convicted of or charged with a crime of sexual violence and who suffers from a mental abnormality or personality disorder which makes the person likely to engage in predatory acts of sexual violence if not confined in a secure facility.
(20) “Total confinement facility” means a secure facility that provides supervision and sex offender treatment services in a total confinement setting. Total confinement facilities include the special commitment center and any similar facility designated as a total confinement facility by the secretary.
(21) “Treatment” means the sex offender specific treatment program at the special commitment center or a specific course of sex offender treatment pursuant to RCW 71.09.092 (1) and (2).
Title 71A. Developmental Disabilities
Chapter 71A. 10. General Provisions
71A.10.020. Definitions
As used in this title, the following terms have the meanings indicated unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
(1) “Administration” means the department of social and health services developmental disabilities administration.
(2) “Assessment” means an evaluation is provided by the department to determine:
(a) If the individual meets functional and financial criteria for medicaid services; and
(b) The individual’s support needs for service determination.
(3) “Community residential support services,” or “community support services,” and “in-home services” means one or more of the services listed in RCW 71A.12.040.
(4) “Crisis stabilization services” means services provided to persons with developmental disabilities who are experiencing behaviors that jeopardize the safety and stability of their current living situation. Crisis stabilization services include:
(a) Temporary intensive services and supports, typically not to exceed sixty days, to prevent psychiatric hospitalization, institutional placement, or other out-of-home placement; and
(b) Services designed to stabilize the person and strengthen their current living situation so the person may continue to safely reside in the community during and beyond the crisis period.
(5) “Department” means the department of social and health services.
(6) “Developmental disability” means a disability attributable to intellectual disability, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, autism, or another neurological or other condition of an individual found by the secretary to be closely related to an intellectual disability or to require treatment similar to that required for individuals with intellectual disabilities, which disability originates before the individual attains age eighteen, which has continued or can be expected to continue indefinitely, and which constitutes a substantial limitation to the individual. By June 30, 2025, the administration shall promulgate rules to further define developmental disability without the use of intelligence quotient scores.
(7) “Eligible person” means a person who has been found by the secretary under RCW 71A.16.040 to be eligible for services.
(8) “Habilitative services” means those services provided by program personnel to assist persons in acquiring and maintaining life skills and to raise their levels of physical, mental, social, and vocational functioning. Habilitative services include education, training for employment, and therapy.
(9) “Legal representative” means a parent of a person who is under eighteen years of age, a person’s legal guardian, a person’s limited guardian when the subject matter is within the scope of the limited guardianship, a person’s attorney-at-law, a person’s attorney-in-fact, or any other person who is authorized by law to act for another person.
(10) “Notice” or “notification” of an action of the secretary means notice in compliance with RCW 71A.10.060.
(11) “Residential habilitation center” means a state-operated facility for persons with developmental disabilities governed by chapter 71A.20 RCW.
(12) “Respite services” means relief for families and other caregivers of people with disabilities, typically not to exceed ninety days, to include both in-home and out-of-home respite care on an hourly and daily basis, including twenty-four hour care for several consecutive days. Respite care workers provide supervision, companionship, and personal care services temporarily replacing those provided by the primary caregiver of the person with disabilities. Respite care may include other services needed by the client, including medical care which must be provided by a licensed health care practitioner.
(13) “Secretary” means the secretary of social and health services or the secretary’s designee.
(14) “Service” or “services” means services provided by state or local government to carry out this title.
(15) “Service request list” means a list of eligible persons who have received an assessment for service determination and their assessment shows that they meet the eligibility requirements for the requested service but were denied access due to funding limits.
(16) “State-operated living alternative” means programs for community residential services which may include assistance with activities of daily living, behavioral, habilitative, interpersonal, protective, medical, nursing, and mobility supports to individuals who have been assessed by the department as meeting state and federal requirements for eligibility in home and community-based waiver programs for individuals with developmental disabilities. State-operated living alternatives are operated and staffed with state employees.
(17) “Supported living” means community residential services and housing which may include assistance with activities of daily living, behavioral, habilitative, interpersonal, protective, medical, nursing, and mobility supports provided to individuals with disabilities who have been assessed by the department as meeting state and federal requirements for eligibility in home and community-based waiver programs for individuals with developmental disabilities. Supported living services are provided under contracts with private agencies or with individuals who are not state employees.
(18) “Vacancy” means an opening at a residential habilitation center, which when filled, would not require the center to exceed its biennially budgeted capacity.
Title 74. Public Assistance
Chapter 74.34. Abuse of Vulnerable Adults
74.34.020. Definitions
The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
(1) “Abandonment” means action or inaction by a person or entity with a duty of care for a vulnerable adult that leaves the vulnerable person without the means or ability to obtain necessary food, clothing, shelter, or health care.
(2) “Abuse” means the intentional, willful, or reckless action or inaction that inflicts injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or punishment on a vulnerable adult. In instances of abuse of a vulnerable adult who is unable to express or demonstrate physical harm, pain, or mental anguish, the abuse is presumed to cause physical harm, pain, or mental anguish. Abuse includes sexual abuse, mental abuse, physical abuse, and personal exploitation of a vulnerable adult, and improper use of restraint against a vulnerable adult which have the following meanings:
(a) “Sexual abuse” means any form of nonconsensual sexual conduct, including but not limited to unwanted or inappropriate touching, rape, molestation, indecent liberties, sexual coercion, sexually explicit photographing or recording, voyeurism, indecent exposure, and sexual harassment. Sexual abuse also includes any sexual conduct between a staff person, who is not also a resident or client, of a facility or a staff person of a program authorized under chapter 71A.12 RCW, and a vulnerable adult living in that facility or receiving service from a program authorized under chapter 71A.12 RCW, whether or not it is consensual.
(b) “Physical abuse” means the intentional, willful, or reckless action of inflicting bodily injury or physical mistreatment. Physical abuse includes, but is not limited to, striking with or without an object, slapping, pinching, choking, kicking, shoving, or prodding.
(c) “Mental abuse” means an intentional, willful, or reckless verbal or nonverbal action that threatens, humiliates, harasses, coerces, intimidates, isolates, unreasonably confines, or punishes a vulnerable adult. Mental abuse may include ridiculing, yelling, or swearing.
(d) “Personal exploitation” means an act of forcing, compelling, or exerting undue influence over a vulnerable adult causing the vulnerable adult to act in a way that is inconsistent with relevant past behavior, or causing the vulnerable adult to perform services for the benefit of another.
(e) “Improper use of restraint” means the inappropriate use of chemical, physical, or mechanical restraints for convenience or discipline or in a manner that: (i) Is inconsistent with federal or state licensing or certification requirements for facilities, hospitals, or programs authorized under chapter 71A.12 RCW; (ii) is not medically authorized; or (iii) otherwise constitutes abuse under this section.
(3) “Chemical restraint” means the administration of any drug to manage a vulnerable adult’s behavior in a way that reduces the safety risk to the vulnerable adult or others, has the temporary effect of restricting the vulnerable adult’s freedom of movement, and is not standard treatment for the vulnerable adult’s medical or psychiatric condition.
(4) “Consent” means express written consent granted after the vulnerable adult or his or her legal representative has been fully informed of the nature of the services to be offered and that the receipt of services is voluntary.
(5) “Department” means the department of social and health services.
(6) “Facility” means a residence licensed or required to be licensed under chapter 18.20 RCW, assisted living facilities; chapter 18.51 RCW, nursing homes; chapter 70.128 RCW, adult family homes; chapter 72.36 RCW, soldiers’ homes; chapter 71A.20 RCW, residential habilitation centers; or any other facility licensed or certified by the department.
(7) “Financial exploitation” means the illegal or improper use, control over, or withholding of the property, income, resources, or trust funds of the vulnerable adult by any person or entity for any person’s or entity’s profit or advantage other than for the vulnerable adult’s profit or advantage. “Financial exploitation” includes, but is not limited to:
(a) The use of deception, intimidation, or undue influence by a person or entity in a position of trust and confidence with a vulnerable adult to obtain or use the property, income, resources, or trust funds of the vulnerable adult for the benefit of a person or entity other than the vulnerable adult;
(b) The breach of a fiduciary duty, including, but not limited to, the misuse of a power of attorney, trust, or a guardianship appointment, that results in the unauthorized appropriation, sale, or transfer of the property, income, resources, or trust funds of the vulnerable adult for the benefit of a person or entity other than the vulnerable adult; or
(c) Obtaining or using a vulnerable adult’s property, income, resources, or trust funds without lawful authority, by a person or entity who knows or clearly should know that the vulnerable adult lacks the capacity to consent to the release or use of his or her property, income, resources, or trust funds.
(8) “Financial institution” has the same meaning as in RCW 30A.22.040 and 30A.22.041. For purposes of this chapter only, “financial institution” also means a “broker-dealer” or “investment adviser” as defined in RCW 21.20.005.
(9) “Hospital” means a facility licensed under chapter 70.41 or 71.12 RCW or a state hospital defined in chapter 72.23 RCW and any employee, agent, officer, director, or independent contractor thereof.
(10) “Individual provider” has the same meaning as in RCW 74.39A.240.
(11) “Interested person” means a person who demonstrates to the court’s satisfaction that the person is interested in the welfare of the vulnerable adult, that the person has a good faith belief that the court’s intervention is necessary, and that the vulnerable adult is unable, due to incapacity, undue influence, or duress at the time the petition is filed, to protect his or her own interests.
(12)(a) “Isolate” or “isolation” means to restrict a vulnerable adult’s ability to communicate, visit, interact, or otherwise associate with persons of his or her choosing. Isolation may be evidenced by acts including but not limited to:
(i) Acts that prevent a vulnerable adult from sending, making, or receiving his or her personal mail, electronic communications, or telephone calls; or
(ii) Acts that prevent or obstruct the vulnerable adult from meeting with others, such as telling a prospective visitor or caller that a vulnerable adult is not present, or does not wish contact, where the statement is contrary to the express wishes of the vulnerable adult.
(b) The term “isolate” or “isolation” may not be construed in a manner that prevents a guardian or limited guardian from performing his or her fiduciary obligations under chapter 11.130 RCW or prevents a hospital or facility from providing treatment consistent with the standard of care for delivery of health services.
(13) “Mandated reporter” is an employee of the department or the department of children, youth, and families; law enforcement officer; social worker; professional school personnel; individual provider; an operator of a facility or a certified residential services and supports agency under chapter 71A.12 RCW; an employee of a facility; an employee of a social service, welfare, mental health, adult day health, adult day care, home health, home care, hospice, or certified residential services and supports agency; county coroner or medical examiner; Christian Science practitioner; or health care provider subject to chapter 18.130 RCW.
(14) “Mechanical restraint” means any device attached or adjacent to the vulnerable adult’s body that he or she cannot easily remove that restricts freedom of movement or normal access to his or her body. “Mechanical restraint” does not include the use of devices, materials, or equipment that are (a) medically authorized, as required, and (b) used in a manner that is consistent with federal or state licensing or certification requirements for facilities, hospitals, or programs authorized under chapter 71A.12 RCW.
(15) “Neglect” means (a) a pattern of conduct or inaction by a person or entity with a duty of care that fails to provide the goods and services that maintain physical or mental health of a vulnerable adult, or that fails to avoid or prevent physical or mental harm or pain to a vulnerable adult; or (b) an act or omission by a person or entity with a duty of care that demonstrates a serious disregard of consequences of such a magnitude as to constitute a clear and present danger to the vulnerable adult’s health, welfare, or safety, including but not limited to conduct prohibited under RCW 9A.42.100.
(16) “Permissive reporter” means any person, including, but not limited to, an employee of a financial institution, attorney, or volunteer in a facility or program providing services for vulnerable adults.
(17) “Physical restraint” means the application of physical force without the use of any device, for the purpose of restraining the free movement of a vulnerable adult’s body. “Physical restraint” does not include (a) briefly holding without undue force a vulnerable adult in order to calm or comfort him or her, or (b) holding a vulnerable adult’s hand to safely escort him or her from one area to another.
(18) “Protective services” means any services provided by the department to a vulnerable adult with the consent of the vulnerable adult, or the legal representative of the vulnerable adult, who has been abandoned, abused, financially exploited, neglected, or in a state of self-neglect. These services may include, but are not limited to case management, social casework, home care, placement, arranging for medical evaluations, psychological evaluations, day care, or referral for legal assistance.
(19) “Self-neglect” means the failure of a vulnerable adult, not living in a facility, to provide for himself or herself the goods and services necessary for the vulnerable adult’s physical or mental health, and the absence of which impairs or threatens the vulnerable adult’s well-being. This definition may include a vulnerable adult who is receiving services through home health, hospice, or a home care agency, or an individual provider when the neglect is not a result of inaction by that agency or individual provider.
(20) “Social worker” means:
(a) A social worker as defined in RCW 18.320.010(2); or
(b) Anyone engaged in a professional capacity during the regular course of employment in encouraging or promoting the health, welfare, support, or education of vulnerable adults, or providing social services to vulnerable adults, whether in an individual capacity or as an employee or agent of any public or private organization or institution.
(21) “Vulnerable adult” includes a person:
(a) Sixty years of age or older who has the functional, mental, or physical inability to care for himself or herself; or
(b) Subject to a guardianship under RCW 11.130.265 or adult subject to conservatorship under RCW 11.130.360; or
(c) Who has a developmental disability as defined under RCW 71A.10.020; or
(d) Admitted to any facility; or
(e) Receiving services from home health, hospice, or home care agencies licensed or required to be licensed under chapter 70.127 RCW; or
(f) Receiving services from an individual provider; or
(g) Who self-directs his or her own care and receives services from a personal aide under chapter 74.39 RCW.
(22) “Vulnerable adult advocacy team” means a team of three or more persons who coordinate a multidisciplinary process, in compliance with chapter 266, Laws of 2017 and the protocol governed by RCW 74.34.320, for preventing, identifying, investigating, prosecuting, and providing services related to abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of vulnerable adults.
74.34.110. Protection of vulnerable adults--Petition for protective order
A vulnerable adult, or interested person on behalf of the vulnerable adult, may seek relief from abandonment, abuse, financial exploitation, or neglect, or the threat thereof, by filing a petition for a vulnerable adult protection order under chapter 7.105 RCW.
Part IV. Rules for Superior Court
Superior Court Civil Rules
3. Pleadings and Motions
RULE 11. SIGNING AND DRAFTING OF PLEADINGS, MOTIONS, AND LEGAL MEMORANDA; SANCTIONS
(a) Every pleading, motion, and legal memorandum of a party represented by an attorney shall be dated and signed by at least one attorney of record in the attorney’s individual name, whose address and Washington State Bar Association membership number shall be stated. A party who is not represented by an attorney shall sign and date the party’s pleading, motion, or legal memorandum and state the party’s address. Petitions for dissolution of marriage, separation, declarations concerning the validity of a marriage, custody, and modification of decrees issued as a result of any of the foregoing petitions shall be verified. Other pleadings need not, but may be, verified or accompanied by affidavit. The signature of a party or of an attorney constitutes a certificate by the party or attorney that the party or attorney has read the pleading, motion, or legal memorandum, and that to the best of the party’s or attorney’s knowledge, information, and belief, formed after an inquiry reasonable under the circumstances: (1) it is well grounded in fact; (2) it is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law or the establishment of new law; (3) it is not interposed for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation; and (4) the denials of factual contentions are warranted on the evidence or, if specifically so identified, are reasonably based on a lack of information or belief. If a pleading, motion, or legal memorandum is not signed, it shall be stricken unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the pleader or movant. If a pleading, motion, or legal memorandum is signed in violation of this rule, the court, upon motion or upon its own initiative, may impose upon the person who signed it, a represented party, or both, an appropriate sanction, which may include an order to pay to the other party or parties the amount of the reasonable expenses incurred because of the filing of the pleading, motion, or legal memorandum, including a reasonable attorney fee.
(b) In helping to draft a pleading, motion or document filed by the otherwise self-represented person, the attorney certifies that the attorney has read the pleading, motion, or legal memorandum, and that to the best of the attorney’s knowledge, information, and belief, formed after an inquiry reasonable under the circumstances: (1) it is well grounded in fact, (2) it is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law or the establishment of new law, (3) it is not interposed for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation, and (4) the denials of factual contentions are warranted on the evidence or, if specifically so identified, are reasonably based on a lack of information or belief. The attorney in providing such drafting assistance may rely on the otherwise self-represented person’s representation of facts, unless the attorney has reason to believe that such representations are false or materially insufficient, in which instance the attorney shall make an independent reasonable inquiry into the facts.