Las leyes incluidas están actualizadas hasta la Ley 96 de la Sesión Regular de 2024. En este momento no hay una versión oficial de las leyes de Pennsylvania en español, pero puede encontrar estas y otras leyes en inglés aquí.
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Las leyes incluidas están actualizadas hasta la Ley 96 de la Sesión Regular de 2024. En este momento no hay una versión oficial de las leyes de Pennsylvania en español, pero puede encontrar estas y otras leyes en inglés aquí.
(a) General rule.–An offense defined by this title for which a sentence of death or of imprisonment is authorized constitutes a crime. The classes of crime are:
(1) Murder of the first degree, of the second degree or of the third degree, first degree murder of an unborn child, second degree murder of an unborn child or third degree murder of an unborn child.
(2) Felony of the first degree.
(3) Felony of the second degree.
(4) Felony of the third degree.
(5) Misdemeanor of the first degree.
(6) Misdemeanor of the second degree.
(7) Misdemeanor of the third degree.
(b) Classification of crimes.–
(1) A crime is a murder of the first degree, of the second degree or of the third degree if it is so designated in this title or if a person convicted of criminal homicide may be sentenced in accordance with the provisions of section 1102 (relating to sentence for murder and murder of an unborn child). A crime is first degree murder of an unborn child, second degree murder of an unborn child or third degree murder of an unborn child if it is so designated in this title or if a person convicted of criminal homicide of an unborn child may be sentenced in accordance with the provisions of section 1102.
(2) A crime is a felony of the first degree if it is so designated in this title or if a person convicted thereof may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the maximum of which is more than ten years.
(3) A crime is a felony of the second degree if it is so designated in this title or if a person convicted thereof may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the maximum of which is not more than ten years.
(4) A crime is a felony of the third degree if it is so designated in this title or if a person convicted thereof may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the maximum of which is not more than seven years.
(5) A crime declared to be a felony, without specification of degree, is of the third degree.
(6) A crime is a misdemeanor of the first degree if it is so designated in this title or if a person convicted thereof may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the maximum of which is not more than five years.
(7) A crime is a misdemeanor of the second degree if it is so designated in this title or if a person convicted thereof may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the maximum of which is not more than two years.
(8) A crime is a misdemeanor of the third degree if it is so designated in this title or if a person convicted thereof may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the maximum of which is not more than one year.
(9) A crime declared to be a misdemeanor, without specification of degree, is of the third degree.
(c) Summary offenses.–An offense defined by this title constitutes a summary offense if:
(1) it is so designated in this title, or in a statute other than this title; or
(2) if a person convicted thereof may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the maximum of which is not more than 90 days.
(d) Other crimes.–Any offense declared by law to constitute a crime, without specification of the class thereof, is a misdemeanor of the second degree, if the maximum sentence does not make it a felony under this section.
(e) Section applicable to other statutes.–An offense hereafter defined by any statute other than this title shall be classified as provided in this section.
A person who has been convicted of an offense may be sentenced to pay a fine not exceeding:
(1) $50,000, when the conviction is of murder or attempted murder.
(2) $25,000, when the conviction is of a felony of the first or second degree.
(3) $15,000, when the conviction is of a felony of the third degree.
(4) $10,000, when the conviction is of a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(5) $5,000, when the conviction is of a misdemeanor of the second degree.
(6) $2,500, when the conviction is of a misdemeanor of the third degree.
(7) $300, when the conviction is of a summary offense for which no higher fine is established.
(8) Any higher amount equal to double the pecuniary gain derived from the offense by the offender.
(9) Any higher or lower amount specifically authorized by statute.
Except as provided in 42 Pa.C.S. § 9714 (relating to sentences for second and subsequent offenses), a person who has been convicted of a felony may be sentenced to imprisonment as follows:
(1) In the case of a felony of the first degree, for a term which shall be fixed by the court at not more than 20 years.
(2) In the case of a felony of the second degree, for a term which shall be fixed by the court at not more than ten years.
(3) In the case of a felony of the third degree, for a term which shall be fixed by the court at not more than seven years.
A person who has been convicted of a misdemeanor may be sentenced to imprisonment for a definite term which shall be fixed by the court and shall be not more than:
(1) Five years in the case of a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(2) Two years in the case of a misdemeanor of the second degree.
(3) One year in the case of a misdemeanor of the third degree.
Subject to additional definitions contained in subsequent provisions of this article which are applicable to specific chapters or other provisions of this article, the following words and phrases, when used in this article shall have, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, the meanings given to them in this section:
“Bodily injury.” Impairment of physical condition or substantial pain.
“Deadly weapon.” Any firearm, whether loaded or unloaded, or any device designed as a weapon and capable of producing death or serious bodily injury, or any other device or instrumentality which, in the manner in which it is used or intended to be used, is calculated or likely to produce death or serious bodily injury.
“Serious bodily injury.” Bodily injury which creates a substantial risk of death or which causes serious, permanent disfigurement, or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ.
“Serious provocation.” Conduct sufficient to excite an intense passion in a reasonable person.
(a) Offense defined.– Except as provided under section 2702 (relating to aggravated assault), a person is guilty of assault if he:
(1) attempts to cause or intentionally, knowingly or recklessly causes bodily injury to another;
(2) negligently causes bodily injury to another with a deadly weapon;
(3) attempts by physical menace to put another in fear of imminent serious bodily injury; or
(4) conceals or attempts to conceal a hypodermic needle on his person and intentionally or knowingly penetrates a law enforcement officer or an officer or an employee of a correctional institution, county jail or prison, detention facility or mental hospital during the course of an arrest or any search of the person.
(b) Grading.–Simple assault is a misdemeanor of the second degree unless committed:
(1) in a fight or scuffle entered into by mutual consent, in which case it is a misdemeanor of the third degree; or
(2) against a child under 12 years of age by a person 18 years of age or older, in which case it is a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(a) Offense defined.–A person is guilty of aggravated assault if he:
(1) attempts to cause serious bodily injury to another, or causes such injury intentionally, knowingly or recklessly under circumstances manifesting extreme indifference to the value of human life;
(2) attempts to cause or intentionally, knowingly or recklessly causes serious bodily injury to any of the officers, agents, employees or other persons enumerated in subsection (c) or to an employee of an agency, company or other entity engaged in public transportation, while in the performance of duty;
(3) attempts to cause or intentionally or knowingly causes bodily injury to any of the officers, agents, employees or other persons enumerated in subsection (c), in the performance of duty;
(4) attempts to cause or intentionally or knowingly causes bodily injury to another with a deadly weapon;
(5) attempts to cause or intentionally or knowingly causes bodily injury to a teaching staff member, school board member or other employee, including a student employee, of any elementary or secondary publicly-funded educational institution, any elementary or secondary private school licensed by the Department of Education or any elementary or secondary parochial school while acting in the scope of his or her employment or because of his or her employment relationship to the school;
(6) attempts by physical menace to put any of the officers, agents, employees or other persons enumerated in subsection (c), while in the performance of duty, in fear of imminent serious bodily injury;
(7) uses tear or noxious gas as defined in section 2708(b) (relating to use of tear or noxious gas in labor disputes) or uses an electric or electronic incapacitation device against any officer, employee or other person enumerated in subsection (c) while acting in the scope of his employment;
(8) attempts to cause or intentionally, knowingly or recklessly causes bodily injury to a child less than six years of age, by a person 18 years of age or older; or
(9) attempts to cause or intentionally, knowingly or recklessly causes serious bodily injury to a child less than 13 years of age, by a person 18 years of age or older.
(b) Grading.–Aggravated assault under subsection (a)(1), (2) and (9) is a felony of the first degree. Aggravated assault under subsection (a)(3), (4), (5), (6), (7) and (8) is a felony of the second degree.
(c) Officers, employees, etc., enumerated.–The officers, agents, employees and other persons referred to in subsection (a) shall be as follows:
(1) Police officer.
(2) Firefighter.
(3) County adult probation or parole officer.
(4) County juvenile probation or parole officer.
(5) An agent of the Pennsylvania Board of Probation and Parole.
(6) Sheriff.
(7) Deputy sheriff.
(8) Liquor control enforcement agent.
(9) Officer or employee of a correctional institution, county jail or prison, juvenile detention center or any other facility to which the person has been ordered by the court pursuant to a petition alleging delinquency under 42 Pa.C.S. Ch. 63 (relating to juvenile matters).
(10) Judge of any court in the unified judicial system.
(11) The Attorney General.
(12) A deputy attorney general.
(13) A district attorney.
(14) An assistant district attorney.
(15) A public defender.
(16) An assistant public defender.
(17) A Federal law enforcement official.
(18) A State law enforcement official.
(19) A local law enforcement official.
(20) Any person employed to assist or who assists any Federal, State or local law enforcement official.
(21) Emergency medical services personnel.
(22) Parking enforcement officer.
(23) A magisterial district judge.
(24) A constable.
(25) A deputy constable.
(26) A psychiatric aide.
(27) A teaching staff member, a school board member or other employee, including a student employee, of any elementary or secondary publicly funded educational institution, any elementary or secondary private school licensed by the Department of Education or any elementary or secondary parochial school while acting in the scope of his or her employment or because of his or her employment relationship to the school.
(28) Governor.
(29) Lieutenant Governor.
(30) Auditor General.
(31) State Treasurer.
(32) Member of the General Assembly.
(33) An employee of the Department of Environmental Protection.
(34) An individual engaged in the private detective business as defined in section 2(a) and (b) of the act of August 21, 1953 (P.L. 1273, No. 361),1 known as The Private Detective Act of 1953.
(35) An employee or agent of a county children and youth social service agency or of the legal representative of such agency.
(36) A public utility employee or an employee of an electric cooperative.
(37) A wildlife conservation officer or deputy wildlife conservation officer of the Pennsylvania Game Commission.
(38) A waterways conservation officer or deputy waterways conservation officer of the Pennsylvania Fish and Boat Commission.
(39) A health care practitioner or technician.
(d) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection:
“Electric or electronic incapacitation device.” A portable device which is designed or intended by the manufacturer to be used, offensively or defensively, to temporarily immobilize or incapacitate persons by means of electric pulse or current, including devices operated by means of carbon dioxide propellant. The term does not include cattle prods, electric fences or other electric devices when used in agricultural, animal husbandry or food production activities.
“Emergency medical services personnel.” The term includes, but is not limited to, doctors, residents, interns, registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, nurse aides, ambulance attendants and operators, paramedics, emergency medical technicians and members of a hospital security force while working within the scope of their employment.
“Health care practitioner.” As defined in section 103 of the act of July 19, 1979 (P.L. 130, No. 48),2 known as the Health Care Facilities Act.
“Technician.” As defined in section 2 of the act of December 20, 1985 (P.L. 457, No. 112),3 known as the Medical Practice Act of 1985.
A person commits a misdemeanor of the second degree if he recklessly engages in conduct which places or may place another person in danger of death or serious bodily injury.
(a) Offense defined.–A person commits the crime of harassment when, with intent to harass, annoy or alarm another, the person:
(1) strikes, shoves, kicks or otherwise subjects the other person to physical contact, or attempts or threatens to do the same;
(2) follows the other person in or about a public place or places;
(3) engages in a course of conduct or repeatedly commits acts which serve no legitimate purpose;
(4) communicates to or about such other person any lewd, lascivious, threatening or obscene words, language, drawings or caricatures;
(5) communicates repeatedly in an anonymous manner;
(6) communicates repeatedly at extremely inconvenient hours; or
(7) communicates repeatedly in a manner other than specified in paragraphs (4), (5) and (6).
(a.1) Cyber harassment of a child.–
(1) A person commits the crime of cyber harassment of a child if, with intent to harass, annoy or alarm, the person engages in a continuing course of conduct of making any of the following by electronic means directly to a child or by publication through an electronic social media service:
(i) seriously disparaging statement or opinion about the child’s physical characteristics, sexuality, sexual activity or mental or physical health or condition; or
(ii) threat to inflict harm.
(2)(i) If a juvenile is charged with a violation of paragraph (1), the judicial authority with jurisdiction over the violation shall give first consideration to referring the juvenile charged with the violation to a diversionary program under Pa.R.J.C.P. No. 312(relating to Informal Adjustment) or No. 370 (relating to Consent Decree). As part of the diversionary program, the judicial authority may order the juvenile to participate in an educational program which includes the legal and nonlegal consequences of cyber harassment.
(ii) If the person successfully completes the diversionary program, the juvenile’s records of the charge of violating paragraph (1) shall be expunged as provided for under section 9123 (relating to juvenile records).
(b) Deleted by 2002, Dec. 9, P.L. 1759, No. 218, § 1, effective in 60 days.
(b.1) Venue.–
(1) An offense committed under this section may be deemed to have been committed at either the place at which the communication or communications were made or at the place where the communication or communications were received.
(2) Acts indicating a course of conduct which occur in more than one jurisdiction may be used by any other jurisdiction in which an act occurred as evidence of a continuing pattern of conduct or a course of conduct.
(3) In addition to paragraphs (1) and (2), an offense under subsection (a.1) may be deemed to have been committed at the place where the child who is the subject of the communication resides.
(c) Grading.–
(1) Except as provided under paragraph (3), an offense under subsection (a)(1), (2) or (3) shall constitute a summary offense.
(2) An offense under subsection (a)(4), (5), (6) or (7) or (a.1) shall constitute a misdemeanor of the third degree.
(3) The grading of an offense under subsection (a)(1), (2) or (3) shall be enhanced one degree if the person has previously violated an order issued under 23 Pa.C.S. § 6108 (relating to relief) involving the same victim, family or household member.
(d) False reports.–A person who knowingly gives false information to any law enforcement officer with the intent to implicate another under this section commits an offense under section 4906 (relating to false reports to law enforcement authorities).
(e) Application of section.–This section shall not apply to constitutionally protected activity.
(f) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection:
“Communicates.” Conveys a message without intent of legitimate communication or address by oral, nonverbal, written or electronic means, including telephone, electronic mail, Internet, facsimile, telex, wireless communication or similar transmission.
“Course of conduct.” A pattern of actions composed of more than one act over a period of time, however short, evidencing a continuity of conduct. The term includes lewd, lascivious, threatening or obscene words, language, drawings, caricatures or actions, either in person or anonymously. Acts indicating a course of conduct which occur in more than one jurisdiction may be used by any other jurisdiction in which an act occurred as evidence of a continuing pattern of conduct or a course of conduct.
“Emotional distress.” A temporary or permanent state of mental anguish.
“Family or household member.” Spouses or persons who have been spouses, persons living as spouses or who lived as spouses, parents and children, other persons related by consanguinity or affinity, current or former sexual or intimate partners or persons who share biological parenthood.
“Seriously disparaging statement or opinion.” A statement or opinion which is intended to and under the circumstances is reasonably likely to cause substantial emotional distress to a child of the victim’s age and which produces some physical manifestation of the distress.
(a) Offense defined.–A person commits the crime of stalking when the person either:
(1) engages in a course of conduct or repeatedly commits acts toward another person, including following the person without proper authority, under circumstances which demonstrate either an intent to place such other person in reasonable fear of bodily injury or to cause substantial emotional distress to such other person; or
(2) engages in a course of conduct or repeatedly communicates to another person under circumstances which demonstrate or communicate either an intent to place such other person in reasonable fear of bodily injury or to cause substantial emotional distress to such other person.
(b) Venue.–
(1) An offense committed under this section may be deemed to have been committed at either the place at which the communication or communications were made or at the place where the communication or communications were received.
(2) Acts indicating a course of conduct which occur in more than one jurisdiction may be used by any other jurisdiction in which an act occurred as evidence of a continuing pattern of conduct or a course of conduct.
(c) Grading.–
(1) Except as otherwise provided for in paragraph (2), a first offense under this section shall constitute a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(2) A second or subsequent offense under this section or a first offense under subsection (a) if the person has been previously convicted of a crime of violence involving the same victim, family or household member, including, but not limited to, a violation of section 2701 (relating to simple assault), 2702 (relating to aggravated assault), 2705 (relating to recklessly endangering another person), 2718 (relating to strangulation), 2901 (relating to kidnapping), 3121 (relating to rape) or 3123 (relating to involuntary deviate sexual intercourse), an order issued under section 4954 (relating to protective orders) or an order issued under 23 Pa.C.S. § 6108 (relating to relief) shall constitute a felony of the third degree.
(d) False reports.–A person who knowingly gives false information to any law enforcement officer with the intent to implicate another under this section commits an offense under section 4906 (relating to false reports to law enforcement authorities).
(e) Application of section.–This section shall not apply to constitutionally protected activity.
(f) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection:
“Communicates.” To convey a message without intent of legitimate communication or address by oral, nonverbal, written or electronic means, including telephone, electronic mail, Internet, facsimile, telex, wireless communication or similar transmission.
“Course of conduct.” A pattern of actions composed of more than one act over a period of time, however short, evidencing a continuity of conduct. The term includes lewd, lascivious, threatening or obscene words, language, drawings, caricatures or actions, either in person or anonymously. Acts indicating a course of conduct which occur in more than one jurisdiction may be used by any other jurisdiction in which an act occurred as evidence of a continuing pattern of conduct or a course of conduct.
“Emotional distress.” A temporary or permanent state of mental anguish.“Family or household member.” Spouses or persons who have been spouses, persons living as spouses or who lived as spouses, parents and children, other persons related by consanguinity or affinity, current or former sexual or intimate partners or persons who share biological parenthood.
(a) Offense defined.–A person commits the offense of strangulation if the person knowingly or intentionally impedes the breathing or circulation of the blood of another person by:
(1) applying pressure to the throat or neck; or
(2) blocking the nose and mouth of the person.
(b) Physical injury.–Infliction of a physical injury to a victim shall not be an element of the offense. The lack of physical injury to a victim shall not be a defense in a prosecution under this section.
(c) Affirmative defense.–It shall be an affirmative defense to a charge under this section that the victim consented to the defendant’s actions as provided under section 311 (relating to consent).
(d) Grading.–
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) or (3), a violation of this section shall constitute a misdemeanor of the second degree.
(2) A violation of this section shall constitute a felony of the second degree if committed:
(i) against a family or household member as defined in 23 Pa.C.S. § 6102 (relating to definitions);
(ii) by a caretaker against a care-dependent person; or
(iii) in conjunction with sexual violence as defined in 42 Pa.C.S. § 62A03 (relating to definitions) or conduct constituting a crime under section 2709.1 (relating to stalking) or Subchapter B1 of Chapter 30 (relating to prosecution of human trafficking).
(3) A violation of this section shall constitute a felony of the first degree if:
(i) at the time of commission of the offense, the defendant is subject to an active protection from abuse order under 23 Pa.C.S. Ch. 61 (relating to protection from abuse) or a sexual violence or intimidation protection order under 42 Pa.C.S. Ch. 62A (relating to protection of victims of sexual violence or intimidation) that covers the victim;
(ii) the defendant uses an instrument of crime as defined in section 907 (relating to possessing instruments of crime) in commission of the offense under this section; or
(iii) the defendant has previously been convicted of an offense under paragraph (2) or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction.
(e) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
“Care-dependent person.” An adult who, due to physical or cognitive disability or impairment, requires assistance to meet his needs for food, shelter, clothing, personal care or health care.
“Caretaker.” Any person who:
(1) Is an owner, operator, manager or employee of any of the following:
(i) A nursing home, personal care home, assisted living facility, private care residence or domiciliary home.
(ii) A community residential facility or intermediate care facility for a person with mental disabilities.
(iii) An adult daily living center.
(iv) A home health service provider whether licensed or unlicensed.
(v) An entity licensed under the act of July 19, 1979 (P.L. 130, No. 48),2 known as the Health Care Facilities Act.
(2) Provides care to a care-dependent person in the settings described under paragraph (1).
(3) Has an obligation to care for a care-dependent person for monetary consideration in the settings described under paragraph (1).
(4) Is an adult who resides with a care-dependent person and who has a legal duty to provide care or who has voluntarily assumed an obligation to provide care because of a familial relationship, contract or court order.
(5) Is an adult who does not reside with a care-dependent person but who has a legal duty to provide care or who has affirmatively assumed a responsibility for care or who has responsibility by contract or court order.
“Legal entity.” An individual, partnership, unincorporated association, corporation or governing authority.
“Private care residence.”
(1) A private residence:
(i) in which the owner of the residence or the legal entity responsible for the operation of the residence, for monetary consideration, provides or assists with or arranges for the provision of food, room, shelter, clothing, personal care or health care in the residence, for a period exceeding 24 hours, to fewer than four care-dependent persons who are not relatives of the owner; and
(ii) which is not required to be licensed as a long-term care nursing facility, as defined in section 802.13 of the Health Care Facilities Act.
(2) The term does not include:
(i) Domiciliary care as defined in section 2202-A of the act of April 9, 1929 (P.L. 177, No. 175),4 known as The Administrative Code of 1929.
(ii) A facility which provides residential care for fewer than four care-dependent adults and which is regulated by the Department of Human Services.
(a) Offense defined.– Except as provided in subsection (a.1), a person is guilty of kidnapping if he unlawfully removes another a substantial distance under the circumstances from the place where he is found, or if he unlawfully confines another for a substantial period in a place of isolation, with any of the following intentions:
(1) To hold for ransom or reward, or as a shield or hostage.
(2) To facilitate commission of any felony or flight thereafter.
(3) To inflict bodily injury on or to terrorize the victim or another.
(4) To interfere with the performance by public officials of any governmental or political function.
(a.1) Kidnapping of a minor.–A person is guilty of kidnapping of a minor if he unlawfully removes a person under 18 years of age a substantial distance under the circumstances from the place where he is found, or if he unlawfully confines a person under 18 years of age for a substantial period in a place of isolation, with any of the following intentions:
(1) To hold for ransom or reward, or as a shield or hostage.
(2) To facilitate commission of any felony or flight thereafter.
(3) To inflict bodily injury on or to terrorize the victim or another.
(4) To interfere with the performance by public officials of any governmental or political function.
(b) Grading.– The following apply:
(1) Kidnapping under subsection (a) is a felony of the first degree. A removal or confinement is unlawful within the meaning of subsection (a) if it is accomplished by force, threat or deception, or, in the case of an incapacitated person, if it is accomplished without the consent of a parent, guardian or other person responsible for general supervision of his welfare.
(2) Kidnapping under subsection (a.1) is a felony of the first degree. A removal or confinement is unlawful within the meaning of subsection (a.1) if it is accomplished by force, threat or deception, or, in the case of a person under 14 years of age, if it is accomplished without consent of a parent, guardian or other person responsible for general supervision of his welfare.
(a) Offense defined.– Except as provided under subsection (b) or (c), a person commits a misdemeanor of the first degree if he knowingly:
(1) restrains another unlawfully in circumstances exposing him to risk of serious bodily injury; or
(2) holds another in a condition of involuntary servitude.
(b) Unlawful restraint of a minor where offender is not victim’s parent.–If the victim is a person under 18 years of age, a person who is not the victim’s parent commits a felony of the second degree if he knowingly:
(1) restrains another unlawfully in circumstances exposing him to risk of serious bodily injury; or
(2) holds another in a condition of involuntary servitude.
(c) Unlawful restraint of minor where offender is victim’s parent.–If the victim is a person under 18 years of age, a parent of the victim commits a felony of the second degree if he knowingly:
(1) restrains another unlawfully in circumstances exposing him to risk of serious bodily injury; or
(2) holds another in a condition of involuntary servitude.
(d) Definition.–As used in this section the term “parent” means a natural parent, stepparent, adoptive parent or guardian of a minor.
(a) Offense defined.–Except as provided under subsection (b) or (c), a person commits a misdemeanor of the second degree if he knowingly restrains another unlawfully so as to interfere substantially with his liberty.
(b) false imprisonment of a minor where offender is not victim’s parent.–If the victim is a person under 18 years of age, a person who is not the victim’s parent commits a felony of the second degree if he knowingly restrains another unlawfully so as to interfere substantially with his liberty.
(c) False imprisonment of a minor where offender is victim’s parent.–If the victim is a person under 18 years of age, a parent of the victim commits a felony of the second degree if he knowingly restrains another unlawfully so as to interfere substantially with his liberty.
(d) Definition.–As used in this section the term “parent” means a natural parent, stepparent, adoptive parent or guardian of a minor.
(a) Offense defined.–A person commits an offense if he knowingly or recklessly takes or entices any child under the age of 18 years from the custody of its parent, guardian or other lawful custodian, when he has no privilege to do so.
(b) Defenses.–It is a defense that:
(1) the actor believed that his action was necessary to preserve the child from danger to its welfare; or
(2) the child, being at the time not less than 14 years old, was taken away at its own instigation without enticement and without purpose to commit a criminal offense with or against the child; or
(3) the actor is the child’s parent or guardian or other lawful custodian and is not acting contrary to an order entered by a court of competent jurisdiction.
(c) Grading.–The offense is a felony of the third degree unless:
(1) the actor, not being a parent or person in equivalent relation to the child, acted with knowledge that his conduct would cause serious alarm for the safety of the child, or in reckless disregard of a likelihood of causing such alarm. In such cases, the offense shall be a felony of the second degree; or
(2) the actor acted with good cause for a period of time not in excess of 24 hours; and
(i) the victim child is the subject of a valid order of custody issued by a court of this Commonwealth;
(ii) the actor has been given either partial custody or visitation rights under said order; and
(iii) the actor is a resident of this Commonwealth and does not remove the child from the Commonwealth.
In such cases, the offense shall be a misdemeanor of the second degree.
(a) Offense defined.–A person who removes a child from the child’s known place of residence with the intent to conceal the child’s whereabouts from the child’s parent or guardian, unless concealment is authorized by court order or is a reasonable response to domestic violence or child abuse, commits a felony of the third degree. For purposes of this subsection, the term “removes” includes personally removing the child from the child’s known place of residence, causing the child to be removed from the child’s known place of residence, preventing the child from returning or being returned to the child’s known place of residence and, when the child’s parent or guardian has a reasonable expectation that the person will return the child, failing to return the child to the child’s known place of residence.
(b) Application.–A person may be convicted under subsection (a) if either of the following apply:
(1) The acts that initiated the concealment occurred in this Commonwealth.
(2) The offender or the parent or guardian from whom the child is being concealed resides in this Commonwealth.
Subject to additional definitions contained in subsequent provisions of this chapter which are applicable to specific provisions of this chapter, the following words and phrases when used in this chapter shall have, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, the meanings given to them in this section:
“Complainant.” An alleged victim of a crime under this chapter.
“Deviate sexual intercourse.” Sexual intercourse per os or per anus between human beings and any form of sexual intercourse with an animal. The term also includes penetration, however slight, of the genitals or anus of another person with a foreign object for any purpose other than good faith medical, hygienic or law enforcement procedures.
“Forcible compulsion.” Compulsion by use of physical, intellectual, moral, emotional or psychological force, either express or implied. The term includes, but is not limited to, compulsion resulting in another person’s death, whether the death occurred before, during or after sexual intercourse.
“Foreign object.” Includes any physical object not a part of the actor’s body.
“Indecent contact.” Any touching of the sexual or other intimate parts of the person for the purpose of arousing or gratifying sexual desire, in any person.
“Serious bodily injury.” As defined in section 2301 (relating to definitions).
“Sexual intercourse.” In addition to its ordinary meaning, includes intercourse per os or per anus, with some penetration however slight; emission is not required.
(a) Offense defined.–A person commits a felony of the first degree when the person engages in sexual intercourse with a complainant:
(1) By forcible compulsion.
(2) By threat of forcible compulsion that would prevent resistance by a person of reasonable resolution.
(3) Who is unconscious or where the person knows that the complainant is unaware that the sexual intercourse is occurring.
(4) Where the person has substantially impaired the complainant’s power to appraise or control his or her conduct by administering or employing, without the knowledge of the complainant, drugs, intoxicants or other means for the purpose of preventing resistance.
(5) Who suffers from a mental disability which renders the complainant incapable of consent.
(6) Deleted by 2002, Dec. 9, P.L. 1350, No. 162, § 2, effective in 60 days.
(b) Additional penalties.–In addition to the penalty provided for by subsection (a), a person may be sentenced to an additional term not to exceed ten years’ confinement and an additional amount not to exceed $100,000 where the person engages in sexual intercourse with a complainant and has substantially impaired the complainant’s power to appraise or control his or her conduct by administering or employing, without the knowledge of the complainant, any substance for the purpose of preventing resistance through the inducement of euphoria, memory loss and any other effect of this substance.
(c) Rape of a child.–A person commits the offense of rape of a child, a felony of the first degree, when the person engages in sexual intercourse with a complainant who is less than 13 years of age.
(d) Rape of a child with serious bodily injury.–A person commits the offense of rape of a child resulting in serious bodily injury, a felony of the first degree, when the person violates this section and the complainant is under 13 years of age and suffers serious bodily injury in the course of the offense.
(e) Sentences.–Notwithstanding the provisions of section 1103 (relating to sentence of imprisonment for felony), a person convicted of an offense under:
(1) Subsection (c) shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment which shall be fixed by the court at not more than 40 years.
(2) Subsection (d) shall be sentenced up to a maximum term of life imprisonment.
(a) Felony of the second degree.–Except as provided in section 3121 (relating to rape), a person commits a felony of the second degree when that person engages in sexual intercourse with a complainant to whom the person is not married who is under the age of 16 years and that person is either:
(1) four years older but less than eight years older than the complainant; or
(2) eight years older but less than 11 years older than the complainant.
(b) Felony of the first degree.–A person commits a felony of the first degree when that person engages in sexual intercourse with a complainant under the age of 16 years and that person is 11 or more years older than the complainant and the complainant and the person are not married to each other.
(a) Offense defined.–A person commits a felony of the first degree when the person engages in deviate sexual intercourse with a complainant:
(1) by forcible compulsion;
(2) by threat of forcible compulsion that would prevent resistance by a person of reasonable resolution;
(3) who is unconscious or where the person knows that the complainant is unaware that the sexual intercourse is occurring;
(4) where the person has substantially impaired the complainant’s power to appraise or control his or her conduct by administering or employing, without the knowledge of the complainant, drugs, intoxicants or other means for the purpose of preventing resistance;
(5) who suffers from a mental disability which renders him or her incapable of consent; or
(6) Deleted by 2002, Dec. 9, P.L. 1350, No. 162, § 2, effective in 60 days.
(7) who is less than 16 years of age and the person is four or more years older than the complainant and the complainant and person are not married to each other.
(b) Involuntary deviate sexual intercourse with a child.–A person commits involuntary deviate sexual intercourse with a child, a felony of the first degree, when the person engages in deviate sexual intercourse with a complainant who is less than 13 years of age.
(c) Involuntary deviate sexual intercourse with a child with serious bodily injury.–A person commits an offense under this section with a child resulting in serious bodily injury, a felony of the first degree, when the person violates this section and the complainant is less than 13 years of age and the complainant suffers serious bodily injury in the course of the offense.
(d) Sentences.–Notwithstanding the provisions of section 1103 (relating to sentence of imprisonment for felony), a person convicted of an offense under:
(1) Subsection (b) shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment which shall be fixed by the court at not more than 40 years.
(2) Subsection (c) shall be sentenced up to a maximum term of life imprisonment.
(e) Definition.–As used in this section, the term “forcible compulsion” includes, but is not limited to, compulsion resulting in another person’s death, whether the death occurred before, during or after the sexual intercourse.
Except as provided in section 3121 (relating to rape) or 3123 (relating to involuntary deviate sexual intercourse), a person commits a felony of the second degree when that person engages in sexual intercourse or deviate sexual intercourse with a complainant without the complainant’s consent.
(a) General rule.–Except as provided under subsection (a.1) and in sections 3121 (relating to rape), 3122.1 (relating to statutory sexual assault), 3123 (relating to involuntary deviate sexual intercourse), 3124.1 (relating to sexual assault) and 3125 (relating to aggravated indecent assault), a person who is an employee or agent of the Department of Corrections or a county correctional authority, youth development center, youth forestry camp, State or county juvenile detention facility, other licensed residential facility serving children and youth, or mental health or mental retardation facility or institution commits a felony of the third degree when that person engages in sexual intercourse, deviate sexual intercourse or indecent contact with an inmate, detainee, another person being supervised by that person under probation or parole supervision, patient or resident.
(a.1) Institutional sexual assault of a minor.–A person who is an employee or agent of the Department of Corrections or a county correctional authority, youth development center, youth forestry camp, State or county juvenile detention facility, other licensed residential facility serving children and youth or mental health or mental retardation facility or institution commits a felony of the third degree when that person engages in sexual intercourse, deviate sexual intercourse or indecent contact with an inmate, another person being supervised by that person under probation or parole supervision, detainee, patient or resident who is under 18 years of age.
(a.2) Schools.–
(1) Except as provided in sections 3121, 3122.1, 3123, 3124.1 and 3125, a person who is a volunteer or an employee of a school or any other person who has direct contact with a student at a school commits a felony of the third degree when he engages in sexual intercourse, deviate sexual intercourse or indecent contact with a student of the school.
(2) As used in this subsection, the following terms shall have the meanings given to them in this paragraph:
(i) “Direct contact.” Care, supervision, guidance or control.
(ii) “Employee.”
(A) Includes:
(I) A teacher, a supervisor, a supervising principal, a principal, an assistant principal, a vice principal, a director of vocational education, a dental hygienist, a visiting teacher, a home and school visitor, a school counselor, a child nutrition program specialist, a school librarian, a school secretary the selection of whom is on the basis of merit as determined by eligibility lists, a school nurse, a substitute teacher, a janitor, a cafeteria worker, a bus driver, a teacher aide and any other employee who has direct contact with school students.
(II) An independent contractor who has a contract with a school for the purpose of performing a service for the school, a coach, an athletic trainer, a coach hired as an independent contractor by the Pennsylvania Interscholastic Athletic Association or an athletic trainer hired as an independent contractor by the Pennsylvania Interscholastic Athletic Association.
(B) The term does not include:
(I) A student employed at the school.
(II) An independent contractor or any employee of an independent contractor who has no direct contact with school students.
(iii) “School.” A public or private school, intermediate unit or area vocational-technical school.1
(iv) “Volunteer.” The term does not include a school student.
(a.3) Child care.–Except as provided in sections 3121, 3122.1, 3123, 3124.1 and 3125, a person who is a volunteer or an employee of a center for children commits a felony of the third degree when he engages in sexual intercourse, deviate sexual intercourse or indecent contact with a child who is receiving services at the center.
(a.4) Peace officers.–
(1) Except as provided under sections 3121, 3122.1, 3123, 3124.1 and 3125, a person who is a peace officer or employee of an agency employing a peace officer in his official capacity commits a felony of the third degree when the person engages in sexual intercourse, deviate sexual intercourse or indecent contact with another person who is under official detention or in the custody of the person or is a confidential informant of the person.
(2) A person who is a peace officer commits a felony of the third degree when the person engages in sexual intercourse, deviate sexual intercourse or indecent contact with a child who is under official detention or in the custody of the person or is a confidential informant of the person.
(a.5) Consent not a defense.–Consent is not a defense to a violation of subsection (a), (a.1), (a.2), (a.3), (a.4) or (a.6).
(a.6) Caretakers.–
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) and in sections 3121, 3122.1, 3123, 3124.1 and 3125, a caretaker commits a felony of the third degree if the caretaker engages in sexual intercourse, deviate sexual intercourse or indecent contact with a care-dependent person who receives care, services or treatment in or from a facility.
(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply if the victim and defendant are spouses, persons living as spouses or current sexual or intimate partners whose relationship preexisted the caretaker relationship.
(3) As used in this subsection, the following terms shall have the meanings given to them in this paragraph:
(i) “Care-dependent person.” An adult who, due to physical or cognitive disability or impairment, requires assistance to meet the needs for food, shelter, clothing, personal care or health care.
(ii) “Caretaker.” A person who is any of the following:
(A) An owner, operator, manager or employee of a facility.
(B) An individual who provides care to a care-dependent person in a facility.
(C) An individual who has an obligation to provide care to a care-dependent person for monetary consideration in a facility.
(D) An individual who does not reside with a care-dependent person but who, with respect to the care-dependent person, has:
(I) a legal duty to provide care;
(II) affirmatively assumed a responsibility to provide care; or
(III) responsibility by contract or court order to provide care.
(iii) “Facility.” Any of the following:
(A) A nursing home, personal care home, assisted living facility, private care residence or the care-dependent person’s residence.
(B) A community residential facility or intermediate care facility for an individual with a mental disability.
(C) An adult daily living center.
(D) A home health care agency.
(E) A health care facility, as defined in section 802.1 of the act of July 19, 1979 (P.L. 130, No. 48),2 known as the Health Care Facilities Act.
(iv) “Private care residence.” A private residence, including a domiciliary care home:
(A) In which the owner of the residence or the legal entity responsible for the operation of the residence, for monetary consideration, provides or assists with or arranges for the provision of food, room, shelter, clothing, personal care or health care in the residence, for a period exceeding 24 hours, to fewer than four care-dependent persons who are not relatives of the owner.
(B) That is not:
(I) required to be licensed as a long-term care nursing facility, as defined in section 802.1 of the Health Care Facilities Act; and
(II) specified in subparagraph (iii)(A).
(b) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
“Agent.” A person who is assigned to work in a State or county correctional or juvenile detention facility, a youth development center, youth forestry camp, other licensed residential facility serving children and youth or mental health or mental retardation facility or institution, who is employed by any State or county agency or any person employed by an entity providing contract services to the agency.
“Center for children.” Includes a child day-care center, group and family day-care home, boarding home for children, a center providing early intervention and drug and alcohol services for children or other facility which provides child-care services which are subject to approval, licensure, registration or certification by the Department of Public Welfare3 or a county social services agency or which are provided pursuant to a contract with the department or a county social services agency. The term does not include a youth development center, youth forestry camp, State or county juvenile detention facility and other licensed residential facility serving children and youth.
“Child.” An individual who is less than 18 years of age.
“Confidential informant.” An individual who engages in the activity of associating with persons engaged in criminal activity for the purpose of furnishing information to or acting as an agent for a law enforcement agency.
“Custody.” The term includes a traffic stop, a custodial interrogation or an interview conducted in connection with an investigation.“Official detention.” As that term is defined in section 5121 (relating to escape).
(a) Offenses defined.–Except as provided in sections 3121 (relating to rape), 3122.1 (relating to statutory sexual assault), 3123 (relating to involuntary deviate sexual intercourse) and 3124.1 (relating to sexual assault), a person who engages in penetration, however slight, of the genitals or anus of a complainant with a part of the person’s body for any purpose other than good faith medical, hygienic or law enforcement procedures commits aggravated indecent assault if:
(1) the person does so without the complainant’s consent;
(2) the person does so by forcible compulsion;
(3) the person does so by threat of forcible compulsion that would prevent resistance by a person of reasonable resolution;
(4) the complainant is unconscious or the person knows that the complainant is unaware that the penetration is occurring;
(5) the person has substantially impaired the complainant’s power to appraise or control his or her conduct by administering or employing, without the knowledge of the complainant, drugs, intoxicants or other means for the purpose of preventing resistance;
(6) the complainant suffers from a mental disability which renders him or her incapable of consent;
(7) the complainant is less than 13 years of age; or
(8) the complainant is less than 16 years of age and the person is four or more years older than the complainant and the complainant and the person are not married to each other.
(b) Aggravated indecent assault of a child.–A person commits aggravated indecent assault of a child when the person violates subsection (a)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5) or (6) and the complainant is less than 13 years of age.
(c) Grading and sentences.–
(1) An offense under subsection (a) is a felony of the second degree.
(2) An offense under subsection (b) is a felony of the first degree.
(a) Offense defined.–A person is guilty of indecent assault if the person has indecent contact with the complainant, causes the complainant to have indecent contact with the person or intentionally causes the complainant to come into contact with seminal fluid, urine or feces for the purpose of arousing sexual desire in the person or the complainant and:
(1) the person does so without the complainant’s consent;
(2) the person does so by forcible compulsion;
(3) the person does so by threat of forcible compulsion that would prevent resistance by a person of reasonable resolution;
(4) the complainant is unconscious or the person knows that the complainant is unaware that the indecent contact is occurring;
(5) the person has substantially impaired the complainant’s power to appraise or control his or her conduct by administering or employing, without the knowledge of the complainant, drugs, intoxicants or other means for the purpose of preventing resistance;
(6) the complainant suffers from a mental disability which renders the complainant incapable of consent;
(7) the complainant is less than 13 years of age; or
(8) the complainant is less than 16 years of age and the person is four or more years older than the complainant and the complainant and the person are not married to each other.
(b) Grading.–Indecent assault shall be graded as follows:
(1) An offense under subsection (a)(1) or (8) is a misdemeanor of the second degree.
(2) An offense under subsection (a)(2), (3), (4), (5) or (6) is a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(3) An offense under subsection (a)(7) is a misdemeanor of the first degree unless any of the following apply, in which case it is a felony of the third degree:
(i) It is a second or subsequent offense.
(ii) There has been a course of conduct of indecent assault by the person.
(iii) The indecent assault was committed by touching the complainant’s sexual or intimate parts with sexual or intimate parts of the person.
(iv) The indecent assault is committed by touching the person’s sexual or intimate parts with the complainant’s sexual or intimate parts.
(a) Offense defined.–A person commits indecent exposure if that person exposes his or her genitals in any public place or in any place where there are present other persons under circumstances in which he or she knows or should know that this conduct is likely to offend, affront or alarm.
(b) Grading.–If the person knows or should have known that any of the persons present are less than 16 years of age, indecent exposure under subsection (a) is a misdemeanor of the first degree. Otherwise, indecent exposure under subsection (a) is a misdemeanor of the second degree.
(a) Offense defined.–Except as provided in sections 5903 (relating to obscene and other sexual materials and performances), 6312 (relating to sexual abuse of children) and 6321 (relating to transmission of sexually explicit images by minor), a person commits the offense of unlawful dissemination of intimate image if, with intent to harass, annoy or alarm a current or former sexual or intimate partner, the person disseminates a visual depiction of the current or former sexual or intimate partner in a state of nudity or engaged in sexual conduct.
(b) Defense.–It is a defense to a prosecution under this section that the actor disseminated the visual depiction with the consent of the person depicted.
(c) Grading.–An offense under subsection (a) shall be:
(1) A misdemeanor of the first degree, when the person depicted is a minor.
(2) A misdemeanor of the second degree, when the person depicted is not a minor.
(d) Territorial applicability.–A person may be convicted under the provisions of this section if the victim or the offender is located within this Commonwealth.
(e) Nonapplicability.–Nothing in this section shall be construed to apply to a law enforcement officer engaged in the performance of the law enforcement officer’s official duties.
(f) Concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute.–In addition to the authority conferred upon the Attorney General by the act of October 15, 1980 (P.L. 950, No. 164), known as the Commonwealth Attorneys Act, the Attorney General shall have the authority to investigate and to institute criminal proceedings for any violation of this section or any series of violations involving more than one county of this Commonwealth or another state. No person charged with a violation of this section by the Attorney General shall have standing to challenge the authority of the Attorney General to investigate or prosecute the case, and, if a challenge is made, the challenge shall be dismissed, and no relief shall be made available in the courts of this Commonwealth to the person making the challenge.
(g) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
“Law enforcement officer.” Any officer of the United States, of the Commonwealth or political subdivision thereof, or of another state or subdivision thereof, who is empowered to conduct investigations of or to make arrests for offenses enumerated in this title or an equivalent crime in another jurisdiction, and any attorney authorized by law to prosecute or participate in the prosecution of such offense.
“Minor.” An individual under 18 years of age.
“Nudity.” As defined in section 5903(e).
“Sexual conduct.” As defined in section 5903(e).
“Visual depiction.” As defined in section 6321.
(a) Offense defined.–A person commits the offense of sexual extortion if the person knowingly or intentionally coerces or causes a complainant, through any means set forth in subsection (b), to:
(1) engage in sexual conduct, the simulation of sexual conduct or a state of nudity; or
(2) make, produce, disseminate, transmit or distribute any image, video, recording or other material depicting the complainant in a state of nudity or engaging in sexual conduct or in the simulation of sexual conduct.
(b) Means of subjecting complainant to sexual extortion.–A person subjects a complainant to sexual extortion through any of the following means:
(1) Harming or threatening to harm the complainant or the property of the complainant, the reputation of the complainant or any other thing of value of the complainant.
(2) Making, producing, disseminating, transmitting or distributing or threatening to make, produce, disseminate, transmit or distribute any image, video, recording or other material depicting the complainant in a state of nudity or engaged in sexual conduct or in the simulation of sexual conduct.
(3) Exposing or threatening to expose any fact or piece of information that, if revealed, would tend to subject the complainant to criminal proceedings, a civil action, hatred, contempt, embarrassment or ridicule.
(4) Holding out, withholding or threatening to withhold a service, employment, position or other thing of value.
(5) Threatening to cause or causing a loss, disadvantage or injury, including a loss, disadvantage or injury to a family or household member.
(c) Demanding property.–A person commits the offense of sexual extortion if the person knowingly or intentionally:
(1) solicits or demands the payment of money, property or services or any other thing of value from the complainant or a family or household member of the complainant in exchange for removing from public view or preventing the disclosure of any image, video, recording or other material obtained through a violation of subsection (a)(2); or
(2) disseminates, transmits or distributes, or threatens to disseminate, transmit or distribute, an image, video, recording or other material depicting the complainant in a state of nudity or engaging in sexual conduct or the simulation of sexual conduct to another person or entity, including a commercial social networking site, and solicits or demands the payment of money, property or services or any other thing of value from the complainant or a family or household member of the complainant in exchange for removing from public view or preventing disclosure of the image, video, recording or other material.
(d) Grading.–
(1) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (2) and (3), a violation of this section shall constitute a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(2) A violation of this section shall constitute a felony of the third degree if the actor is at least 18 years of age and:
(i) the complainant is under 18 years of age;
(ii) the complainant has an intellectual disability; or
(iii) the actor holds a position of trust or supervisory or disciplinary power over the complainant by virtue of the actor’s legal, professional or occupational status.
(3) A violation of this section shall constitute a felony of the third degree if:
(i) the violation is part of a course of conduct of sexual extortion by the actor; or
(ii) the actor was previously convicted or adjudicated delinquent of a violation of this section or of a similar offense in another jurisdiction.
(e) Sentencing.–The Pennsylvania Commission on Sentencing, in accordance with 42 Pa.C.S. § 2154 (relating to adoption of guidelines for sentencing), shall provide for a sentence enhancement within its guidelines for an offense under this section when:
(1) at the time of the offense the complainant is under 18 years of age or has an intellectual disability or the actor holds a position of trust or supervisory or disciplinary power over the complainant by virtue of the actor’s legal, professional or occupational status; or
(2) the complainant attempts suicide resulting in serious bodily injury or dies by suicide, within 90 days of the commission of the offense, as a proximate result of the trauma that the complainant experienced during or following the commission of the offense.
(f) Venue.–
(1) An offense committed under this section may be deemed to have been committed at either the place at which the communication was made or at the place where the communication was received.
(2) Acts indicating a course of conduct which occur in more than one jurisdiction may be used by any other jurisdiction in which an act occurred as evidence of a continuing pattern of conduct or a course of conduct.
(g) Territorial applicability.–A person may be convicted under the provisions of this section if the complainant or the offender is located within this Commonwealth.
(h) Concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute.–In addition to the authority conferred upon the Attorney General by the act of October 15, 1980 (P.L. 950, No. 164)1, known as the Commonwealth Attorneys Act, the Attorney General shall have the authority to investigate and to institute criminal proceedings for any violation of this section or any series of violations involving more than one county of this Commonwealth or another state. No person charged with a violation of this section by the Attorney General shall have standing to challenge the authority of the Attorney General to investigate or prosecute the case, and, if a challenge is made, the challenge shall be dismissed, and no relief shall be made available in the courts of this Commonwealth to the person making the challenge.
(i) Applicability.–Nothing in this section shall be construed to apply to:
(1) A person who acts within the legitimate and lawful course of the person’s employment.
(2) Works of public interest, including commentary, satire or parody.
(j) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
“Commercial social networking site.” A business, organization or other similar entity that operates an Internet website and permits persons to become registered users for the purposes of establishing personal relationships with other users through direct or real-time communication with other users or the creation of web pages or profiles available to the public or to other users. The term does not include an electronic mail program or a message board program.
“Course of conduct.” A pattern of actions composed of more than one act over a period of time, however short, evidencing a continuity of conduct.
“Disseminate.” To cause or make an electronic or actual communication from one place or electronic communication device to two or more other persons, places or electronic communication devices.
“Distribute.” To sell, lend, rent, lease, give, advertise, publish or exhibit in a physical or electronic medium.
“Family or household member.” As defined in section 2709.1(f) (relating to stalking).
“Intellectual disability.” Regardless of the age of the individual, significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning that is accompanied by significant limitations in adaptive functioning in at least two of the following skill areas: communication; self-care; home living; social and interpersonal skills; use of community resources’; self-direction; functional academic skills; work; health; and safety.
“Nudity.” As defined in section 5903(e) (relating to obscene and other sexual materials and performances).
“Sexual conduct.” Any of the following:
(1) Intentional touching by the complainant or actor, either directly or through clothing, of the complainant’s or actor’s intimate parts. Sexual contact of the actor with himself must be in view of the complainant whom the actor knows to be present.
(2) Sexual intercourse as defined in section 3101 (relating to definitions), masturbation, sadism, masochism, bestiality, fellatio, cunnilingus or lewd exhibition of the genitals.
“Simulation.” Conduct engaged in that is depicted in a manner that would cause a reasonable viewer to believe was sexual conduct, even if sexual conduct did not occur.
“Transmit.” To cause or make an electronic or actual communication from one place or electronic communication device to another person, place or electronic communication device.
(a) Buildings and occupied structures.–
(1) A person commits an offense if, knowing that he is not licensed or privileged to do so, he:
(i) enters, gains entry by subterfuge or surreptitiously remains in any building or occupied structure or separately secured or occupied portion thereof; or
(ii) breaks into any building or occupied structure or separately secured or occupied portion thereof.
(2) An offense under paragraph (1)(i) is a felony of the third degree, and an offense under paragraph (1)(ii) is a felony of the second degree.
(3) As used in this subsection:
“Breaks into.” To gain entry by force, breaking, intimidation, unauthorized opening of locks, or through an opening not designed for human access.
(b) Defiant trespasser.–
(1) A person commits an offense if, knowing that he is not licensed or privileged to do so, he enters or remains in any place as to which notice against trespass is given by:
(i) actual communication to the actor;
(ii) posting in a manner prescribed by law or reasonably likely to come to the attention of intruders;
(iii) fencing or other enclosure manifestly designed to exclude intruders;
(iv) notices posted in a manner prescribed by law or reasonably likely to come to the person’s attention at each entrance of school grounds that visitors are prohibited without authorization from a designated school, center or program official;
(v) an actual communication to the actor to leave school grounds as communicated by a school, center or program official, employee or agent or a law enforcement officer; or
(vi) subject to paragraph (3), the placement of identifying purple paint marks on trees or posts on the property which are:
(A) vertical lines of not less than eight inches in length and not less than one inch in width;
(B) placed so that the bottom of the mark is not less than three feet from the ground nor more than five feet from the ground; and
(C) placed at locations that are readily visible to a person approaching the property and no more than 100 feet apart.
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (1)(v), an offense under this subsection constitutes a misdemeanor of the third degree if the offender defies an order to leave personally communicated to him by the owner of the premises or other authorized person. An offense under paragraph (1)(v) constitutes a misdemeanor of the first degree. Otherwise it is a summary offense.
(3) Paragraph (1)(vi) shall not apply in a county of the first class or a county of the second class.
(b.1) Simple trespasser.–
(1) A person commits an offense if, knowing that he is not licensed or privileged to do so, he enters or remains in any place for the purpose of:
(i) threatening or terrorizing the owner or occupant of the premises;
(ii) starting or causing to be started any fire upon the premises; or
(iii) defacing or damaging the premises.
(2) An offense under this subsection constitutes a summary offense.
(b.2) Agricultural trespasser.–
(1) A person commits an offense if knowing that he is not licensed or privileged to do so he:
(i) enters or remains on any agricultural or other open lands when such lands are posted in a manner prescribed by law or reasonably likely to come to the person’s attention or are fenced or enclosed in a manner manifestly designed to exclude trespassers or to confine domestic animals; or
(ii) enters or remains on any agricultural or other open lands and defies an order not to enter or to leave that has been personally communicated to him by the owner of the lands or other authorized person.
(2) An offense under this subsection shall be graded as follows:
(i) An offense under paragraph (1)(i) constitutes a misdemeanor of the third degree and is punishable by imprisonment for a term of not more than one year and a fine of not less than $250.
(ii) An offense under paragraph (1)(ii) constitutes a misdemeanor of the second degree and is punishable by imprisonment for a term of not more than two years and a fine of not less than $500 nor more than $5,000.
(3) For the purposes of this subsection, the phrase “agricultural or other open lands” shall mean any land on which agricultural activity or farming as defined in section 3309 (relating to agricultural vandalism) is conducted or any land populated by forest trees of any size and capable of producing timber or other wood products or any other land in an agricultural security area as defined in the act of June 30, 1981 (P.L. 128, No. 43),1 known as the Agricultural Area Security Law, or any area zoned for agricultural use.
(b.3) Agricultural biosecurity area trespasser.–
(1) A person commits an offense if the person does any of the following:
(i) Enters an agricultural biosecurity area, knowing that the person is not licensed or privileged to do so.
(ii) Knowingly or recklessly fails to perform reasonable measures for biosecurity that by posted notice are required to be performed for entry to the agricultural biosecurity area.
(2) It is a defense to prosecution under paragraph (1)(ii) that:
(i) no reasonable means or method was available to perform the measures that the posted notice required to be performed for entry to the agricultural biosecurity area;
(ii) entry is made in response to a condition within the agricultural biosecurity area that the person reasonably believes to be a serious threat to human or animal health as necessitating immediate entry to the agricultural biosecurity area; or
(iii) entry is made under exigent circumstances by a law enforcement officer to:
(A) pursue and apprehend a suspect of criminal conduct reasonably believed by the officer to be present within the agricultural biosecurity area; or
(B) prevent the destruction of evidence of criminal conduct reasonably believed by the officer to be located within the agricultural biosecurity area.
(3)(i) Except as set forth in subparagraph (iii), an offense under paragraph (1)(i) constitutes a misdemeanor of the third degree.
(ii) Except as set forth in subparagraph (iii), an offense under paragraph (1)(ii) constitutes a summary offense.
(iii) If an offense under paragraph (1) causes damage to or death of an animal or plant within an agricultural biosecurity area, the offense constitutes a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(4) For purposes of this subsection, the terms “agricultural biosecurity area” and “posted notice” shall have the meanings given to them in 3 Pa.C.S. § 2303 (relating to definitions).
(c) Defenses.–It is a defense to prosecution under this section that:
(1) a building or occupied structure involved in an offense under subsection (a) of this section was abandoned;
(2) the premises were at the time open to members of the public and the actor complied with all lawful conditions imposed on access to or remaining in the premises; or
(3) the actor reasonably believed that the owner of the premises, or other person empowered to license access thereto, would have licensed him to enter or remain.
(c.1) Applicability.–This section shall not apply to an unarmed person who enters onto posted property for the sole purpose of retrieving a hunting dog.
(c.2) Sentencing enhancement.–The Pennsylvania Commission on Sentencing, in accordance with 42 Pa.C.S. § 2154 (relating to adoption of guidelines for sentencing), shall provide for a sentencing enhancement for courts to consider in cases involving criminal trespass where a domestic animal is harmed or killed in the course of the criminal trespass.
(d) Definition.–As used in this section, the term “school grounds” means any building of or grounds of any elementary or secondary publicly funded educational institution, any elementary or secondary private school licensed by the Department of Education, any elementary or secondary parochial school, any certified day-care center or any licensed preschool program.
(a) Offense defined.–A person commits the offense of unlawful use of unmanned aircraft if the person uses an unmanned aircraft intentionally or knowingly to:
(1) Conduct surveillance of another person in a private place.
(2) Operate in a manner which places another person in reasonable fear of bodily injury.
(3) Deliver, provide, transmit or furnish contraband in violation of section 5123 (relating to contraband) or 61 Pa.C.S. § 5902 (relating to contraband prohibited).
(b) Grading.–The offense of unlawful use of unmanned aircraft shall be graded as follows:
(1) An offense under subsection (a)(1) or (2) is a summary offense punishable by a fine of up to $300.
(2) An offense under subsection (a)(3) is a felony of the second degree.
(c) Exceptions for law enforcement officers.–Subsection (a) shall not apply if the conduct proscribed under subsection (a) is committed by any of the following:
(1) Law enforcement officers engaged in the performance of their official law enforcement duties.
(2) Personnel of the Department of Corrections, local correctional facility, prison or jail engaged in the performance of their official duties.
(d) Other exceptions.–Subsection (a)(1) and (2) shall not apply if the conduct proscribed under subsection (a)(1) or (2) is committed by any of the following:
(1) Firefighters, as defined in section 2 of the act of December 16, 1998 (P.L. 980, No. 129),1 known as the Police Officer, Firefighter, Correction Employee and National Guard Member Child Beneficiary Education Act, or special fire police, as provided for in 35 Pa.C.S. Ch. 74 Subch. D (relating to special fire police),2 engaged in the performance of their official firefighting or fire police duties.
(2) Emergency medical responders, as defined in 35 Pa.C.S. § 8103 (relating to definitions), engaged in the performance of their official duties.
(3) An employee or agent of an electric, water, natural gas or other utility while engaged in the performance of the employee’s or agent’s official duties.
(4) An employee or agent of a government agency while engaged in the performance of the employee’s or agent’s official duties.
(e) Aerial data collection.–Subsection (a)(1) shall not apply if the conduct proscribed is committed by a person engaged in aerial data collection if:
(1) the person utilized the unmanned aircraft in a manner which complies with Federal Aviation Administration regulations or the unmanned aircraft is authorized by an exemption that is issued by the Federal Aviation Administration; and
(2) the person did not knowingly or intentionally conduct surveillance of another person in a private place.
(f) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
“Bodily injury.” As defined in section 2301 (relating to definitions).
“Law enforcement officer.” An officer of the United States, of another state or subdivision thereof, or of the Commonwealth or political subdivision thereof, who is empowered by law to conduct investigations of or to make arrests for offenses enumerated in this title or an equivalent crime in another jurisdiction and an attorney authorized by law to prosecute or participate in the prosecution of the offense.
“Private place.” A place where a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy.
“Surveillance.” Using or causing to be used an unmanned aircraft to observe, record or invade the privacy of another.
“Unmanned aircraft.” An aircraft that is operated without the possibility of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft.
(a) Offense defined.–A person commits the offense of identity theft of another person if he possesses or uses, through any means, identifying information of another person without the consent of that other person to further any unlawful purpose.
(b) Separate offenses.–Each time a person possesses or uses identifying information in violation of subsection (a) constitutes a separate offense under this section. However, the total values involved in offenses under this section committed pursuant to one scheme or course of conduct, whether from the same victim or several victims, may be aggregated in determining the grade of the offense.
(c) Grading.–The offenses shall be graded as follows:
(1) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2), an offense under subsection (a) falls within the following classifications depending on the value of any property or services obtained by means of the identifying information:
(i) if the total value involved is less than $2,000, the offense is a misdemeanor of the first degree;
(ii) if the total value involved was $2,000 or more, the offense is a felony of the third degree;
(iii) regardless of the total value involved, if the offense is committed in furtherance of a criminal conspiracy as defined in section 903 (relating to criminal conspiracy), the offense is a felony of the third degree; or
(iv) regardless of the total value involved, if the offense is a third or subsequent offense under this section, the offense is a felony of the second degree.
(2) When a person commits an offense under subsection (a) and the victim of the offense is 60 years of age or older, a care-dependent person as defined in section 2713 (relating to neglect of care-dependent person) or an individual under 18 years of age, the grading of the offense shall be one grade higher than specified in paragraph (1).
(d) Concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute.–In addition to the authority conferred upon the Attorney General by the act of October 15, 1980 (P.L. 950, No. 164), known as the Commonwealth Attorneys Act, the Attorney General shall have the authority to investigate and to institute criminal proceedings for any violation of this section or any series of such violations involving more than one county of this Commonwealth or another state. No person charged with a violation of this section by the Attorney General shall have standing to challenge the authority of the Attorney General to investigate or prosecute the case, and if any such challenge is made, the challenge shall be dismissed and no relief shall be made available in the courts of this Commonwealth to the person making the challenge.
(e) Use of police reports.–A report to a law enforcement agency by a person stating that the person’s identifying information has been lost or stolen or that the person’s identifying information has been used without the person’s consent shall be prima facie evidence that the identifying information was possessed or used without the person’s consent.
(e.1) Venue.–Any offense committed under subsection (a) may be deemed to have been committed at any of the following:
(1) The place where a person possessed or used the identifying information of another without the other’s consent to further any unlawful purpose.
(2) The residence of the person whose identifying information has been lost or stolen or has been used without the person’s consent.
(3) The business or employment address of the person whose identifying information has been lost or stolen or has been used without the person’s consent, if the identifying information at issue is associated with the person’s business or employment.
(f) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection:
“Document.” Any writing, including, but not limited to, birth certificate, Social Security card, driver’s license, nondriver government-issued identification card, baptismal certificate, access device card, employee identification card, school identification card or other identifying information recorded by any other method, including, but not limited to, information stored on any computer, computer disc, computer printout, computer system, or part thereof, or by any other mechanical or electronic means.
“Identifying information.” Any document, photographic, pictorial or computer image of another person, or any fact used to establish identity, including, but not limited to, a name, birth date, Social Security number, driver’s license number, nondriver governmental identification number, telephone number, checking account number, savings account number, student identification number, employee or payroll number or electronic signature.
(a) General rule.–Except as provided under subsection (b), a person is guilty of incest, a felony of the second degree, if that person knowingly marries or cohabits or has sexual intercourse with an ancestor or descendant, a brother or sister of the whole or half blood or an uncle, aunt, nephew or niece of the whole blood.
(b) Incest of a minor.–A person is guilty of incest of a minor, a felony of the second degree, if that person knowingly marries, cohabits with or has sexual intercourse with a complainant who is an ancestor or descendant, a brother or sister of the whole or half blood or an uncle, aunt, nephew or niece of the whole blood and:
(1) is under the age of 13 years; or
(2) is 13 to 18 years of age and the person is four or more years older than the complainant.
(c) Relationships.–The relationships referred to in this section include blood relationships without regard to legitimacy, and relationship of parent and child by adoption.
(a) Offense defined.–
(1) A parent, guardian or other person supervising the welfare of a child under 18 years of age, or a person that employs or supervises such a person, commits an offense if he knowingly endangers the welfare of the child by violating a duty of care, protection or support.
(2) A person commits an offense if the person, in an official capacity, prevents or interferes with the making of a report of suspected child abuse under 23 Pa.C.S. Ch. 63 (relating to child protective services).
(3) As used in this subsection, the term “person supervising the welfare of a child” means a person other than a parent or guardian that provides care, education, training or control of a child.
(b) Grading.–
(1) Except as provided under paragraph (2), the following apply:
(i) An offense under this section constitutes a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(ii) If the actor engaged in a course of conduct of endangering the welfare of a child, the offense constitutes a felony of the third degree.
(iii) If, in the commission of the offense under subsection (a)(1), the actor created a substantial risk of death or serious bodily injury, the offense constitutes a felony of the third degree.
(iv) If the actor’s conduct under subsection (a)(1) created a substantial risk of death or serious bodily injury and was part of a course of conduct, the offense constitutes a felony of the second degree.
(2) The grading of an offense under this section shall be increased one grade if, at the time of the commission of the offense, the child was under six years of age.
(c) Counseling.–A court shall consider ordering an individual convicted of an offense under this section to undergo counseling.
(a) Offense defined.–
(1) A person who has been convicted of an offense enumerated in subsection (b), within or without this Commonwealth, regardless of the length of sentence or whose conduct meets the criteria in subsection (c) shall not possess, use, control, sell, transfer or manufacture or obtain a license to possess, use, control, sell, transfer or manufacture a firearm in this Commonwealth.
(2)(i) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, a person who is prohibited from possessing, using, controlling, selling, transferring or manufacturing a firearm under paragraph (1) or subsection (b) or (c) shall have a reasonable period of time, not to exceed 60 days from the date of the imposition of the disability under this subsection, in which to sell or transfer that person’s firearms to another eligible person who is not a member of the prohibited person’s household.
(ii) This paragraph shall not apply to any person whose disability is imposed pursuant to subsection (c)(6).
(iii) A person whose disability is imposed pursuant to subsection (c)(9) shall relinquish any firearms and firearm licenses under that person’s possession or control, as described in section 6105.2 (relating to relinquishment of firearms and firearm licenses by convicted persons).
(iv) A person whose disability is imposed pursuant to a protection from abuse order shall relinquish any firearms, other weapons, ammunition and firearm licenses under that person’s possession or control, as described in 23 Pa.C.S. § 6108(a)(7) (relating to relief).
(a.1) Penalty.–
(1) Except as provided under paragraph (1.1), a person convicted of a felony enumerated under subsection (b) or a felony under the act of April 14, 1972 (P.L. 233, No. 64),1 known as The Controlled Substance, Drug, Device and Cosmetic Act, or any equivalent Federal statute or equivalent statute of any other state, who violates subsection (a) commits a felony of the second degree.
(1.1) The following shall apply:
(i) A person convicted of a felony enumerated under subsection (b) or a felony under The Controlled Substance, Drug, Device and Cosmetic Act, or any equivalent Federal statute or equivalent statute of any other state, who violates subsection (a) commits a felony of the first degree if:
(A) at the time of the commission of a violation of subsection (a), the person has previously been convicted of an offense under subsection (a); or
(B) at the time of the commission of a violation of subsection (a), the person was in physical possession or control of a firearm, whether visible, concealed about the person or within the person’s reach.
(ii) The Pennsylvania Commission on Sentencing, under 42 Pa.C.S. § 2154 (relating to adoption of guidelines for sentencing), shall provide for a sentencing enhancement for a sentence imposed pursuant to this paragraph.
(2) A person who is the subject of an active final protection from abuse order issued pursuant to 23 Pa.C.S. § 6108, is the subject of any other active protection from abuse order issued pursuant to 23 Pa.C.S. § 6107(b) (relating to hearings), which provided for the relinquishment of firearms or other weapons or ammunition during the period of time the order is in effect, or is otherwise prohibited from possessing or acquiring a firearm under 18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(8) (relating to unlawful acts), commits a misdemeanor of the second degree if he intentionally or knowingly fails to relinquish a firearm or other weapon or ammunition to the sheriff or appropriate law enforcement agency as defined in 23 Pa.C.S. § 6102 (relating to definitions) as required by the order unless, in lieu of relinquishment, he provides an affidavit which lists the firearms or other weapons or ammunition to the sheriff in accordance with 23 Pa.C.S. § 6108(a)(7)(i)(B), 6108.2 (relating to relinquishment for consignment sale, lawful transfer or safekeeping) or 6108.3 (relating to relinquishment to third party for safekeeping).
(3)(i) A person commits a misdemeanor of the third degree if he intentionally or knowingly accepts possession of a firearm, other weapon or ammunition from another person he knows is the subject of an active final protection from abuse order issued pursuant to 23 Pa.C.S. § 6108 or an active protection from abuse order issued pursuant to 23 Pa.C.S. § 6107(b), which order provided for the relinquishment of the firearm, other weapon or ammunition during the period of time the order is in effect.
(ii) This paragraph shall not apply to:
(A) a third party who accepts possession of a firearm, other weapon or ammunition relinquished pursuant to 23 Pa.C.S. § 6108.3; or
(B) a dealer licensed pursuant to section 6113 (relating to licensing of dealers) or subsequent purchaser from a dealer licensed pursuant to section 6113, who accepts possession of a firearm, other weapon or ammunition relinquished pursuant to 23 Pa.C.S. § 6108.2.
(4) It shall be an affirmative defense to any prosecution under paragraph (3) that the person accepting possession of a firearm, other weapon or ammunition in violation of paragraph (3):
(i) notified the sheriff as soon as practicable that he has taken possession; and
(ii) relinquished possession of any firearm, other weapon or ammunition possessed in violation of paragraph (3) as directed by the sheriff.
(5) A person who has accepted possession of a firearm, other weapon or ammunition pursuant to 23 Pa.C.S. § 6108.3 commits a misdemeanor of the first degree if he intentionally or knowingly returns a firearm, other weapon or ammunition to a defendant or intentionally or knowingly allows a defendant to have access to the firearm, other weapon or ammunition prior to either of the following:
(i) The sheriff accepts return of the safekeeping permit issued to the party pursuant to 23 Pa.C.S. § 6108.3(d)(1)(i).
(ii) The issuance of a court order pursuant to subsection (f)(2) or 23 Pa.C.S. § 6108.1(b) (relating to return of relinquished firearms, other weapons and ammunition and additional relief) which modifies a valid protection from abuse order issued pursuant to 23 Pa.C.S. § 6108, which order provided for the relinquishment of the firearm, other weapon or ammunition by allowing the defendant to take possession of the firearm, other weapon or ammunition that had previously been ordered relinquished.
(b) Enumerated offenses.–The following offenses shall apply to subsection (a):
Section 908 (relating to prohibited offensive weapons).
Section 911 (relating to corrupt organizations).
Section 912 (relating to possession of weapon on school property).
Section 2502 (relating to murder).
Section 2503 (relating to voluntary manslaughter).
Section 2504 (relating to involuntary manslaughter) if the offense is based on the reckless use of a firearm.
Section 2702 (relating to aggravated assault).
Section 2703 (relating to assault by prisoner).
Section 2704 (relating to assault by life prisoner).
Section 2709.1 (relating to stalking).
Section 2716 (relating to weapons of mass destruction).
Section 2901 (relating to kidnapping).
Section 2902 (relating to unlawful restraint).
Section 2910 (relating to luring a child into a motor vehicle or structure).
Section 3121 (relating to rape).
Section 3123 (relating to involuntary deviate sexual intercourse).
Section 3125 (relating to aggravated indecent assault).
Section 3301 (relating to arson and related offenses).
Section 3302 (relating to causing or risking catastrophe).
Section 3502 (relating to burglary).
Section 3503 (relating to criminal trespass) if the offense is graded a felony of the second degree or higher.
Section 3701 (relating to robbery).
Section 3702 (relating to robbery of motor vehicle).
Section 3921 (relating to theft by unlawful taking or disposition) upon conviction of the second felony offense.
Section 3923 (relating to theft by extortion) when the offense is accompanied by threats of violence.
Section 3925 (relating to receiving stolen property) upon conviction of the second felony offense.
Section 4906 (relating to false reports to law enforcement authorities) if the fictitious report involved the theft of a firearm as provided in section 4906(c)(2).
Section 4912 (relating to impersonating a public servant) if the person is impersonating a law enforcement officer.
Section 4952 (relating to intimidation of witnesses or victims).
Section 4953 (relating to retaliation against witness, victim or party).
Section 5121 (relating to escape).
Section 5122 (relating to weapons or implements for escape).
Section 5501(3) (relating to riot).
Section 5515 (relating to prohibiting of paramilitary training).
Section 5516 (relating to facsimile weapons of mass destruction).
Section 6110.1 (relating to possession of firearm by minor).
Section 6301 (relating to corruption of minors).
Section 6302 (relating to sale or lease of weapons and explosives).
Any offense equivalent to any of the above-enumerated offenses under the prior laws of this Commonwealth or any offense equivalent to any of the above-enumerated offenses under the statutes of any other state or of the United States.
(c) Other persons.–In addition to any person who has been convicted of any offense listed under subsection (b), the following persons shall be subject to the prohibition of subsection (a):
(1) A person who is a fugitive from justice. This paragraph does not apply to an individual whose fugitive status is based upon a nonmoving or moving summary offense under Title 75 (relating to vehicles).
(2) A person who has been convicted of an offense under the act of April 14, 1972 (P.L. 233, No. 64), known as The Controlled Substance, Drug, Device and Cosmetic Act, or any equivalent Federal statute or equivalent statute of any other state, that may be punishable by a term of imprisonment exceeding two years.
(3) A person who has been convicted of driving under the influence of alcohol or controlled substance as provided in 75 Pa.C.S. § 3802 (relating to driving under influence of alcohol or controlled substance) or the former 75 Pa.C.S. § 3731, on three or more separate occasions within a five-year period. For the purposes of this paragraph only, the prohibition of subsection (a) shall only apply to transfers or purchases of firearms after the third conviction.
(4) A person who has been adjudicated as an incompetent or who has been involuntarily committed to a mental institution for inpatient care and treatment under section 302, 303 or 304 of the provisions of the act of July 9, 1976 (P.L. 817, No. 143),2 known as the Mental Health Procedures Act. This paragraph shall not apply to any proceeding under section 302 of the Mental Health Procedures Act unless the examining physician has issued a certification that inpatient care was necessary or that the person was committable.
(5) A person who, being an alien, is illegally or unlawfully in the United States.
(6) A person who is the subject of an active final protection from abuse order issued pursuant to 23 Pa.C.S. § 6108, is the subject of any other active protection from abuse order issued pursuant to 23 Pa.C.S. § 6107(b), which provided for the relinquishment of firearms during the period of time the order is in effect or is otherwise prohibited from possessing or acquiring a firearm under 18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(8). This prohibition shall terminate upon the expiration or vacation of the order or portion thereof relating to the relinquishment of firearms.
(7) A person who was adjudicated delinquent by a court pursuant to 42 Pa.C.S. § 6341 (relating to adjudication) or under any equivalent Federal statute or statute of any other state as a result of conduct which if committed by an adult would constitute an offense under sections 2502, 2503, 2702, 2703 (relating to assault by prisoner), 2704, 2901, 3121, 3123, 3301, 3502, 3701 and 3923.
(8) A person who was adjudicated delinquent by a court pursuant to 42 Pa.C.S. § 6341 or under any equivalent Federal statute or statute of any other state as a result of conduct which if committed by an adult would constitute an offense enumerated in subsection (b) with the exception of those crimes set forth in paragraph (7). This prohibition shall terminate 15 years after the last applicable delinquent adjudication or upon the person reaching the age of 30, whichever is earlier.
(9) A person who is prohibited from possessing or acquiring a firearm under 18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(9). If the offense which resulted in the prohibition under 18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(9) was committed, as provided in 18 U.S.C. § 921(a)(33)(A)(ii) (relating to definitions), by a person in any of the following relationships:
(i) the current or former spouse, parent or guardian of the victim;
(ii) a person with whom the victim shares a child in common;
(iii) a person who cohabits with or has cohabited with the victim as a spouse, parent or guardian; or
(iv) a person similarly situated to a spouse, parent or guardian of the victim;
then the relationship need not be an element of the offense to meet the requirements of this paragraph.
(10) A person who has been convicted of an offense under subsection (a.1)(2). The prohibition shall terminate five years after the date of conviction, final release from confinement or final release from supervision, whichever is later.
(d) Exemption.–A person who has been convicted of a crime specified in subsection (a) or (b) or a person whose conduct meets the criteria in subsection (c)(1), (2), (5), (7) or (9) may make application to the court of common pleas of the county where the principal residence of the applicant is situated for relief from the disability imposed by this section upon the possession, transfer or control of a firearm. The court shall grant such relief if it determines that any of the following apply:
(1) The conviction has been vacated under circumstances where all appeals have been exhausted or where the right to appeal has expired.
(2) The conviction has been the subject of a full pardon by the Governor.
(3) Each of the following conditions is met:
(i) The Secretary of the Treasury of the United States has relieved the applicant of an applicable disability imposed by Federal law upon the possession, ownership or control of a firearm as a result of the applicant’s prior conviction, except that the court may waive this condition if the court determines that the Congress of the United States has not appropriated sufficient funds to enable the Secretary of the Treasury to grant relief to applicants eligible for the relief.
(ii) A period of ten years, not including any time spent in incarceration, has elapsed since the most recent conviction of the applicant of a crime enumerated in subsection (b), a felony violation of The Controlled Substance, Drug, Device and Cosmetic Act or the offense which resulted in the prohibition under 18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(9).
(d.1) Concurrent jurisdiction to prosecute.–The following apply in a city of the first class where the Attorney General has operated a joint local-State firearm task force:
(1) In addition to the authority conferred upon the Attorney General by the act of October 15, 1980 (P.L. 950, No. 164),3 known as the Commonwealth Attorneys Act, the Attorney General shall have the authority to investigate and institute criminal proceedings for a violation of this section.
(2) No person charged with a violation of this section by the Attorney General shall have standing to challenge the authority of the Attorney General to prosecute the case, and, if any such challenge is made, the challenge shall be dismissed and no relief shall be available in the courts of this Commonwealth to the person making the challenge.
(3) This subsection shall not apply to any case instituted two years after the effective date of this subsection.4
(e) Proceedings.–
(1) If a person convicted of an offense under subsection (a),(b) or (c) (1), (2), (5), (7) or (9) makes application to the court, a hearing shall be held in open court to determine whether the requirements of this section have been met. The commissioner and the district attorney of the county where the application is filed and any victim or survivor of a victim of the offense upon which the disability is based may be parties to the proceeding.
(2) Upon application to the court of common pleas pursuant to paragraph (1) by an applicant who is subject to the prohibition under subsection (c)(3), the court shall grant such relief if a period of ten years, not including any time spent in incarceration, has passed since the applicant’s most recent conviction under subsection (c)(3).
(f) Other exemptions and proceedings.–
(1) Upon application to the court of common pleas under this subsection by an applicant subject to the prohibitions under subsection (c)(4), the court may grant such relief as it deems appropriate if the court determines that the applicant may possess a firearm without risk to the applicant or any other person.
(2) If application is made under this subsection for relief from the disability imposed under subsection (c)(6), notice of such application shall be given to the person who had petitioned for the protection from abuse order, and such person shall be a party to the proceedings. Notice of any court order or amendment to a court order restoring firearms possession or control shall be given to the person who had petitioned for the protection from abuse order, to the sheriff and to the Pennsylvania State Police. The application and any proceedings on the application shall comply with 23 Pa.C.S. Ch. 61 (relating to protection from abuse).
(3) All hearings conducted under this subsection shall be closed unless otherwise requested to be open by the applicant.
(4)(i) The owner of any seized or confiscated firearms or of any firearms ordered relinquished under 23 Pa.C.S. § 6108 shall be provided with a signed and dated written receipt by the appropriate law enforcement agency. This receipt shall include, but not limited to, a detailed identifying description indicating the serial number and condition of the firearm. In addition, the appropriate law enforcement agency shall be liable to the lawful owner of said confiscated, seized or relinquished firearm for any loss, damage or substantial decrease in value of said firearm that is a direct result of a lack of reasonable care by the appropriate law enforcement agency.
(ii) Firearms shall not be engraved or permanently marked in any manner, including, but not limited to, engraving of evidence or other identification numbers. Unless reasonable suspicion exists to believe that a particular firearm has been used in the commission of a crime, no firearm shall be test fired. Any reduction in the value of a firearm due to test firing, engraving or permanently marking in violation of this paragraph shall be considered damage, and the law enforcement agency shall be liable to the lawful owner of the firearm for the reduction in value caused by the test firing, engraving or permanently marking.
(iii) For purposes of this paragraph, the term “firearm” shall include any scope, sight, bipod, sling, light, magazine, clip, ammunition or other firearm accessory attached to or seized, confiscated or relinquished with a firearm.
(g) Other restrictions.–Nothing in this section shall exempt a person from a disability in relation to the possession or control of a firearm which is imposed as a condition of probation or parole or which is imposed pursuant to the provision of any law other than this section.
(h) License prohibition.–Any person who is prohibited from possessing, using, controlling, selling, purchasing, transferring or manufacturing any firearm under this section shall not be eligible for or permitted to obtain a license to carry a firearm under section 6109 (relating to licenses).
(i) Firearm.–As used in this section only, the term “firearm” shall include any weapons which are designed to or may readily be converted to expel any projectile by the action of an explosive or the frame or receiver of any such weapon.
(j) Copy of order to State Police.–If the court grants relief from the disabilities imposed under this section, a copy of the order shall be sent by the prothonotary within ten days of the entry of the order to the Pennsylvania State Police and shall include the name, date of birth and Social Security number of the individual.
(a) Deleted by 2009, July 14, P.L. 63, No. 15, § 1, effective in 60 days [Sept. 14, 2009].
(b) Photographing, videotaping, depicting on computer or filming sexual acts.–
(1) Any person who causes or knowingly permits a child under the age of 18 years to engage in a prohibited sexual act or in the simulation of such act commits an offense if such person knows, has reason to know or intends that such act may be photographed, videotaped, depicted on computer or filmed.
(2) Any person who knowingly photographs, videotapes, depicts on computer or films a child under the age of 18 years engaging in a prohibited sexual act or in the simulation of such an act commits an offense.
(c) Dissemination of photographs, videotapes, computer depictions and films.–Any person who knowingly sells, distributes, delivers, disseminates, transfers, displays or exhibits to others, or who possesses for the purpose of sale, distribution, delivery, dissemination, transfer, display or exhibition to others, any book, magazine, pamphlet, slide, photograph, film, videotape, computer depiction or other material depicting a child under the age of 18 years engaging in a prohibited sexual act or in the simulation of such act commits an offense.
(d) Child pornography.–Any person who intentionally views or knowingly possesses or controls any book, magazine, pamphlet, slide, photograph, film, videotape, computer depiction or other material depicting a child under the age of 18 years engaging in a prohibited sexual act or in the simulation of such act commits an offense.
(d.1) Grading.–The offenses shall be graded as follows:
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (3), an offense under subsection (b) is a felony of the second degree.
(2)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (3), a first offense under subsection (c) or (d) is a felony of the third degree.
(ii) A second or subsequent offense under subsection (c) or (d) is a felony of the second degree.
(3) When a person commits an offense graded under paragraph (1) or (2)(i), the grading of the offense shall be one grade higher than the grade specified in paragraph (1) or (2)(i) if:
(i) indecent contact with the child as defined in section 3101 (relating to definitions) is depicted; or
(ii) the child depicted is under 10 years of age or prepubescent.
(e) Evidence of age.–In the event a person involved in a prohibited sexual act is alleged to be a child under the age of 18 years, competent expert testimony shall be sufficient to establish the age of said person.
(e.1) Mistake as to age.–Under subsection (b) only, it is no defense that the defendant did not know the age of the child. Neither a misrepresentation of age by the child nor a bona fide belief that the person is over the specified age shall be a defense.
(f) Exceptions.–This section does not apply to any of the following:
(1) Any material that is viewed, possessed, controlled, brought or caused to be brought into this Commonwealth, or presented, for a bona fide educational, scientific, governmental or judicial purpose.
(2) Conduct prohibited under section 6321 (relating to transmission of sexually explicit images by minor), unless the conduct is specifically excluded by section 6321(d).
(3) An individual under 18 years of age who knowingly views, photographs, videotapes, depicts on a computer or films or possesses or intentionally views a visual depiction as defined in section 6321 of himself alone in a state of nudity as defined in section 6321.
(f.1) Criminal action.–
(1) A district attorney shall have the authority to investigate and to institute criminal proceedings for any violation of this section.
(2) In addition to the authority conferred upon the Attorney General by the act of October 15, 1980 (P.L. 950, No. 164),1 known as the Commonwealth Attorneys Act, the Attorney General shall have the authority to investigate and to institute criminal proceedings for any violation of this section or any series of violations of this section involving more than one county of this Commonwealth or involving any county of this Commonwealth and another state. No person charged with a violation of this section by the Attorney General shall have standing to challenge the authority of the Attorney General to investigate or prosecute the case, and, if any such challenge is made, the challenge shall be dismissed and no relief shall be available in the courts of this Commonwealth to the person making the challenge.
(g) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection:
“Intentionally views.” The deliberate, purposeful, voluntary viewing of material depicting a child under 18 years of age engaging in a prohibited sexual act or in the simulation of such act. The term shall not include the accidental or inadvertent viewing of such material.
“Prohibited sexual act.” Sexual intercourse as defined in section 3101 (relating to definitions), masturbation, sadism, masochism, bestiality, fellatio, cunnilingus, lewd exhibition of the genitals or nudity if such nudity is depicted for the purpose of sexual stimulation or gratification of any person who might view such depiction.
A person commits a misdemeanor of the second degree if he uses a psychological-stress evaluator, an audio-stress monitor or a similar device which measures voice waves or tonal inflections to judge the truth or falsity of oral statements without the consent of the person whose statement is being tested.
(a) Offense defined.–Except as set forth in subsection (d), a person commits the offense of invasion of privacy if he, for the purpose of arousing or gratifying the sexual desire of any person, knowingly does any of the following:
(1) Views, photographs, videotapes, electronically depicts, films or otherwise records another person without that person’s knowledge and consent while that person is in a state of full or partial nudity and is in a place where that person would have a reasonable expectation of privacy.
(2) Photographs, videotapes, electronically depicts, films or otherwise records or personally views the intimate parts, whether or not covered by clothing, of another person without that person’s knowledge and consent and which intimate parts that person does not intend to be visible by normal public observation.
(3) Transfers or transmits an image obtained in violation of paragraph (1) or (2) by live or recorded telephone message, electronic mail or the Internet or by any other transfer of the medium on which the image is stored.
(a.1) Separate violations.–A separate violation of this section shall occur:
(1) for each victim of an offense under subsection (a) under the same or similar circumstances pursuant to one scheme or course of conduct whether at the same or different times; or
(2) if a person is a victim of an offense under subsection (a) on more than one occasion during a separate course of conduct either individually or otherwise.
(b) Grading.–Invasion of privacy is a misdemeanor of the second degree if there is more than one violation. Otherwise, a violation of this section is a misdemeanor of the third degree.
(c) Commencement of prosecution.–Notwithstanding the provisions of 42 Pa.C.S. Ch. 55 Subch. C (relating to criminal proceedings), a prosecution under this section must be commenced within the following periods of limitation:
(1) two years from the date the offense occurred; or
(2) if the victim did not realize at the time that there was an offense, within three years of the time the victim first learns of the offense.
(d) Exceptions.–Subsection (a) shall not apply if the conduct proscribed by subsection (a) is done by any of the following:
(1) Law enforcement officers during a lawful criminal investigation.
(2) Law enforcement officers or by personnel of the Department of Corrections or a local correctional facility, prison or jail for security purposes or during investigation of alleged misconduct by a person in the custody of the department or local authorities.
(e) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection:
“Full or partial nudity.” Display of all or any part of the human genitals or pubic area or buttocks, or any part of the nipple of the breast of any female person, with less than a fully opaque covering.
“Intimate part.” Any part of:
(1) the human genitals, pubic area or buttocks; and
(2) the nipple of a female breast.
“Photographs” or “films.” Making any photograph, motion picture film, videotape or any other recording or transmission of the image of a person.
“Place where a person would have a reasonable expectation of privacy.” A location where a reasonable person would believe that he could disrobe in privacy without being concerned that his undressing was being viewed, photographed or filmed by another.
“Views.” Looking upon another person with the unaided eye or with any device designed or intended to improve visual acuity.
(a) Offense defined.–A person commits the offense of unlawful use of a computer if he:
(1) accesses or exceeds authorization to access, alters, damages or destroys any computer, computer system, computer network, computer software, computer program, computer database, World Wide Web site or telecommunication device or any part thereof with the intent to interrupt the normal functioning of a person or to devise or execute any scheme or artifice to defraud or deceive or control property or services by means of false or fraudulent pretenses, representations or promises;
(2) intentionally and without authorization accesses or exceeds authorization to access, alters, interferes with the operation of, damages or destroys any computer, computer system, computer network, computer software, computer program, computer database, World Wide Web site or telecommunication device or any part thereof; or
(3) intentionally or knowingly and without authorization gives or publishes a password, identifying code, personal identification number or other confidential information about a computer, computer system, computer network, computer database, World Wide Web site or telecommunication device.
(b) Grading.–An offense under this section shall constitute a felony of the third degree.
(c) Prosecution not prohibited.–Prosecution for an offense under this section shall not prohibit prosecution under any other section of this title.
(a) Offense defined.–A person commits the offense of computer trespass if he knowingly and without authority or in excess of given authority uses a computer or computer network with the intent to:
(1) temporarily or permanently remove computer data, computer programs or computer software from a computer or computer network;
(2) cause a computer to malfunction, regardless of the amount of time the malfunction persists;
(3) alter or erase any computer data, computer programs or computer software;
(4) effect the creation or alteration of a financial instrument or of an electronic transfer of funds; or
(5) cause physical injury to the property of another.
(b) Grading.–An offense under this section shall constitute a felony of the third degree.
(a) General rule.–The rights of a parent in regard to a child may be terminated after a petition filed on any of the following grounds:
(1) The parent by conduct continuing for a period of at least six months immediately preceding the filing of the petition either has evidenced a settled purpose of relinquishing parental claim to a child or has refused or failed to perform parental duties.
(2) The repeated and continued incapacity, abuse, neglect or refusal of the parent has caused the child to be without essential parental care, control or subsistence necessary for his physical or mental well-being and the conditions and causes of the incapacity, abuse, neglect or refusal cannot or will not be remedied by the parent.
(3) The parent is the presumptive but not the natural father of the child.
(4) The child is in the custody of an agency, having been found under such circumstances that the identity or whereabouts of the parent is unknown and cannot be ascertained by diligent search and the parent does not claim the child within three months after the child is found.
(5) The child has been removed from the care of the parent by the court or under a voluntary agreement with an agency for a period of at least six months, the conditions which led to the removal or placement of the child continue to exist, the parent cannot or will not remedy those conditions within a reasonable period of time, the services or assistance reasonably available to the parent are not likely to remedy the conditions which led to the removal or placement of the child within a reasonable period of time and termination of the parental rights would best serve the needs and welfare of the child.
(6) In the case of a newborn child, the parent knows or has reason to know of the child’s birth, does not reside with the child, has not married the child’s other parent, has failed for a period of four months immediately preceding the filing of the petition to make reasonable efforts to maintain substantial and continuing contact with the child and has failed during the same four-month period to provide substantial financial support for the child.
(7) The parent is the father of a child conceived as a result of a rape or incest.
(8) The child has been removed from the care of the parent by the court or under a voluntary agreement with an agency, 12 months or more have elapsed from the date of removal or placement, the conditions which led to the removal or placement of the child continue to exist and termination of parental rights would best serve the needs and welfare of the child.
(9) The parent has been convicted of one of the following in which the victim was a child of the parent:
(i) an offense under 18 Pa.C.S. Ch. 25 (relating to criminal homicide);
(ii) a felony under 18 Pa.C.S. § 2702 (relating to aggravated assault);
(iii) an offense in another jurisdiction equivalent to an offense in subparagraph (i) or (ii); or
(iv) an attempt, solicitation or conspiracy to commit an offense in subparagraph (i), (ii) or (iii).
(10) The parent has been found by a court of competent jurisdiction to have committed sexual abuse against the child or another child of the parent based on a judicial adjudication as set forth in paragraph (1)(i), (ii), (iii) or (iv) or (4) of the definition of “founded report” in section 6303(a) (relating to definitions) where the judicial adjudication is based on a finding of “sexual abuse or exploitation” as defined in section 6303(a).
(11) The parent is required to register as a sexual offender under 42 Pa.C.S. Ch. 97 Subch. H (relating to registration of sexual offenders) or I (relating to continued registration of sexual offenders)1 or to register with a sexual offender registry in another jurisdiction or foreign country.
(b) Other considerations.–The court in terminating the rights of a parent shall give primary consideration to the developmental, physical and emotional needs and welfare of the child. The rights of a parent shall not be terminated solely on the basis of environmental factors such as inadequate housing, furnishings, income, clothing and medical care if found to be beyond the control of the parent. With respect to any petition filed pursuant to subsection (a)(1), (6) or (8), the court shall not consider any efforts by the parent to remedy the conditions described therein which are first initiated subsequent to the giving of notice of the filing of the petition.
(c) Right to file personal and medical history information.–At the time the decree of termination is transmitted to the parent whose rights have been terminated, the court shall advise the parent, in writing, of his or her continuing right to place and update personal and medical history information, whether or not the medical condition is in existence or discoverable at the time of adoption, on file with the court and with the Department of Public Welfare pursuant to Subchapter B of Chapter 292 (relating to records and access to information).
(a) Who may file.–A petition to terminate parental rights with respect to a child under the age of 18 years may be filed by any of the following:
(1) Either parent when termination is sought with respect to the other parent.
(2) An agency.
(3) The individual having custody or standing in loco parentis to the child and who has filed a report of intention to adopt required by section 2531 (relating to report of intention to adopt).
(4) An attorney representing a child or a guardian ad litem representing a child who has been adjudicated dependent under 42 Pa.C.S. § 6341(c) (relating to adjudication).
(b) Contents.–The following apply:
(1) The petition shall set forth specifically those grounds and facts alleged as the basis for terminating parental rights.
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (3), the petition filed under this section shall also contain an averment that the petitioner will assume custody of the child until such time as the child is adopted.
(3) If the petitioner is a parent and section 2514 (relating to special provisions when child conceived as a result of rape or incest) applies, or if the petitioner is an agency, the petitioner shall not be required to aver that an adoption is presently contemplated nor that a person with a present intention to adopt exists.
(c) Father not identified.–If the petition does not identify the father of the child, it shall state whether a claim of paternity has been filed under section 8303 (relating to claim of paternity).1
(a) Time.–The court shall fix a time for hearing on a petition filed under section 2512 (relating to petition for involuntary termination) which shall be not less than ten days after filing of the petition.
(b) Notice.–At least ten days’ notice shall be given to the parent or parents, putative father, or parent of a minor parent whose rights are to be terminated, by personal service or by registered mail to his or their last known address or by such other means as the court may require. A copy of the notice shall be given in the same manner to the other parent, putative father or parent or guardian of a minor parent whose rights are to be terminated. A putative father shall include one who has filed a claim of paternity as provided in section 5103 (relating to acknowledgment and claim of paternity) prior to the institution of proceedings. The notice shall state the following:
“A petition has been filed asking the court to put an end to all rights you have to your child (insert name of child). The court has set a hearing to consider ending your rights to your child. That hearing will be held in (insert place, giving reference to exact room and building number or designation) on (insert date) at (insert time). You are warned that even if you fail to appear at the scheduled hearing, the hearing will go on without you and your rights to your child may be ended by the court without your being present. You have a right to be represented at the hearing by a lawyer. You should take this paper to your lawyer at once. If you do not have a lawyer or cannot afford one, go to or telephone the office set forth below to find out where you can get legal help.
(Name)
(Address)
(Telephone number)
”
(c) Mother competent witness on paternity issue.–The natural mother shall be a competent witness as to whether the presumptive or putative father is the natural father of the child.
(d) Decree.–After hearing, which may be private, the court shall make a finding relative to the pertinent provisions of section 2511 (relating to grounds for involuntary termination) and upon such finding may enter a decree of termination of parental rights.
Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, when a petition has been filed by a parent seeking to involuntarily terminate parental rights of the other parent under section 2511(a)(7) (relating to grounds for involuntary termination), the following apply:
(1) The petitioner shall not be required to aver that:
(i) the petitioner will assume custody of the child until such time as the child is adopted;
(ii) adoption is presently contemplated; or
(iii) a person with a present intention to adopt exists.
(2) Parental rights shall be terminated if all other legal requirements have been met.
(a) Jurisdiction.–The courts shall have original jurisdiction in cases of divorce and for the annulment of void or voidable marriages and shall determine, in conjunction with any decree granting a divorce or annulment, the following matters, if raised in the pleadings, and issue appropriate decrees or orders with reference thereto, and may retain continuing jurisdiction thereof:
(1) The determination and disposition of property rights and interests between spouses, including any rights created by any antenuptial, postnuptial or separation agreement and including the partition of property held as tenants by the entireties or otherwise and any accounting between them, and the order of any spousal support, alimony, alimony pendente lite, counsel fees or costs authorized by law.
(2) The future care, custody and visitation rights as to children of the marriage or purported marriage.
(3) Any support or assistance which shall be paid for the benefit of any children of the marriage or purported marriage.
(4) Any property settlement involving any of the matters set forth in paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) as submitted by the parties.
(5) Any other matters pertaining to the marriage and divorce or annulment authorized by law and which fairly and expeditiously may be determined and disposed of in such action.
(b) Residence and domicile of parties.–No spouse is entitled to commence an action for divorce or annulment under this part unless at least one of the parties has been a bona fide resident in this Commonwealth for at least six months immediately previous to the commencement of the action. Both parties shall be competent witnesses to prove their respective residence, and proof of actual residence within this Commonwealth for six months shall create a presumption of domicile within this Commonwealth.
(c) Powers of court.–The court has authority to entertain an action under this part notwithstanding the fact that the marriage of the parties and the cause for divorce occurred outside of this Commonwealth and that both parties were at the time of the occurrence domiciled outside this Commonwealth. The court also has the power to annul void or voidable marriages celebrated outside this Commonwealth at a time when neither party was domiciled within this Commonwealth.
(d) Foreign forum.–After the dissolution or annulment of a marriage in a foreign forum where a matter under subsection (a) has not been decided, a court of this Commonwealth shall have jurisdiction to determine a matter under subsection (a) to the fullest extent allowed under the Constitution of the United States.
(e) Venue.–A proceeding for divorce or annulment may be brought in the county:
(1) where the defendant resides;
(2) if the defendant resides outside of this Commonwealth, where the plaintiff resides;
(3) of matrimonial domicile, if the plaintiff has continuously resided in the county;
(4) prior to six months after the date of final separation and with agreement of the defendant, where the plaintiff resides or, if neither party continues to reside in the county of matrimonial domicile, where either party resides; or
(5) after six months after the date of final separation, where either party resides.
(a) Fault.–The court may grant a divorce to the innocent and injured spouse whenever it is judged that the other spouse has:
(1) Committed willful and malicious desertion, and absence from the habitation of the injured and innocent spouse, without a reasonable cause, for the period of one or more years.
(2) Committed adultery.
(3) By cruel and barbarous treatment, endangered the life or health of the injured and innocent spouse.
(4) Knowingly entered into a bigamous marriage while a former marriage is still subsisting.
(5) Been sentenced to imprisonment for a term of two or more years upon conviction of having committed a crime.
(6) Offered such indignities to the innocent and injured spouse as to render that spouse’s condition intolerable and life burdensome.
(b) Institutionalization.–The court may grant a divorce from a spouse upon the ground that insanity or serious mental disorder has resulted in confinement in a mental institution for at least 18 months immediately before the commencement of an action under this part and where there is no reasonable prospect that the spouse will be discharged from inpatient care during the 18 months subsequent to the commencement of the action. A presumption that no prospect of discharge exists shall be established by a certificate of the superintendent of the institution to that effect and which includes a supporting statement of a treating physician.
(c) Mutual consent.–
(1) The court may grant a divorce where it is alleged that the marriage is irretrievably broken and 90 days have elapsed from the date of commencement of an action under this part and an affidavit has been filed by each of the parties evidencing that each of the parties consents to the divorce.
(2) The consent of a party shall be presumed where that party has been convicted of committing a personal injury crime against the other party.
<Section 2 of Act 2016, Oct. 4, P.L. 865, No. 102, provides that the amendment of subsec. (d) by that Act shall apply to periods of living separate and apart that commence after Dec. 5, 2016.>
(d) Irretrievable breakdown.–
(1) The court may grant a divorce where a complaint has been filed alleging that the marriage is irretrievably broken and an affidavit has been filed alleging that the parties have lived separate and apart for a period of at least one year and that the marriage is irretrievably broken and the defendant either:
(i) Does not deny the allegations set forth in the affidavit.
(ii) Denies one or more of the allegations set forth in the affidavit but, after notice and hearing, the court determines that the parties have lived separate and apart for a period of at least one year and that the marriage is irretrievably broken.
(2) If a hearing has been held pursuant to paragraph (1)(ii) and the court determines that there is a reasonable prospect of reconciliation, then the court shall continue the matter for a period not less than 90 days nor more than 120 days unless the parties agree to a period in excess of 120 days. During this period, the court shall require counseling as provided in section 3302 (relating to counseling). If the parties have not reconciled at the expiration of the time period and one party states under oath that the marriage is irretrievably broken, the court shall determine whether the marriage is irretrievably broken. If the court determines that the marriage is irretrievably broken, the court shall grant the divorce. Otherwise, the court shall deny the divorce.
(e) No hearing required in certain cases.–If grounds for divorce alleged in the complaint or counterclaim are established under subsection (c) or (d), the court shall grant a divorce without requiring a hearing on any other grounds.
(a) General rule.–Where a divorce decree has been entered, the court may allow alimony, as it deems reasonable, to either party only if it finds that alimony is necessary.
(b) Factors relevant.–In determining whether alimony is necessary and in determining the nature, amount, duration and manner of payment of alimony, the court shall consider all relevant factors, including:
(1) The relative earnings and earning capacities of the parties.
(2) The ages and the physical, mental and emotional conditions of the parties.
(3) The sources of income of both parties, including, but not limited to, medical, retirement, insurance or other benefits.
(4) The expectancies and inheritances of the parties.
(5) The duration of the marriage.
(6) The contribution by one party to the education, training or increased earning power of the other party.
(7) The extent to which the earning power, expenses or financial obligations of a party will be affected by reason of serving as the custodian of a minor child.
(8) The standard of living of the parties established during the marriage.
(9) The relative education of the parties and the time necessary to acquire sufficient education or training to enable the party seeking alimony to find appropriate employment.
(10) The relative assets and liabilities of the parties.
(11) The property brought to the marriage by either party.
(12) The contribution of a spouse as homemaker.
(13) The relative needs of the parties.
(14) The marital misconduct of either of the parties during the marriage. The marital misconduct of either of the parties from the date of final separation shall not be considered by the court in its determinations relative to alimony, except that the court shall consider the abuse of one party by the other party. As used in this paragraph, “abuse” shall have the meaning given to it under section 6102 (relating to definitions).
(15) The Federal, State and local tax ramifications of the alimony award.
(16) Whether the party seeking alimony lacks sufficient property, including, but not limited to, property distributed under Chapter 35 (relating to property rights), to provide for the party’s reasonable needs.
(17) Whether the party seeking alimony is incapable of self-support through appropriate employment.
(c) Duration.–The court in ordering alimony shall determine the duration of the order, which may be for a definite or an indefinite period of time which is reasonable under the circumstances.
(d) Statement of reasons.–In an order made under this section, the court shall set forth the reason for its denial or award of alimony and the amount thereof.
(e) Modification and termination.–An order entered pursuant to this section is subject to further order of the court upon changed circumstances of either party of a substantial and continuing nature whereupon the order may be modified, suspended, terminated or reinstituted or a new order made. Any further order shall apply only to payments accruing subsequent to the petition for the requested relief. Remarriage of the party receiving alimony shall terminate the award of alimony.
(f) Status of agreement to pay alimony.–Whenever the court approves an agreement for the payment of alimony voluntarily entered into between the parties, the agreement shall constitute the order of the court and may be enforced as provided in section 3703 (relating to enforcement of arrearages).
Subject to the provisions of this chapter:
(1) Married persons are liable for the support of each other according to their respective abilities to provide support as provided by law.
(2) Parents are liable for the support of their children who are unemancipated and 18 years of age or younger.
(2.1) Paragraph (2) applies whether or not parental rights of the parent have been terminated due to a conviction for any of the following where the other parent is the victim and a child has been conceived as a result of the offense:
(i) 18 Pa.C.S. § 3121 (relating to rape);
(ii) 18 Pa.C.S. § 3122.1 (relating to statutory sexual assault);
(iii) 18 Pa.C.S. § 3124.1 (relating to sexual assault), where the offense involved sexual intercourse;
(iv) 18 Pa.C.S. § 3124.2 (relating to institutional sexual assault), where the offense involved sexual intercourse; or
(v) 18 Pa.C.S. § 4302 (relating to incest), where the offense involved sexual intercourse.
Paternity of the child under this paragraph shall be established through voluntary acknowledgment of paternity or blood, genetic or other type of paternity test acceptable to the court. The cost of the testing shall be borne by the parent who was convicted of the offense.
(3) Parents may be liable for the support of their children who are 18 years of age or older.
(a) Statewide guideline.–Child and spousal support shall be awarded pursuant to a Statewide guideline as established by general rule by the Supreme Court, so that persons similarly situated shall be treated similarly. The guideline shall be based upon the reasonable needs of the child or spouse seeking support and the ability of the obligor to provide support. In determining the reasonable needs of the child or spouse seeking support and the ability of the obligor to provide support, the guideline shall place primary emphasis on the net incomes and earning capacities of the parties, with allowable deviations for unusual needs, extraordinary expenses and other factors, such as the parties’ assets, as warrant special attention. The guideline so developed shall be reviewed at least once every four years.
(b) Rebuttable presumption.–There shall be a rebuttable presumption, in any judicial or expedited process, that the amount of the award which would result from the application of such guideline is the correct amount of support to be awarded. A written finding or specific finding on the record that the application of the guideline would be unjust or inappropriate in a particular case shall be sufficient to rebut the presumption in that case, provided that the finding is based upon criteria established by the Supreme Court by general rule within one year of the effective date of this act.
(a) General rule.–In every proceeding to establish or modify an order which requires the payment of child support, the court shall ascertain the ability of each parent to provide medical support for the children of the parties, and the order shall include a requirement for medical support to be provided by either or both parents, provided that such medical support is accessible to the children.
(b) Noncustodial parent requirement.–If medical support is available at a reasonable cost to a noncustodial parent, the court shall require that the noncustodial parent provide such medical support to the children of the parties. In cases where there are two noncustodial parents having such medical support available, the court shall require one or both parents to provide medical support.
(c) Custodial parent requirement.–If medical support is available at a reasonable cost to a custodial parent, the court shall require that the custodial parent provide such medical support to the children of the parties, unless adequate medical support has already been provided through the noncustodial parent. In cases where the parents have shared custody of the child and medical support is available to both, the court shall require one or both parents to provide medical support, taking into account the financial ability of the parties and the extent of medical support available to each parent.
(d) Additional requirement.–If the court finds that medical support is not available to either parent at a reasonable cost, the court shall order either parent or both parents to obtain medical support for the parties’ children which is available at reasonable cost.
(d.1) Medical support notice.–The department shall develop a medical support notice for use by the department or domestic relations section in accordance with procedures established by the department. The medical support notice shall comply with national standards established by the Federal Government for medical support notices. The department or domestic relations section shall send the medical support notice to the employer within two business days after the date of entry of an employee who is a new hire into the Commonwealth directory of new hires under section 4392 (relating to employer reporting).
(e) Uninsured expenses.–The court shall determine the amount of any deductible and copayments which each parent shall pay. In addition, the court may require that either parent or both parents pay a designated percentage of the reasonable and necessary uncovered health care expenses of the parties’ children, including birth-related expenses incurred prior to the filing of the complaint. Upon request of the domestic relations section, the department shall provide to the domestic relations section all birth-related expenses which the department has incurred in cases it has referred to the domestic relations section for child support services.
(f) Proof of insurance.–Within 30 days after the entry of an order requiring a parent to provide health care coverage for a child or after any change in health care coverage due to a change in the parent’s employment, the obligated parent shall submit to the other parent, or person having custody of the child, written proof that health care coverage has been obtained or that application for coverage has been made. Proof of coverage shall consist of at a minimum:
(1) The name of the health care coverage provider.
(2) Any applicable identification numbers.
(3) Any cards evidencing coverage.
(4) The address to which claims should be made.
(5) A description of any restrictions on usage, such as prior approval for hospital admissions, and the manner of obtaining approval.
(6) A copy of the benefit booklet or coverage contract.
(7) A description of all deductibles and copayments.
(8) Five copies of any claim forms.
(g) Obligations of insurance companies.–Every insurer doing business within this Commonwealth shall be obligated as follows:
(1) to permit the custodial parent or the provider, with the custodial parent’s approval, to submit claims for covered services without the approval of the noncustodial parent and to make payment on such claims directly to such custodial parent, the provider or, in the case of Medical Assistance patients, to the department;
(2) to provide such information to the custodial parent as may be necessary to obtain benefits, including copies of benefit booklets, insurance contracts and claims information;
(3) if coverage is made available for dependents of the insured, to make such coverage available to the insured’s children without regard to enrollment season restrictions, whether the child was born out of wedlock, whether the child is claimed as a dependent on the parent’s Federal income tax return, whether the child resides in the insurer’s service area, the amount of support contributed by a parent, the amount of time the child spends in the home or the custodial arrangements for the child;
(4) to permit the enrollment of children under court order upon application of the custodial parent, domestic relations section or the department within 30 days of receipt by the insurer of the order;
(4.1) not to disenroll or eliminate coverage of any child unless the insurer is provided satisfactory written evidence that a court order requiring coverage is no longer in effect or that the child is or will be enrolled in comparable health coverage through another insurer which will take effect no later than the effective date of such disenrollment;
(4.2) to receive, process and pay claims (whether or not on behalf of a child), including electronically submitted claims, submitted by the department within the time permitted by law without imposing any patient signature requirement or other requirement different from those imposed upon providers, agents or assignees of any insured individual;
(5) to provide the custodial parent who has complied with subsection (j) with the same notification of termination or modification of any health care coverage due to nonpayment of premiums or other reason as is provided to other insureds under the policy; and
(6) except as provided in paragraph (4.2), to not take into account the fact that any individual, whether or not a child, is eligible for or is being provided medical assistance when enrolling that individual or when making any payments for benefits to the individual or on the individual’s behalf.
(h) Obligations of noninsurers.–To the maximum extent permitted by Federal law, the obligations of subsection (g) shall apply to noninsurers providing health care coverage within this Commonwealth, including health maintenance organizations, self-insured employee health benefit plans and any other entity offering a service benefit plan.
(h.1) Obligations of employers.–Every employer doing business within this Commonwealth shall be obligated as follows:
(1) in any case in which a parent is required by a court order to provide health coverage for a child and the parent is eligible for family health coverage, the employer shall permit the insured parent to enroll any child who is otherwise eligible without regard to any enrollment season restrictions;
(2) if the insured parent is enrolled but fails to make application to obtain coverage for such child, to enroll the child under the family coverage upon application by the child’s other parent, the domestic relations section or the department;
(3) not to disenroll or eliminate coverage of any such child unless the employer is provided satisfactory written evidence that the court or administrative order is no longer in effect, the child is or will be enrolled in comparable health coverage which will take effect not later than the effective date of such disenrollment or the employer has eliminated family health coverage for all of its employees;
(4) to transfer health coverage for any child to the health coverage of the employer upon receipt of a medical support notice under subsection (d.1) issued by the department or a domestic relations section within 20 business days after the date of the notice; and
(5) to notify the domestic relations section whenever the insured parent’s employment is terminated.
(i) Obligations of custodial parent.–The custodial parent shall comply with the insurer’s existing claim procedures and present to the insurer one of the following documents:
(1) a copy of a court order as defined in subsection (l); or
(2) a release signed by the insured permitting the insurer to communicate directly with the custodial parent.
(j) Enforcement of order.–The employee’s share, if any, of premiums for health coverage shall be deducted by the employer and paid to the insurer or other entity providing health care coverage. If an obligated parent fails to comply with the order to provide health care coverage for a child, fails to pay medical expenses for a child or receives payment from a third party for the cost of medical services provided to such child and fails to reimburse the custodial parent or provider of services, the court shall:
(1) If, after a hearing, the failure or refusal is determined to have been willful, impose the penalties of section 4345(a) (relating to contempt for noncompliance with support order).
(2) Enter an order for a sum certain against the obligated parent for the cost of medical care for the child and for any premiums paid or provided for the child during any period in which the obligated parent failed or refused to provide coverage. Failure to comply with an order under this paragraph shall be subject to section 4348 (relating to attachment of income).
(3) Upon failure of the obligated parent to make this payment or reimburse the custodial parent and after compliance with due process requirements, treat the amount as arrearages.
(k) Enforcement against insurers.–Any insurer or other entity which violates the obligations imposed upon it under subsection (g) or (h) shall be civilly liable for damages and may be adjudicated in contempt and fined by the court.
(l) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection:
“Birth-related expenses.” Costs of reasonable and necessary health care for the mother or child or both incurred before, during or after the birth of a child born in or out of wedlock which are the result of the pregnancy or birth and which benefit either the mother or child. Charges not related to the pregnancy or birth shall be excluded.
“Child.” A child to whom a duty of child support is owed.
“Health care coverage.” Coverage for medical, dental, orthodontic, optical, psychological, psychiatric or other health care services for a child. For the purposes of this section, medical assistance under Subarticle (f)1 of Article IV of the act of June 13, 1967 (P.L. 31, No. 21), known as the Public Welfare Code, shall not be considered health care coverage.
“Insurer.” A foreign or domestic insurance company, association or exchange holding a certificate of authority under the act of May 17, 1921 (P.L. 682, No. 284),2 known as The Insurance Company Law of 1921; a risk-assuming preferred provider organization operating under section 6303 of The Insurance Company Law of 1921; a health maintenance organization holding a certificate of authority under the act of December 29, 1972 (P.L. 1701, No. 364),4 known as the Health Maintenance Organization Act; a fraternal benefit society holding a certificate of authority under the former act of December 14, 1992 (P.L. 835, No. 134),5 known as the Fraternal Benefit Societies Code; a hospital plan corporation holding a certificate of authority under 40 Pa.C.S. Ch. 61 (relating to hospital plan corporations); a professional health service plan corporation holding a certificate of authority under 40 Pa.C.S. Ch. 63 (relating to professional health services plan corporations); or a similar entity authorized to do insurance business in this Commonwealth.
“Medical child support order.” An order which relates to the child’s right to receive certain health care coverage and which:
(1) includes the name and last known mailing address of the parent providing health care coverage and the name and last known mailing address of the child;
(2) includes a reasonable description of the type of coverage to be provided or includes the manner in which coverage is to be determined;
(3) designates the time period to which the order applies;
(4) if coverage is provided through a group health plan, designates each plan to which the order applies as of the date the order is written;
(4.1) requires that, if health care coverage is provided through the noncustodial parent’s employer and that parent changes employment, the provisions of the order will remain in effect for the duration of the order and will automatically apply to the new employer. The new employer shall enroll the child in health care coverage without need for an amended order unless the noncustodial parent contests the enrollment; and
(5) includes the name and address of the custodial parent.
“Medical support.” Health care coverage, which includes coverage under a health insurance plan or government-subsidized health care coverage, including payment of costs of premiums, copayments, deductibles and capitation fees, and payment for medical expenses incurred on behalf of a child.
“Reasonable cost.” Cost of health care coverage that does not exceed 5% of the party’s net monthly income and, if the obligor is to provide health care coverage, the cost of the premium when coupled with a cash child support obligation and other child support-related obligations does not exceed the amounts allowed by the Federal threshold set forth in the Consumer Credit Protection Act (Public Law 90-321, 15 U.S.C. § 1601 et seq.).
(a) General rule.–Where applicable under this section, a court may order either or both parents who are separated, divorced, unmarried or otherwise subject to an existing support obligation to provide equitably for educational costs of their child whether an application for this support is made before or after the child has reached 18 years of age. The responsibility to provide for postsecondary educational expenses is a shared responsibility between both parents. The duty of a parent to provide a postsecondary education for a child is not as exacting a requirement as the duty to provide food, clothing and shelter for a child of tender years unable to support himself. This authority shall extend to postsecondary education, including periods of undergraduate or vocational education after the child graduates from high school. An award for postsecondary educational costs may be entered only after the child or student has made reasonable efforts to apply for scholarships, grants and work-study assistance.
(b) Action to recover educational expenses.–An action to recover educational costs may be commenced:
(1) by the student if over 18 years of age; or
(2) by either parent on behalf of a child under 18 years of age, but, if the student is over 18 years of age, the student’s written consent to the action must be secured.
(c) Calculation of educational costs.–In making an award under this section, the court shall calculate educational costs as defined in this section.
(d) Grants and scholarships.–The court shall deduct from the educational costs all grants and scholarships awarded to the student.
(e) Other relevant factors.–After calculating educational costs and deducting grants and scholarships, the court may order either parent or both parents to pay all or part of the remaining educational costs of their child. The court shall consider all relevant factors which appear reasonable, equitable and necessary, including the following:
(1) The financial resources of both parents.
(2) The financial resources of the student.
(3) The receipt of educational loans and other financial assistance by the student.
(4) The ability, willingness and desire of the student to pursue and complete the course of study.
(5) Any willful estrangement between parent and student caused by the student after attaining majority.
(6) The ability of the student to contribute to the student’s expenses through gainful employment. The student’s history of employment is material under this paragraph.
(7) Any other relevant factors.
(f) When liability may not be found.–A court shall not order support for educational costs if any of the following circumstances exist:
(1) Undue financial hardship would result to the parent.
(2) The educational costs would be a contribution for postcollege graduate educational costs.
(3) The order would extend support for the student beyond the student’s twenty-third birthday. If exceptional circumstances exist, the court may order educational support for the student beyond the student’s twenty-third birthday.
(g) Parent’s obligation.–A parent’s obligation to contribute toward the educational costs of a student shall not include payments to the other parent for the student’s living expenses at home unless the student resides at home with the other parent and commutes to school.
(h) Termination or modification of orders.–Any party may request modification or termination of an order entered under this section upon proof of change in educational status of the student, a material change in the financial status of any party or other relevant factors.
(1) This act shall apply to all divorce decrees, support agreements, support orders, agreed or stipulated court orders, property settlement agreements, equitable distribution agreements, custody agreements and/or court orders and agreed to or stipulated court orders in effect on, executed or entered since, November 12, 1992.
(2) In addition, this act shall apply to all pending actions for support. This section shall not supersede or modify the express terms of a voluntary written marital settlement agreement or any court order entered pursuant thereto.
(j) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection:
“Educational costs.” Tuition, fees, books, room, board and other educational materials.
“Postsecondary education.” An educational or vocational program provided at a college, university or other postsecondary vocational, secretarial, business or technical school.
(a) Procedure.–A support action or proceeding under this chapter shall be commenced in the manner prescribed by the Rules of Civil Procedure governing actions of support.
(b) Standing.–Any person caring for a child shall have standing to commence or continue an action for support of that child regardless of whether a court order has been issued granting that person custody of the child.
(c) Jurisdiction.–The court shall exercise Statewide jurisdiction over the parties to a proceeding under this chapter.
(a) Acknowledgment of paternity.–The father of a child born to an unmarried woman may file with the Department of Public Welfare,1 on forms prescribed by the department, an acknowledgment of paternity of the child which shall include the consent of the mother of the child, supported by her witnessed statement subject to 18 Pa.C.S. § 4904 (relating to unsworn falsification to authorities). In such case, the father shall have all the rights and duties as to the child which he would have had if he had been married to the mother at the time of the birth of the child, and the child shall have all the rights and duties as to the father which the child would have had if the father had been married to the mother at the time of birth. The hospital or other person accepting an acknowledgment of paternity shall provide written and oral notice, which may be through the use of video or audio equipment, to the birth mother and birth father of the alternatives to, the legal consequences of and the rights and responsibilities that arise from, signing the acknowledgment.
(b) Claim of paternity.–If the mother of the child fails or refuses to join in the acknowledgment of paternity provided for in subsection (a), the Department of Public Welfare shall index it as a claim of paternity. The filing and indexing of a claim of paternity shall not confer upon the putative father any rights as to the child except that the putative father shall be entitled to notice of any proceeding brought to terminate any parental rights as to the child.
(c) Duty of hospital or birthing center.–Upon the birth of a child to an unmarried woman, an agent of the hospital or birthing center where the birth occurred shall:
(1) Provide the newborn’s birth parents with an opportunity to complete an acknowledgment of paternity. The completed, signed and witnessed acknowledgment shall be sent to the Department of Public Welfare. A copy shall be given to each of the birth parents. This acknowledgment shall contain:
(i) A signed, witnessed statement subject to 18 Pa.C.S. § 4904 (relating to unsworn falsification to authorities) by the birth mother consenting to the acknowledgment of paternity.
(ii) A signed, witnessed statement subject to 18 Pa.C.S. § 4904 by the birth father acknowledging his paternity.
(iii) A written explanation of the parental duties and parental rights which arise from signing such a statement.
(iv) The Social Security numbers and addresses of both birth parents.
(2) Provide written information, furnished by the department to the birth mother and birth father, which explains the benefits of having the child’s paternity established, the availability of paternity establishment services and the availability of child support enforcement agencies.
(d) Conclusive evidence.–Notwithstanding any other provision of law, an acknowledgment of paternity shall constitute conclusive evidence of paternity without further judicial ratification in any action to establish support. The court shall give full faith and credit to an acknowledgment of paternity signed in another state according to its procedures.
(e) Transfer.–The Department of Health shall transfer to the Department of Public Welfare all acknowledgments or claims of paternity filed with the Department of Health under prior statutes.
(f) Certifications.–The Department of Public Welfare shall provide necessary certifications under Part III (relating to adoption) as to whether any acknowledgment or claim of paternity has been filed in regard to any child who is a prospective adoptive child.
(g) Rescission.–
(1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a signed, voluntary, witnessed acknowledgment of paternity subject to 18 Pa.C.S. § 4904 shall be considered a legal finding of paternity, subject to the right of any signatory to rescind the acknowledgment within the earlier of the following:
(i) sixty days; or
(ii) the date of an administrative or judicial proceeding relating to the child, including, but not limited to, a domestic relations section conference or a proceeding to establish a support order in which the signatory is a party.
(2) After the expiration of the 60 days, an acknowledgment of paternity may be challenged in court only on the basis of fraud, duress or material mistake of fact, which must be established by the challenger through clear and convincing evidence. An order for support shall not be suspended during the period of challenge except for good cause shown.
(h) Penalties for noncompliance.–The department may impose a civil penalty not to exceed $500 per day upon a hospital or birthing center which is not in compliance with the provisions of this section. A penalty under this subsection is subject to 2 Pa.C.S. Ch. 5 Subch. A (relating to practice and procedure of Commonwealth agencies) and Ch. 7 Subch. A (relating to judicial review of Commonwealth agency action).
(i) Status of father.–The name of the father shall be included on the record of birth of the child of unmarried parents only if one of the following applies:
(1) The father and mother have signed a voluntary acknowledgment of paternity.
(2) A court or administrative agency of competent jurisdiction has issued an adjudication of paternity.
(a) Short title of section.–This section shall be known and may be cited as the Uniform Act on Blood Tests to Determine Paternity.
(b) Scope of section.–
(1) Civil matters.–This section shall apply to all civil matters.
(2) Criminal proceedings.–This section shall apply to all criminal proceedings subject to the following limitations and provisions:
(i) An order for the tests shall be made only upon application of a party or on the initiative of the court.
(ii) The compensation of the experts shall be paid by the party requesting the blood test or by the county, as the court shall direct.
(iii) The court may direct a verdict of acquittal upon the conclusions of all the experts under subsection (f). Otherwise, the case shall be submitted for determination upon all the evidence.
(iv) The refusal of a defendant to submit to the tests may not be used in evidence against the defendant.
(c) Authority for test.–In any matter subject to this section in which paternity, parentage or identity of a child is a relevant fact, the court, upon its own initiative or upon suggestion made by or on behalf of any person whose blood is involved, may or, upon motion of any party to the action made at a time so as not to delay the proceedings unduly, shall order the mother, child and alleged father to submit to blood tests. If any party refuses to submit to the tests, the court may resolve the question of paternity, parentage or identity of a child against the party or enforce its order if the rights of others and the interests of justice so require.
(d) Selection of experts.–The tests shall be made by experts qualified as examiners of blood types, who shall be appointed by the court. The experts shall be called by the court as witnesses to testify to their findings and shall be subject to cross-examination by the parties. Any party or person at whose suggestion the tests have been ordered may demand that other experts qualified as examiners of blood types perform independent tests under order of court, the results of which may be offered in evidence. The number and qualifications of experts shall be determined by the court.
(e) Compensation of experts.–The compensation of each expert witness appointed by the court shall be fixed at a reasonable amount. It shall be paid as the court shall order. Subject to general rules, the court may order that it be paid by the parties in such proportions and at such times as it shall prescribe or that the proportion of any party be paid by the county and that, after payment by the parties or the county, or both, all or part or none of it be taxed as costs in the action. Subject to general rules, the fee of an expert witness called by a party but not appointed by the court shall be paid by the party calling him, but shall not be taxed as costs in the action.
(f) Effect of test results.–If the court finds that the conclusions of all the experts as disclosed by the evidence based upon the tests are that the alleged father is not the father of the child, the question of paternity, parentage or identity of a child shall be resolved accordingly. If the experts disagree in their findings or conclusions, the question shall be submitted upon all the evidence.
(g) Effect on presumption of legitimacy.–The presumption of legitimacy of a child born during wedlock is overcome if the court finds that the conclusions of all the experts as disclosed by the evidence based upon the tests show that the husband is not the father of the child.
(a) This chapter.–The following words and phrases when used in this chapter shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
“Abuse.” As follows:
(1) As defined in section 6102 (relating to definitions). The term includes the crime of stalking pursuant to 18 Pa.C.S. § 2709.1 (relating to stalking).
(2) The term does not include the justified use of force in self-protection or for the protection of other persons in accordance with 18 Pa.C.S. § 505 (relating to use of force in self-protection) by a party in response to abuse or domestic abuse by the other party.
“Adult.” An individual 18 years of age or older.
“Agency.” Any organization, society, institution, court facility or other entity which provides for the care of a child. The term does not include a county children and youth social service agency.
“Child.” An unemancipated individual under 18 years of age.
“Household member.” A spouse or an individual who has been a spouse, an individual living as a spouse or who lived as a spouse, a parent or child, another individual related by consanguinity or affinity, a current or former sexual or intimate partner, an individual who shares biological parenthood or any other person, who is currently sharing a household with the child or a party.
“Legal custody.” The right to make major decisions on behalf of the child, including, but not limited to, medical, religious and educational decisions.
“Nonprofessional supervised physical custody.” Custodial time during which an adult, designated by the court or agreed upon by the parties, monitors the interaction between the child and the individual with those rights.
“Parental duties.” Includes meeting the physical, emotional and social needs of the child.
“Partial physical custody.” The right to assume physical custody of the child for less than a majority of the time.
“Physical custody.” The actual physical possession and control of a child.
“Primary physical custody.” The right to assume physical custody of the child for the majority of time.
“Professional supervised physical custody.” Custodial time during which a professional, with education and training on the dynamics of domestic violence, sexual assault, child abuse, trauma and the impact of domestic violence on children, oversees the interaction between the child and the individual with those custody rights and promotes the safety of the child during the interaction.
“Relocation.” A change in a residence of the child which significantly impairs the ability of a nonrelocating party to exercise custodial rights.
“Safety of the child.” The term includes, but is not limited to, the physical, emotional and psychological well-being of the child.
“Shared legal custody.” The right of more than one individual to legal custody of the child.
“Shared physical custody.” The right of more than one individual to assume physical custody of the child, each having significant periods of physical custodial time with the child.
“Sole legal custody.” The right of one individual to exclusive legal custody of the child.
“Sole physical custody.” The right of one individual to exclusive physical custody of the child.
“Supervised physical custody.” Custodial time during which an agency or an adult designated by the court or agreed upon by the parties monitors the interaction between the child and the individual with those rights.
“Temporary housing instability.” A period not to exceed six months from the date of the last incident of abuse as determined by a court.
(b) Other law.–In a statutory provision other than in this chapter, when the term “visitation” is used in reference to child custody, the term may be construed to mean:
(1) partial physical custody;
(2) shared physical custody; or
(3) supervised physical custody.
(a) Types of award.–After considering the factors set forth in section 5328 (relating to factors to consider when awarding custody), the court may award any of the following types of custody if it is in the best interest of the child:
(1) Shared physical custody.
(2) Primary physical custody.
(3) Partial physical custody.
(4) Sole physical custody.
(5) Supervised physical custody.
(6) Shared legal custody.
(7) Sole legal custody.
(b) Interim award.–The court may issue an interim award of custody to a party who has standing under section 5324 (relating to standing for any form of physical custody or legal custody) or 5325 (relating to standing for partial physical custody and supervised physical custody) in the manner prescribed by the Pennsylvania Rules of Civil Procedure governing special relief in custody matters.
(c) Notice.–Any custody order shall include notice of a party’s obligations under section 5337 (relating to relocation).
(d) Reasons for award.–The court shall delineate the reasons for its decision on the record in open court or in a written opinion or order.
(e) Safety conditions.–
(1) After considering the factors under sections 5328, 5329 (relating to consideration of criminal conviction), 5329.1 (relating to consideration of child abuse and involvement with protective services) and 5330 (relating to consideration of criminal charge), if the court finds a history of abuse of the child or a household member by a party or a present risk of harm to the child or an abused party and awards any form of custody to a party who committed the abuse or who has a household member who committed the abuse, the court shall include in the custody order:
(i) The safety conditions, restrictions or safeguards as reasonably necessary to protect the child or the abused party.
(ii) The reason for imposing the safety conditions, restrictions or safeguards, including an explanation why the safety conditions, restrictions or safeguards are in the best interest of the child or the abused party.
(iii) The reasons why unsupervised physical custody is in the best interest of the child if the court finds that past abuse was committed by a party.
(2) If supervised contact is ordered, there shall be a review of the risk of harm and need for continued supervision upon petition of the party. The safety conditions, restrictions or safeguards may include any of the following:
(i) Nonprofessional supervised physical custody.
(ii) Professional supervised physical custody.
(iii) Limitations on the time of day that physical custody is permitted or on the number of hours of physical custody and the maximum number of hours of physical custody permitted per day or per week.
(iv) The appointment of a qualified professional specializing in programming relating to the history of abuse or risk of harm to provide batterer’s intervention and harm prevention programming. Batterer’s intervention and harm prevention programming may include programming designed to rehabilitate the offending individual, including prioritizing a batterer’s intervention and harm prevention program, if available, or the impacts of physical, sexual or domestic abuse on the victim. The court may order an evaluation by the appointed qualified professional under this paragraph to determine whether additional programming is necessary.
(v) Limitations on legal custody.
(vi) Any other safety condition, restriction or safeguard as necessary to ensure the safety of the child or to protect a household member.
(e.1) Supervised physical custody.–If a court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that there is an ongoing risk of abuse of the child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that the court shall only allow supervised physical custody between the child and the party who poses the risk of abuse. A court may find that an indicated report for physical or sexual abuse under Chapter 63 (relating to child protective services) is a basis for a finding of abuse under this subsection only after a de novo review of the circumstances leading to the indicated report. When awarding supervised physical custody under this subsection, the court shall favor professional supervised physical custody. The court may award nonprofessional supervised physical custody if:
(1) the court determines that professional supervised physical custody is not available within a reasonable distance of the parties or the court determines that the party requiring supervised physical custody is unable to pay for the professional supervised physical custody; and
(2) the court designates an adult to supervise the custodial visits who has appeared in person before the court, the individual executes an affidavit of accountability and the court makes finding, on the record, that the individual is capable of promoting the safety of the child.
(f) Enforcement.–In awarding custody, the court shall specify the terms and conditions of the award in sufficient detail to enable a party to enforce the court order through law enforcement authorities.
(g) Contempt for noncompliance with any custody order.–
(1) A party who willfully fails to comply with any custody order may, as prescribed by general rule, be adjudged in contempt. Contempt shall be punishable by any one or more of the following:
(i) Imprisonment for a period of not more than six months.
(ii) A fine of not more than $500.
(iii) Probation for a period of not more than six months.
(iv) An order for nonrenewal, suspension or denial of operating privilege under section 4355 (relating to denial or suspension of licenses).
(v) Counsel fees and costs.
(2) An order committing an individual to jail under this section shall specify the condition which, when fulfilled, will result in the release of that individual.
(h) Parties in same residence.–Parties living separate and apart in the same residence may seek relief under this chapter, but any custody order made under such a circumstance shall be effective only upon:
(1) one party physically vacating the residence; or
(2) an order awarding one party exclusive possession of the residence.
The following individuals may file an action under this chapter for any form of physical custody or legal custody:
(1) A parent of the child.
(2) A person who stands in loco parentis to the child.
(3) A grandparent of the child who is not in loco parentis to the child:
(i) whose relationship with the child began either with the consent of a parent of the child or under a court order;
(ii) who assumes or is willing to assume responsibility for the child; and
(iii) when one of the following conditions is met:
(A) the child has been determined to be a dependent child under 42 Pa.C.S. Ch. 63 (relating to juvenile matters);
(B) the child is substantially at risk due to parental abuse, neglect, drug or alcohol abuse or incapacity; or
(C) the child has, for a period of at least 12 consecutive months, resided with the grandparent, excluding brief temporary absences of the child from the home, and is removed from the home by the parents, in which case the action must be filed within six months after the removal of the child from the home.
(4) Subject to paragraph (5), an individual who establishes by clear and convincing evidence all of the following:
(i) The individual has assumed or is willing to assume responsibility for the child.
(ii) The individual has a sustained, substantial and sincere interest in the welfare of the child. In determining whether the individual meets the requirements of this subparagraph, the court may consider, among other factors, the nature, quality, extent and length of the involvement by the individual in the child’s life.
(iii) Neither parent has any form of care and control of the child.
(5) Paragraph (4) shall not apply if:
(i) a dependency proceeding involving the child has been initiated or is ongoing; or
(ii) there is an order of permanent legal custody under 42 Pa.C.S. § 6351(a)(2.1) or (f.1)(3) (relating to disposition of dependent child).
In addition to situations set forth in section 5324 (relating to standing for any form of physical custody or legal custody), grandparents and great-grandparents may file an action under this chapter for partial physical custody or supervised physical custody in the following situations:
(1) where the parent of the child is deceased, a parent or grandparent of the deceased parent may file an action under this section;
(2) where the relationship with the child began either with the consent of a parent of the child or under a court order and where the parents of the child:
(i) have commenced a proceeding for custody; and
(ii) do not agree as to whether the grandparents or great-grandparents should have custody under this section; or(3) when the child has, for a period of at least 12 consecutive months, resided with the grandparent or great-grandparent, excluding brief temporary absences of the child from the home, and is removed from the home by the parents, an action must be filed within six months after the removal of the child from the home.
(a) Factors.–In ordering any form of custody, the court shall determine the best interest of the child by considering all relevant factors, giving substantial weighted consideration to the factors specified under paragraphs (1), (2), (2.1) and (2.2) which affect the safety of the child, including the following:
(1) Which party is more likely to ensure the safety of the child.
(2) The present and past abuse committed by a party or member of the party’s household, which may include past or current protection from abuse or sexual violence protection orders where there has been a finding of abuse.
(2.1) The information set forth in section 5329.1(a) (relating to consideration of child abuse and involvement with protective services).
(2.2) Violent or assaultive behavior committed by a party.
(2.3) Which party is more likely to encourage and permit frequent and continuing contact between the child and another party if contact is consistent with the safety needs of the child.
(3) The parental duties performed by each party on behalf of the child.
(4) The need for stability and continuity in the child’s education, family life and community life, except if changes are necessary to protect the safety of the child or a party.
(5) The availability of extended family.
(6) The child’s sibling relationships.
(7) The well-reasoned preference of the child, based on the child’s developmental stage, maturity and judgment.
(8) The attempts of a party to turn the child against the other party, except in cases of abuse where reasonable safety measures are necessary to protect the safety of the child. A party’s reasonable concerns for the safety of the child and the party’s reasonable efforts to protect the child shall not be considered attempts to turn the child against the other party. A child’s deficient or negative relationship with a party shall not be presumed to be caused by the other party.
(9) Which party is more likely to maintain a loving, stable, consistent and nurturing relationship with the child adequate for the child’s emotional needs.
(10) Which party is more likely to attend to the daily physical, emotional, developmental, educational and special needs of the child.
(11) The proximity of the residences of the parties.
(12) Each party’s availability to care for the child or ability to make appropriate child-care arrangements.
(13) The level of conflict between the parties and the willingness and ability of the parties to cooperate with one another. A party’s effort to protect a child or self from abuse by another party is not evidence of unwillingness or inability to cooperate with that party.
(14) The history of drug or alcohol abuse of a party or member of a party’s household.
(15) The mental and physical condition of a party or member of a party’s household.
(16) Any other relevant factor.
(a.1) Exception.–A factor under subsection (a) shall not be adversely weighed against a party if the circumstances related to the factor were in response to abuse or necessary to protect the child or the abused party from harm and the party alleging abuse does not pose a risk to the safety of the child at the time of the custody hearing. Temporary housing instability as a result of abuse shall not be considered against the party alleging abuse.
(a.2) Determination.–No single factor under subsection (a) shall by itself be determinative in the awarding of custody. The court shall examine the totality of the circumstances, giving weighted consideration to the factors that affect the safety of the child, when issuing a custody order that is in the best interest of the child.
(b) Gender neutral.–In making a determination under subsection (a), no party shall receive preference based upon gender in any award granted under this chapter.
(c) Grandparents and great-grandparents.–
(1) In ordering partial physical custody or supervised physical custody to a party who has standing under section 5325(1) or (2) (relating to standing for partial physical custody and supervised physical custody), the court shall consider the following:
(i) the amount of personal contact between the child and the party prior to the filing of the action;
(ii) whether the award interferes with any parent-child relationship; and
(iii) whether the award is in the best interest of the child.
(2) In ordering partial physical custody or supervised physical custody to a parent’s parent or grandparent who has standing under section 5325(3), the court shall consider whether the award:
(i) interferes with any parent-child relationship; and
(ii) is in the best interest of the child.
(a) Offenses.–Where a party seeks any form of custody, the court shall consider whether that party or member of that party’s household has been convicted of or has pleaded guilty or no contest to any of the offenses in this section or an offense in another jurisdiction substantially equivalent to any of the offenses in this section. The court shall consider such conduct and determine that the party does not pose a threat of harm to the child before making any order of custody to that party when considering the following offenses:
18 Pa.C.S. Ch. 25 (relating to criminal homicide).
18 Pa.C.S. § 2701 (relating to simple assault).
18 Pa.C.S. § 2702 (relating to aggravated assault).
18 Pa.C.S. § 2705 (relating to recklessly endangering another person).
18 Pa.C.S. § 2706 (relating to terroristic threats).
18 Pa.C.S. § 2709.1 (relating to stalking).
18 Pa.C.S. § 2718 (relating to strangulation).
18 Pa.C.S. § 2901 (relating to kidnapping).
18 Pa.C.S. § 2902 (relating to unlawful restraint).
18 Pa.C.S. § 2903 (relating to false imprisonment).
18 Pa.C.S. § 2904 (relating to interference with custody of children).
18 Pa.C.S. § 2910 (relating to luring a child into a motor vehicle or structure).
18 Pa.C.S. Ch. 30 (relating to human trafficking).
18 Pa.C.S. § 3121 (relating to rape).
18 Pa.C.S. § 3122.1 (relating to statutory sexual assault).
18 Pa.C.S. § 3123 (relating to involuntary deviate sexual intercourse).
18 Pa.C.S. § 3124.1 (relating to sexual assault).
18 Pa.C.S. § 3125 (relating to aggravated indecent assault).
18 Pa.C.S. § 3126 (relating to indecent assault).
18 Pa.C.S. § 3127 (relating to indecent exposure).
18 Pa.C.S. § 3129 (relating to sexual intercourse with animal).
18 Pa.C.S. § 3130 (relating to conduct relating to sex offenders).
18 Pa.C.S. § 3301 (relating to arson and related offenses).
18 Pa.C.S. § 4302 (relating to incest).
18 Pa.C.S. § 4303 (relating to concealing death of child).
18 Pa.C.S. § 4304 (relating to endangering welfare of children).
18 Pa.C.S. § 4305 (relating to dealing in infant children).
18 Pa.C.S. § 5533 (relating to cruelty to animal).
18 Pa.C.S. § 5534 (relating to aggravated cruelty to animal).
18 Pa.C.S. § 5543 (relating to animal fighting).
18 Pa.C.S. § 5544 (relating to possession of animal fighting paraphernalia).
18 Pa.C.S. § 5902(b) or (b.1) (relating to prostitution and related offenses).
18 Pa.C.S. § 5903(c) or (d) (relating to obscene and other sexual materials and performances).
18 Pa.C.S. § 6301 (relating to corruption of minors).
18 Pa.C.S. § 6312 (relating to sexual abuse of children).
18 Pa.C.S. § 6318 (relating to unlawful contact with minor).
18 Pa.C.S. § 6320 (relating to sexual exploitation of children).
Section 6114 (relating to contempt for violation of order or agreement).
The former 75 Pa.C.S. § 3731 (relating to driving under influence of alcohol or controlled substance).
75 Pa.C.S. Ch. 38 (relating to driving after imbibing alcohol or utilizing drugs).
Section 13(a)(1) of the act of April 14, 1972 (P.L. 233, No. 64),1 known as The Controlled Substance, Drug, Device and Cosmetic Act, to the extent that it prohibits the manufacture, sale or delivery, holding, offering for sale or possession of any controlled substance or other drug or device.
(a.1) Determination.–A criminal conviction specified under subsection (a) shall not by itself be determinative in the awarding of custody. The court shall examine the totality of the circumstances when issuing a custody order that is in the best interest of the child.
(b) Parent convicted of murder.–No court shall award custody, partial custody or supervised physical custody to a parent who has been convicted of murder under 18 Pa.C.S. § 2502(a) (relating to murder) of the other parent of the child who is the subject of the order unless the child is of suitable age and consents to the order.
(b.1) Parent convicted of certain sexual offenses.–
(1) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the contrary and subject to paragraph (2), if a parent who is a victim of any of the offenses set forth in this paragraph objects, no court shall award any type of custody set forth in section 5323 (relating to award of custody) to the other parent of a child conceived as a result of any of the following offenses for which the other parent has been convicted:
18 Pa.C.S. § 3121.
18 Pa.C.S. § 3122.1.
18 Pa.C.S. § 3124.1, where the offense involved sexual intercourse.
18 Pa.C.S. § 3124.2 (relating to institutional sexual assault), where the offense involved sexual intercourse.
18 Pa.C.S. § 4302.
(2) A court may award any type of custody set forth in section 5323 to a parent who has been convicted of an offense under paragraph (1) if:
(i) the parent who is a victim had an opportunity to address the court;
(ii) the child is of suitable age and consents to the custody order; and
(iii) the court determines the award is in the best interest of the child.
(3) Paternity of the child shall be established by voluntary acknowledgment of paternity or blood, genetic or other paternity testing acceptable to the court. The cost of the testing shall be borne by the parent who was convicted of the offense.
(c) Initial evaluation.–At the initial in-person contact with the court, the judge, conference officer or other appointed individual shall perform an initial evaluation to determine whether the party or household member who committed an offense under subsection (a) poses a threat to the child and whether counseling is necessary. The initial evaluation shall not be conducted by a mental health professional. After the initial evaluation, the court may order further evaluation or counseling by a mental health professional if the court determines it is necessary.
(d) Counseling.–
(1) Where the court determines under subsection (c) that counseling is necessary, it shall appoint a qualified professional specializing in treatment relating to the particular offense to provide counseling to the offending individual.
(2) Counseling may include a program of treatment or individual therapy designed to rehabilitate the offending individual which addresses, but is not limited to, issues regarding physical and sexual abuse, the psychology of the offender and the effects of the offense on the victim.
(e) Subsequent evaluation.–
(1) At any time during or subsequent to the counseling under subsection (d), the court may require another evaluation to determine whether further counseling is necessary.
(2) If the court awards custody to a party who committed an offense under subsection (a) or who shares a household with an individual who committed an offense under subsection (a), the court may require subsequent evaluations on the rehabilitation of the offending individual and the well-being of the child subsequent to the order. If, upon review of a subsequent evaluation, the court determines that the offending individual poses a threat of physical, emotional or psychological harm to the child, the court may schedule a hearing to modify the custody order.
(f) Costs.–The court may order a party to pay all or part of the costs of the counseling and evaluations under this section.
(a) Information sharing.–In accordance with section 6340(a)(5.1) (relating to release of information in confidential reports), where a party seeks any form of custody subject to the examination of the parties, the court shall determine:
(1) With respect to child abuse under Chapter 63 (relating to child protective services) or a child who is a victim of a crime under 18 Pa.C.S. (relating to crimes and offenses) which would constitute abuse under Chapter 63:
(i) Whether the child is the subject of an indicated or founded report of child abuse.
(ii) Whether a party or a member of the party’s household has been identified as the perpetrator in an indicated or founded report of child abuse.
(iii) The date and circumstances of the child abuse.
(iv) The jurisdiction where the child abuse investigation took place.
(2) With respect to child protective services or general protective services under Chapter 63:
(i) Whether a party or a member of a party’s household has been provided services.
(ii) The type of services provided.
(iii) The circumstances surrounding the provision of services.
(iv) The status of services.
(v) The date the services were provided.
(vi) The jurisdiction where the services were provided.
(b) Cooperation.–The following apply:
(1) The Department of Public Welfare [FN1] and the county children and youth social service agency shall fully cooperate with the court and assist the court in fulfilling its duties under this section.
(2) The Department of Public Welfare and the county children and youth social service agency shall fully cooperate with the governing authority in order to implement the provisions of this section.
(3) The governing authority shall develop procedures to implement the provisions of this section.
(4) As used in this subsection, the term “governing authority” shall have the meaning given to it in 42 Pa.C.S. § 102 (relating to definitions).
(a) Applicability.–This section applies to any proposed relocation.
(b) General rule.–No relocation shall occur unless:
(1) every individual who has custody rights to the child consents to the proposed relocation; or
(2) the court approves the proposed relocation.
(c) Notice.–
(1) The party proposing the relocation shall notify every other individual who has custody rights to the child.
(2) Notice, sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, shall be given no later than:
(i) the 60th day before the date of the proposed relocation; or
(ii) the tenth day after the date that the individual knows of the relocation, if:
(A) the individual did not know and could not reasonably have known of the relocation in sufficient time to comply with the 60-day notice; and
(B) it is not reasonably possible to delay the date of relocation so as to comply with the 60-day notice.
(3) Except as provided by section 5336 (relating to access to records and information), the following information, if available, must be included with the notice of the proposed relocation:
(i) The address of the intended new residence.
(ii) The mailing address, if not the same as the address of the intended new residence.
(iii) Names and ages of the individuals in the new residence, including individuals who intend to live in the new residence.
(iv) The home telephone number of the intended new residence, if available.
(v) The name of the new school district and school.
(vi) The date of the proposed relocation.
(vii) The reasons for the proposed relocation.
(viii) A proposal for a revised custody schedule.
(ix) Any other information which the party proposing the relocation deems appropriate.
(x) A counter-affidavit as provided under subsection (d)(1) which can be used to object to the proposed relocation and the modification of a custody order.
(xi) A warning to the nonrelocating party that if the nonrelocating party does not file with the court an objection to the proposed relocation within 30 days after receipt of the notice, that party shall be foreclosed from objecting to the relocation.
(4) If any of the information set forth in paragraph (3) is not known when the notice is sent but is later made known to the party proposing the relocation, then that party shall promptly inform every individual who received notice under this subsection.
(d) Objection to proposed relocation.–
(1) A party entitled to receive notice may file with the court an objection to the proposed relocation and seek a temporary or permanent order to prevent the relocation. The nonrelocating party shall have the opportunity to indicate whether he objects to relocation or not and whether he objects to modification of the custody order or not. If the party objects to either relocation or modification of the custody order, a hearing shall be held as provided in subsection (g)(1). The objection shall be made by completing and returning to the court a counter-affidavit, which shall be verified subject to penalties under 18 Pa.C.S. § 4904 (relating to unsworn falsification to authorities), in substantially the following form:
COUNTER-AFFIDAVIT REGARDING RELOCATION
This proposal of relocation involves the following child/children:
Child’s Name
Age
Currently residing at:
………………..
……….
………………..
Child’s Name
Age
Currently residing at:
………………..
……….
………………..
Child’s Name
Age
Currently residing at:
………………..
……….
………………..
I have received a notice of proposed relocation and
1. … I do not object to the relocation and I do not object to the modification of the custody order consistent with the proposal for revised custody schedule as attached to the notice.
2. … I do not object to the relocation, but I do object to modification of the custody order, and I request that a hearing be scheduled:
a. … Prior to allowing (name of child/children) to relocate.
b. … After the child/children relocate.
3. … I do object to the relocation and I do object to the modification of the custody order, and I further request that a hearing be held on both matters prior to the relocation taking place.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
I understand that in addition to checking (2) or (3) above, I must also file this notice with the court in writing and serve it on the other party by certified mail, return receipt requested. If I fail to do so within 30 days of my receipt of the proposed relocation notice, I shall be foreclosed from objecting to the relocation.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
I verify that the statements made in this counter-affidavit are true and correct. I understand that false statements herein are made subject to the penalties of 18 Pa.C.S. § 4904 (relating to unsworn falsification to authorities).
Date:
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(2) An objection made under this subsection shall be filed with the court within 30 days of receipt of the proposed relocation notice and served on the other party by certified mail, return receipt requested.
(3) If notice of the proposed relocation has been properly given and no objection to the proposed relocation has been filed in court, then it shall be presumed that the nonrelocating party has consented to the proposed relocation.
(4) If a party who has been given proper notice does not file with the court an objection to the relocation within 30 days after receipt of the notice but later petitions the court for review of the custodial arrangements, the court shall not accept testimony challenging the relocation.
(e) Confirmation of relocation.–If no objection to the proposed relocation is filed under subsection (d), the party proposing the relocation shall file the following with the court prior to the relocation:
(1) an affidavit stating that the party provided notice to every individual entitled to notice, the time to file an objection to the proposed relocation has passed and no individual entitled to receive notice has filed an objection to the proposed relocation;
(2) Proof that proper notice was given in the form of a return receipt with the signature of the addressee and the full notice that was sent to the addressee.
(3) a petition to confirm the relocation and modify any existing custody order; and
(4) a proposed order containing the information set forth in subsection (c)(3).
(f) Modification of custody order.–If a counter-affidavit regarding relocation is filed with the court which indicates the nonrelocating party both has no objection to the proposed relocation and no objection to the modification of the custody order consistent with the proposal for revised custody schedule, the court may modify the existing custody order by approving the proposal for revised custody schedule submitted under subsection (c)(3)(viii), and shall specify the method by which its future modification can be made if desired by either party. If a counter-affidavit regarding relocation is filed with the court which indicates the nonrelocating party objects either to the proposed relocation or to the modification of the custody order consistent with the proposal for revised custody schedule, the court shall modify the existing custody order only after holding a hearing to establish the terms and conditions of the order pursuant to the relocation indicating the rights, if any, of the nonrelocating parties.
(g) Hearing.–
(1) Except as set forth in paragraph (3), the court shall hold an expedited full hearing on the proposed relocation after a timely objection has been filed and before the relocation occurs.
(2) Except as set forth in paragraph (3), the court may, on its own motion, hold an expedited full hearing on the proposed relocation before the relocation occurs.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2), if the court finds that exigent circumstances exist, the court may approve the relocation pending an expedited full hearing.
(4) If the court approves the proposed relocation, it shall:
(i) modify any existing custody order; or
(ii) establish the terms and conditions of a custody order.
(h) Relocation factors.–In determining whether to grant a proposed relocation, the court shall consider the following factors, giving weighted consideration to those factors which affect the safety of the child:
(1) The nature, quality, extent of involvement and duration of the child’s relationship with the party proposing to relocate and with the nonrelocating party, siblings and other significant persons in the child’s life.
(2) The age, developmental stage, needs of the child and the likely impact the relocation will have on the child’s physical, educational and emotional development, taking into consideration any special needs of the child.
(3) The feasibility of preserving the relationship between the nonrelocating party and the child through suitable custody arrangements, considering the logistics and financial circumstances of the parties.
(4) The child’s preference, taking into consideration the age and maturity of the child.
(5) Whether there is an established pattern of conduct of either party to promote or thwart the relationship of the child and the other party.
(6) Whether the relocation will enhance the general quality of life for the party seeking the relocation, including, but not limited to, financial or emotional benefit or educational opportunity.
(7) Whether the relocation will enhance the general quality of life for the child, including, but not limited to, financial or emotional benefit or educational opportunity.
(8) The reasons and motivation of each party for seeking or opposing the relocation.
(9) The present and past abuse committed by a party or member of the party’s household and whether there is a continued risk of harm to the child or an abused party.
(10) Any other factor affecting the best interest of the child.
(i) Burden of proof.–
(1) The party proposing the relocation has the burden of establishing that the relocation will serve the best interest of the child as shown under the factors set forth in subsection (h).
(2) Each party has the burden of establishing the integrity of that party’s motives in either seeking the relocation or seeking to prevent the relocation.
(j) Failure to provide reasonable notice.–The court may consider a failure to provide reasonable notice of a proposed relocation as:
(1) a factor in making a determination regarding the relocation;
(2) a factor in determining whether custody rights should be modified;
(3) a basis for ordering the return of the child to the nonrelocating party if the relocation has occurred without reasonable notice;
(4) sufficient cause to order the party proposing the relocation to pay reasonable expenses and counsel fees incurred by the party objecting to the relocation; and
(5) a ground for contempt and the imposition of sanctions against the party proposing the relocation.
(k) Mitigation.–Any consideration of a failure to provide reasonable notice under subsection (i) shall be subject to mitigation if the court determines that such failure was caused in whole, or in part, by abuse.
(l) Effect of relocation prior to hearing.–If a party relocates with the child prior to a full expedited hearing, the court shall not confer any presumption in favor of the relocation.
(a) Best interest of the child.–Upon petition, a court may modify a custody order to serve the best interest of the child.
(b) Applicability.–Except as provided in 51 Pa.C.S. § 4109 (relating to child custody proceedings during military deployment), this section shall apply to any custody order entered by a court of this Commonwealth or any other state subject to the jurisdictional requirements set forth in Chapter 54 (relating to uniform child custody jurisdiction and enforcement).
The following words and phrases when used in this chapter shall have the meanings given to them in this section unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
“Abandoned.” Left without provision for reasonable and necessary care or supervision.
“Child.” An individual who has not attained 18 years of age.
“Child custody determination.” A judgment, decree or other order of a court providing for legal custody, physical custody or visitation with respect to a child. The term includes a permanent, temporary, initial and modification order. The term does not include an order relating to child support or other monetary obligation of an individual.
“Child custody proceeding.” A proceeding in which legal custody, physical custody or visitation with respect to a child is an issue. The term includes a proceeding for divorce, separation, neglect, abuse, dependency, guardianship, paternity, termination of parental rights and protection from domestic violence, in which the issue may appear. The term does not include a proceeding involving juvenile delinquency, contractual emancipation or enforcement under Subchapter C (relating to enforcement).
“Commencement.” The filing of the first pleading in a proceeding.
“Court.” An entity authorized under the law of a state to establish, enforce or modify a child custody determination.
“Home state.” The state in which a child lived with a parent or a person acting as a parent for at least six consecutive months immediately before the commencement of a child custody proceeding. In the case of a child six months of age or younger, the term means the state in which the child lived from birth with any of the persons mentioned. A period of temporary absence of any of the mentioned persons is part of the period.
“Initial determination.” The first child custody determination concerning a particular child.
“Issuing court.” The court that makes a child custody determination for which enforcement is sought under this chapter.
“Modification.” A child custody determination that changes, replaces, supersedes or is otherwise made after a previous determination concerning the same child, whether or not it is made by the court that made the previous determination.
“Person.” An individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture, government or governmental subdivision, agency or instrumentality, public corporation or any other legal or commercial entity.
“Person acting as a parent.” A person, other than a parent, who:
(1) has physical custody of the child or has had physical custody for a period of six consecutive months, including any temporary absence, within one year immediately before the commencement of a child custody proceeding; and
(2) has been awarded legal custody by a court or claims a right to legal custody under the laws of this Commonwealth.
“Physical custody.” The physical care and supervision of a child.
“State.” A state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.
“Tribe.” A Native American tribe or band, or Alaskan Native village, which is recognized by Federal law or formally acknowledged by a state.
“Warrant.” An order issued by a court authorizing law enforcement officers to take physical custody of a child.
(a) General rule.–Except as otherwise provided in section 5424 (relating to temporary emergency jurisdiction), a court of this Commonwealth has jurisdiction to make an initial child custody determination only if:
(1) this Commonwealth is the home state of the child on the date of the commencement of the proceeding or was the home state of the child within six months before the commencement of the proceeding and the child is absent from this Commonwealth but a parent or person acting as a parent continues to live in this Commonwealth;
(2) a court of another state does not have jurisdiction under paragraph (1) or a court of the home state of the child has declined to exercise jurisdiction on the ground that this Commonwealth is the more appropriate forum under section 5427 (relating to inconvenient forum) or 5428 (relating to jurisdiction declined by reason of conduct) and:
(i) the child and the child’s parents, or the child and at least one parent or a person acting as a parent, have a significant connection with this Commonwealth other than mere physical presence; and
(ii) substantial evidence is available in this Commonwealth concerning the child’s care, protection, training and personal relationships;
(3) all courts having jurisdiction under paragraph (1) or (2) have declined to exercise jurisdiction on the ground that a court of this Commonwealth is the more appropriate forum to determine the custody of the child under section 5427 or 5428; or
(4) no court of any other state would have jurisdiction under the criteria specified in paragraph (1), (2) or (3).
(b) Exclusive jurisdictional basis.–Subsection (a) is the exclusive jurisdictional basis for making a child custody determination by a court of this Commonwealth.
(c) Physical presence and personal jurisdiction unnecessary.–Physical presence of or personal jurisdiction over a party or a child is not necessary or sufficient to make a child custody determination.
Except as otherwise provided in section 5424 (relating to temporary emergency jurisdiction), a court of this Commonwealth may not modify a child custody determination made by a court of another state unless a court of this Commonwealth has jurisdiction to make an initial determination under section 5421 (a)(1) or (2) (relating to initial child custody jurisdiction) and:
(1) the court of the other state determines it no longer has exclusive, continuing jurisdiction under section 5422 (relating to exclusive, continuing jurisdiction) or that a court of this Commonwealth would be a more convenient forum under section 5427 (relating to inconvenient forum); or
(2) a court of this Commonwealth or a court of the other state determines that the child, the child’s parents and any person acting as a parent do not presently reside in the other state.
(a) General rule.–A court of this Commonwealth has temporary emergency jurisdiction if the child is present in this Commonwealth and the child has been abandoned or it is necessary in an emergency to protect the child because the child or a sibling or parent of the child is subjected to or threatened with mistreatment or abuse.
(b) No previous custody determination or proceeding.–If there is no previous child custody determination that is entitled to be enforced under this chapter and a child custody proceeding has not been commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under sections 5421 (relating to initial child custody jurisdiction) through 5423 (relating to jurisdiction to modify determination), a child custody determination made under this section remains in effect until an order is obtained from a court of a state having jurisdiction under sections 5421 through 5423. If a child custody proceeding has not been or is not commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under sections 5421 through 5423, a child custody determination made under this section becomes a final determination if it so provides and this Commonwealth becomes the home state of the child.
(c) Previous custody determination or proceeding.–If there is a previous child custody determination that is entitled to be enforced under this chapter or a child custody proceeding has been commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under sections 5421 through 5423, any order issued by a court of this Commonwealth under this section must specify in the order a period that the court considers adequate to allow the person seeking an order to obtain an order from the state having jurisdiction under sections 5421 through 5423. The order issued in this Commonwealth remains in effect until an order is obtained from the other state within the period specified or the period expires.
(d) Mandatory communication between courts.–A court of this Commonwealth which has been asked to make a child custody determination under this section, upon being informed that a child custody proceeding has been commenced in or a child custody determination has been made by a court of a state having jurisdiction under sections 5421 through 5423, shall immediately communicate with the other court. A court of this Commonwealth which is exercising jurisdiction pursuant to sections 5421 through 5423, upon being informed that a child custody proceeding has been commenced in or a child custody determination has been made by a court of another state under a statute similar to this section, shall immediately communicate with the court of that state to resolve the emergency, protect the safety of the parties and the child and determine a period for the duration of the temporary order.
(a) General rule.–A court of this Commonwealth which has jurisdiction under this chapter to make a child custody determination may decline to exercise its jurisdiction at any time if it determines that it is an inconvenient forum under the circumstances and that a court of another state is a more appropriate forum. The issue of inconvenient forum may be raised upon motion of a party, the court’s own motion or request of another court.
(b) Factors.–Before determining whether it is an inconvenient forum, a court of this Commonwealth shall consider whether it is appropriate for a court of another state to exercise jurisdiction. For this purpose, the court shall allow the parties to submit information and shall consider all relevant factors, including:
(1) whether domestic violence has occurred and is likely to continue in the future and which state could best protect the parties and the child;
(2) the length of time the child has resided outside this Commonwealth;
(3) the distance between the court in this Commonwealth and the court in the state that would assume jurisdiction;
(4) the relative financial circumstances of the parties;
(5) any agreement of the parties as to which state should assume jurisdiction;
(6) the nature and location of the evidence required to resolve the pending litigation, including testimony of the child;
(7) the ability of the court of each state to decide the issue expeditiously and the procedures necessary to present the evidence; and
(8) the familiarity of the court of each state with the facts and issues in the pending litigation.
(c) Stay.–If a court of this Commonwealth determines that it is an inconvenient forum and that a court of another state is a more appropriate forum, it shall stay the proceedings upon condition that a child custody proceeding be promptly commenced in another designated state and may impose any other condition the court considers just and proper.
(d) Jurisdiction declined.–A court of this Commonwealth may decline to exercise its jurisdiction under this chapter if a child custody determination is incidental to an action for divorce or another proceeding while still retaining jurisdiction over the divorce or other proceeding.
(a) General rule.–A child custody determination issued by a court of another state may be registered in this Commonwealth, with or without a simultaneous request for enforcement, by sending to the appropriate court in this Commonwealth:
(1) a letter or other document requesting registration;
(2) two copies, including one certified copy, of the determination sought to be registered and a statement under penalty of perjury that to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person seeking registration the order has not been modified; and
(3) except as otherwise provided in section 5429 (relating to information to be submitted to court), the name and address of the person seeking registration and any parent or person acting as a parent who has been awarded custody or visitation in the child custody determination sought to be registered.
(b) Duties of registering court.–On receipt of the documents required by subsection (a), the registering court shall:
(1) cause the determination to be filed as a foreign judgment, together with one copy of any accompanying documents and information, regardless of their form; and
(2) serve notice upon the persons named pursuant to subsection (a)(3) and provide them with an opportunity to contest the registration in accordance with this section.
(c) Notice.–The notice required by subsection (b)(2) must state that:
(1) a registered determination is enforceable as of the date of the registration in the same manner as a determination issued by a court of this Commonwealth;
(2) a hearing to contest the validity of the registered determination must be requested within 20 days after service of notice; and
(3) failure to contest the registration will result in confirmation of the child custody determination and preclude further contest of that determination with respect to any matter that could have been asserted.
(d) Contest over validity of registered order.–A person seeking to contest the validity of a registered order must request a hearing within 20 days after service of the notice. At that hearing, the court shall confirm the registered order unless the person contesting registration establishes that:
(1) the issuing court did not have jurisdiction under Subchapter B (relating to jurisdiction);
(2) the child custody determination sought to be registered has been vacated, stayed or modified by a court having jurisdiction to do so under Subchapter B; or
(3) the person contesting registration was entitled to notice, but notice was not given in accordance with the standards of section 5408 (relating to notice to persons outside Commonwealth), in the proceedings before the court that issued the order for which registration is sought.
(e) Failure to contest.–If a timely request for a hearing to contest the validity of the registration is not made, the registration is confirmed as a matter of law and the person requesting registration and all persons served must be notified of the confirmation.
(f) Res judicata.–Confirmation of a registered order, whether by operation of law or after notice and hearing, precludes further contest of the order with respect to any matter that could have been asserted at the time of registration.
(a) General rule.–A court of this Commonwealth may grant any relief normally available under the laws of this Commonwealth to enforce a registered child custody determination made by a court of another state.
(b) Modification.–A court of this Commonwealth shall recognize and enforce but may not modify, except in accordance with Subchapter B (relating to jurisdiction), a registered child custody determination of a court of another state.
(a) General rule.–Upon the filing of a petition seeking enforcement of a child custody determination, the petitioner may file a verified application for the issuance of a warrant to take physical custody of the child if the child is immediately likely to suffer serious physical harm or be removed from this Commonwealth.
(b) Petition.–If the court, upon the testimony of the petitioner or other witness, finds that the child is imminently likely to suffer serious physical harm or be removed from this Commonwealth, it may issue a warrant to take physical custody of the child. The petition must be heard on the next judicial day after the warrant is executed unless that date is impossible. In that event, the court shall hold the hearing on the first judicial day possible. The application for the warrant must include the statements required by section 5448(b) (relating to expedited enforcement of child custody determination).
(c) Warrant.–A warrant to take physical custody of a child must:
(1) recite the facts upon which a conclusion of imminent serious physical harm or removal from the jurisdiction is based;
(2) direct law enforcement officers to take physical custody of the child immediately; and
(3) provide for the placement of the child pending final relief.
(d) Time of service.–The respondent must be served with the petition, warrant and order immediately after the child is taken into physical custody.
(e) Enforcement.–A warrant to take physical custody of a child is enforceable throughout this Commonwealth. If the court finds on the basis of the testimony of the petitioner or other witness that a less intrusive remedy is not effective, it may authorize law enforcement officers to enter private property to take physical custody of the child. If required by exigent circumstances of the case, the court may authorize law enforcement officers to make a forcible entry at any hour.
(f) Appearance of child.–The court may impose conditions upon placement of a child to ensure the appearance of the child and the child’s custodian.
This chapter shall be known and may be cited as the Protection From Abuse Act.
(a) General rule.–The following words and phrases when used in this chapter shall have the meanings given to them in this section unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
“Abuse.” The occurrence of one or more of the following acts between family or household members, sexual or intimate partners or persons who share biological parenthood:
(1) Attempting to cause or intentionally, knowingly or recklessly causing bodily injury, serious bodily injury, rape, involuntary deviate sexual intercourse, sexual assault, statutory sexual assault, aggravated indecent assault, indecent assault or incest with or without a deadly weapon.
(2) Placing another in reasonable fear of imminent serious bodily injury.
(3) The infliction of false imprisonment pursuant to 18 Pa.C.S. § 2903 (relating to false imprisonment).
(4) Physically or sexually abusing minor children, including such terms as defined in Chapter 63 (relating to child protective services).
(5) Knowingly engaging in a course of conduct or repeatedly committing acts toward another person, including following the person, without proper authority, under circumstances which place the person in reasonable fear of bodily injury. The definition of this paragraph applies only to proceedings commenced under this title and is inapplicable to any criminal prosecutions commenced under Title 18 (relating to crimes and offenses).
“Adult.” An individual who is 18 years of age or older.
“Appropriate law enforcement agency.” The duly constituted municipal law enforcement agency that regularly provides primary police services to a political subdivision or, in the absence of any such municipal law enforcement agency, the Pennsylvania State Police installation that regularly provides primary police services to the political subdivision.
“Certified copy.” A paper copy of the original order of the issuing court endorsed by the appropriate clerk of that court or an electronic copy of the original order of the issuing court endorsed with a digital signature of the judge or appropriate clerk of that court. A raised seal on the copy of the order of the issuing court shall not be required.
“Commercial armory.” A for-profit entity which holds the appropriate Federal and State licenses to possess and secure firearms of third persons.
“Comparable court.” A foreign court that:
(1) has subject matter jurisdiction and is authorized to issue ex parte, emergency, temporary or final protection orders in that jurisdiction; and
(2) possessed jurisdiction over the parties when the protection order was issued in that jurisdiction.
“Confidential communications.” All information, whether written or spoken, transmitted between a victim and a domestic violence counselor or advocate in the course of the relationship. The term includes information received or given by the domestic violence counselor or advocate in the course of the relationship, as well as advice, reports, statistical data, memoranda or working papers, records or the like, given or made in the course of the relationship. The term also includes communications made by or to a linguistic interpreter assisting the victim, counselor or advocate in the course of the relationship.
“Domestic violence counselor/advocate.” An individual who is engaged in a domestic violence program, the primary purpose of which is the rendering of counseling or assistance to victims of domestic violence, who has undergone 40 hours of training.
“Domestic violence program.” A nonprofit organization or program whose primary purpose is to provide services to domestic violence victims which include, but are not limited to, crisis hotline; safe homes or shelters; community education; counseling systems intervention and interface; transportation, information and referral; and victim assistance.
“Family or household members.” Spouses or persons who have been spouses, persons living as spouses or who lived as spouses, parents and children, other persons related by consanguinity or affinity, current or former sexual or intimate partners or persons who share biological parenthood.
“Firearm.” Any weapon which is designed to or may readily be converted to expel any projectile by the action of an explosive or the frame or receiver of any such weapon as defined by 18 Pa.C.S. § 6105(i) (relating to persons not to possess, use, manufacture, control, sell or transfer firearms).
“Foreign protection order.” A protection order as defined by 18 U.S.C. § 2266 (relating to definitions) issued by a comparable court of another state, the District of Columbia, Indian tribe or territory, possession or commonwealth of the United States.
“Hearing officer.” A magisterial district judge, judge of the Philadelphia Municipal Court, arraignment court magistrate appointed under 42 Pa.C.S. § 1123 (relating to jurisdiction and venue), master appointed under 42 Pa.C.S. § 1126 (relating to masters) and master for emergency relief.
“Master for emergency relief.” A member of the bar of the Commonwealth appointed under section 6110(e) (relating to emergency relief by minor judiciary).
“Minor.” An individual who is not an adult.
“Other weapon.” Anything readily capable of lethal use and possessed under circumstances not manifestly appropriate for lawful uses which it may have. The term does not include a firearm.
“Safekeeping permit.” A permit issued by a sheriff allowing a person to take possession of any firearm, other weapon or ammunition that a judge ordered a defendant to relinquish in a protection from abuse proceeding.
“Secure visitation facility.” A court-approved visitation program offered in a facility with trained professional staff operated in a manner that safeguards children and parents from abuse and abduction.
“Sheriff.”
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), the sheriff of the county.
(2) In a city of the first class, the chief or head of the police department.
“Victim.” A person who is physically or sexually abused by a family or household member. For purposes of section 6116 (relating to confidentiality), a victim is a person against whom abuse is committed who consults a domestic violence counselor or advocate for the purpose of securing advice, counseling or assistance. The term shall also include persons who have a significant relationship with the victim and who seek advice, counseling or assistance from a domestic violence counselor or advocate regarding abuse of the victim.
“Weapon.” Anything readily capable of lethal use and possessed under circumstances not manifestly appropriate for lawful uses which it may have. The term includes a firearm which is not loaded or lacks a magazine, clip or other components to render it immediately operable and components which can readily be assembled into a weapon as defined by 18 Pa.C.S. § 907(relating to possessing instruments of crime).
(b) Other terms.–Terms not otherwise defined in this chapter shall have the meaning given to them in 18 Pa.C.S. (relating to crimes and offenses).
(a) General rule.–The court shall have jurisdiction over all proceedings under this chapter.
(b) Effect of departure and nonresidence.–The right of the plaintiff to relief under this chapter shall not be affected by either of the following:
(1) The plaintiff’s leaving the residence or household to avoid further abuse.
(2) The defendant’s absence from this Commonwealth or the defendant’s nonresidence in this Commonwealth, provided that the court has personal jurisdiction over the defendant in accordance with 42 Pa.C.S. § 5322 (relating to bases of personal jurisdiction over persons outside this Commonwealth).
(a) General rule.–A court shall recognize and enforce a valid foreign protection order issued by a comparable court. The validity of a foreign protection order shall only be determined by a court.
(b) Affirmative defense.–Failure by a comparable court to provide reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard shall be an affirmative defense to any charge or process filed seeking enforcement of a foreign protection order. A comparable court shall have complied with that court’s notice requirements and shall have given the defendant the opportunity to be heard before the foreign order was issued. In the case of ex parte orders, the comparable court shall have complied with that court’s notice requirements and have given the defendant an opportunity to be heard within a reasonable period of time after the order was issued, consistent with due process.
(c) Invalid orders.–A foreign protection order issued by a comparable court against a party who has filed a petition, complaint or other written pleading for a protection order is not valid and not entitled to full faith and credit if:
(1) no cross or counter petition, complaint or other written pleading was filed seeking the protection order; or
(2) a cross or counter petition, complaint or other written pleading was filed and the court did not make a specific finding that each party was entitled to a protection order.
(d) Filing a foreign protection order.–A plaintiff may file a certified copy of a foreign protection order with the prothonotary in any county within this Commonwealth where the plaintiff believes enforcement may be necessary. The following provisions shall apply:
(1) No costs or fees associated with filing a foreign protection order shall be assigned to the plaintiff, including the cost of obtaining certified copies of the order. Costs and fees associated with filing a foreign protection order may be assessed against the defendant.
(2) Upon filing of a foreign protection order, a prothonotary shall transmit, in a manner prescribed by the Pennsylvania State Police, a copy of the order to the Pennsylvania State Police registry of protection orders.
(3) Filing of a foreign protection order shall not be a prerequisite for service and enforcement.
(e) Orders issued in another judicial district within this Commonwealth.–The filing of an order issued in another judicial district within this Commonwealth is not required for enforcement purposes.
(a) General rule.–The police department of each municipal corporation, the Pennsylvania State Police and the sheriff of each county shall insure that all their officers, deputies and employees are familiar with the provisions of this chapter. Instruction concerning protection from abuse shall be made a part of the training curriculum for all trainee officers and deputies. All law enforcement agencies within this Commonwealth shall adopt a written domestic violence policy.
(b) Notice of services and rights.–Each law enforcement agency shall provide the abused person with oral and written notice of the availability of safe shelter and of domestic violence services in the community, including the hotline number for domestic violence services. The written notice, which shall be in English and Spanish and any additional language required by local rule of court, shall include the following statement:
“If you are the victim of domestic violence, you have the right to go to court and file a petition requesting an order for protection from domestic abuse pursuant to the Protection From Abuse Act (23 Pa.C.S. Ch. 61), which could include the following:
(1) An order restraining the abuser from further acts of abuse.
(2) An order directing the abuser to leave your household.
(3) An order preventing the abuser from entering your residence, school, business or place of employment.
(4) An order awarding you or the other parent temporary custody of or temporary visitation with your child or children.
(5) An order directing the abuser to pay support to you and the minor children if the abuser has a legal obligation to do so.”
(c) Mandatory report.–Each law enforcement agency shall make an incident report, on a form prescribed by the Pennsylvania State Police, consistent with the report required by the Federal National Incident-Based Reporting System (NIBRS). The mandate for incident report completion shall not be operative until the Pennsylvania State Police have implemented NIBRS. The incident report may include the following:
(1) Names, addresses and telephone numbers of the victim, the accused, any witnesses and the caller.
(2) A second permanent address and telephone number for the victim, such as a close family member or a friend.
(3) A statement of the relationship between the victim and the accused.
(4) A narrative for the incident, including the date, time and whether the accused appeared intoxicated or under the influence of a controlled substance.
(5) What, if any, weapons were used or threatened to be used.
(6) A description of any injuries observed by the officer.
(7) A description of any injuries described by the victim but not observed by the officer and an indication that the injury was not observed.
(8) Documentation of any evidence that would tend to establish that a crime was committed.
(9) An indication of whether an arrest was made and the reason for electing not to arrest, whether there was a warrantless arrest, an arrest with a warrant or no arrest.
(10) Whether the accused actually was arrested or whether there is an outstanding arrest warrant.
(11) The crimes with which the accused was charged.
(12) If the accused was arrested and arraigned, whether bail was set and any conditions of bail imposed.
(13) If the officer did not arrest or seek an arrest warrant even though arrest was authorized, a detailed explanation of the reasons for the officer’s decision not to arrest.
(14) The names and ages of any children present in the household and their address and telephone number if children were relocated.
(15) Notation of previous incidents of which the officer is personally aware.
(16) Notation of previous incidents reported by the victim or witnesses.
(17) If an officer was injured in the incident, the nature and circumstances of the injury.
(d) Notice of arrest.–All law enforcement agencies shall make reasonable efforts to notify any adult or emancipated minor protected by an order issued under this chapter of the arrest of the defendant for violation of an order as soon as possible. Unless the person cannot be located, notice of the arrest shall be provided not more than 24 hours after preliminary arraignment.
(e) Statewide registry.–
(1) The Pennsylvania State Police shall establish a Statewide registry of protection orders and shall maintain a complete and systematic record and index of all valid temporary and final court orders of protection, court-approved consent agreements and a foreign protection order filed pursuant to section 6104(d) (relating to full faith and credit and foreign protection orders). The Statewide registry shall include, but need not be limited to, the following:
(i) The names of the plaintiff and any protected parties.
(ii) The name and address of the defendant.
(iii) The relationship between the plaintiff and defendant.
(iv) The date the order was entered.
(v) The date the order expires.
(vi) The relief granted under sections 6108(a)(1), (2), (4), (6) and (7) (relating to relief) and 6110(a) (relating to emergency relief by minor judiciary).
(vii) The judicial district in which the order was entered.
(viii) Where furnished, the Social Security number and date of birth of the defendant.
(ix) Whether or not any or all firearms, other weapons or ammunition were ordered relinquished.
(2) The prothonotary shall send, on a form prescribed by the Pennsylvania State Police, a copy of the protection order or approved consent agreement to the Statewide registry of protection orders so that it is received within 24 hours of the entry of the order. Likewise, amendments to or revocation of an order shall be transmitted by the prothonotary within 24 hours of the entry of the order for modification or revocation. The Pennsylvania State Police shall enter orders, amendments and revocations in the Statewide registry of protection orders within eight hours of receipt. Vacated or expired orders shall be purged from the registry.
(3) The registry of the Pennsylvania State Police shall be available at all times to inform courts, dispatchers and law enforcement officers of any valid protection order involving any defendant.
(4) When an order granting relief under section 6108(a)(7) has been entered by a court, such information shall be available to the Pennsylvania State Police for the purpose of conducting a criminal history records check in compliance with the applicable provisions of 18 Pa.C.S. Ch. 61 Subch. A (relating to Uniform Firearms Act).
(5) Information contained in the Statewide registry shall not be subject to access under the act of June 21, 1957 (P.L. 390, No. 212),1 referred to as the Right-to-Know Law.
(f) Information concerning crimes of violence.–Each police department in a city, borough or township and the Pennsylvania State Police shall transmit to the Pennsylvania State Police, in a manner prescribed by the Pennsylvania State Police, the information specified in subsection (c) related to crimes of violence between family or household members.
(g) Annual report.–The Pennsylvania State Police shall annually compile and analyze the incident report data received and publish a Statewide report which includes aggregate, county and department-based statistical profiles. The Pennsylvania State Police shall transmit a copy of the annual report to the Governor, the General Assembly and each domestic violence program in this Commonwealth.
(h) Enforcement of foreign protection orders.–
(1) All foreign protection orders shall have the presumption of validity in this Commonwealth, and police officers shall make arrests for violations thereof in the same manner as set for violations of protection orders issued within this Commonwealth. Until a foreign order is declared to be invalid by a court, it shall be enforced by all law enforcement personnel in this Commonwealth.
(2) A police officer shall rely upon any copy of a foreign protection order which has been presented to the officer by any source and may verify the existence of a protection order consistent with the provisions of section 6113(a) (relating to arrest for violation of order). The fact that a foreign protection order has not been filed with a prothonotary or entered into the Pennsylvania State Police registry shall not be grounds for law enforcement to refuse to enforce the order.
(i) Immunity.–The following entities shall be immune from civil liability for good faith conduct in any action arising in connection with a court’s finding that the foreign order is invalid or unenforceable:
(1) Law enforcement agencies and their agents and employees.
(2) County correctional and detention facilities and their agents and employees.
(3) Prothonotaries and their agents and employees.
(a) General rule.–An adult or an emancipated minor may seek relief under this chapter for that person or any parent, adult household member or guardian ad litem may seek relief under this chapter on behalf of minor children, or a guardian of the person of an adult who has been declared incompetent under 20 Pa.C.S. Ch. 51 Subch. B (relating to appointment of guardian) may seek relief on behalf of the incompetent adult, by filing a petition with the court alleging abuse by the defendant.
(a.1) False reports.–A person who knowingly gives false information to any law enforcement officer with the intent to implicate another under this chapter commits an offense under 18 Pa.C.S. § 4906 (relating to false reports to law enforcement authorities).
(a.2) Notification of defendant’s occupation.–The plaintiff shall notify the court if the plaintiff has reason to believe that the defendant is a licensed firearms dealer, is employed by a licensed firearms dealer or manufacturer, is employed as a writer, researcher or technician in the firearms or hunting industry or is required to carry a firearm as a condition of employment.
(a.3) Notification of need to protect plaintiff.–The plaintiff shall notify the court anytime during the period commencing upon filing the petition and granting of an order or approving a consent agreement at a hearing held under section 6107(a) (relating to hearings) if the plaintiff has reason to believe the plaintiff’s safety is at risk. In such a case, the court shall direct the Pennsylvania State Police, the municipal police or the sheriff to accompany the plaintiff to the plaintiff’s residence to retrieve personal belongings or to accompany the plaintiff while the petition or order is served upon the defendant by the sheriff or competent adult, as set forth in the Pennsylvania Rules of Civil Procedure.
(a.4) Notification regarding child abuse investigation.–
(1) If the plaintiff has knowledge of a founded or indicated report of child abuse under Chapter 63 (relating to child protective services) involving the defendant, the petition shall include that information together with the name of the investigative agency.
(2) The notice of hearing and order shall include notice to the defendant that an order issued under this chapter may have an impact on the defendant under Chapter 63. The court shall develop procedures to implement the provisions of this paragraph.
(b) Plaintiff fees not permitted.–No plaintiff seeking relief under this chapter shall be charged any fees or costs associated with the filing, issuance, registration or service of a petition, motion, complaint, order or any other filing. Prohibited fees or costs shall include, but are not limited to, those associated with modifying, withdrawing, dismissing or certifying copies of a petition, motion, complaint, order or any other filing, as well as any judicial surcharge or computer system fee. No plaintiff seeking relief under this chapter shall be charged any fees or costs associated with filing a motion for reconsideration or an appeal from any order or action taken pursuant to this chapter. Nothing in this subsection is intended to expand or diminish the court’s authority to enter an order pursuant to Pa.R.C.P. No. 1023.1 (relating to Scope. Signing of Documents. Representations to the Court. Violation).
(c) Assessment of fees and costs against the defendant.–When an order is granted pursuant to this chapter, fees and costs shall be assessed against the defendant. The court shall waive fees and costs upon a showing of good cause or when the court makes a finding that the defendant is not able to pay the costs. Nothing in this subsection is intended to expand or diminish the court’s authority to enter an order pursuant to Pa.R.C.P. No. 1023.1.
(d) Surcharge on order.–When a protection order is granted under section 6107(a), other than pursuant to an agreement of the parties, a surcharge of $100 shall be assessed against the defendant. All moneys received from surcharges shall be distributed in the following order of priority:
(1) $25 shall be forwarded to the Commonwealth and shall be appropriated to the Pennsylvania State Police to establish and maintain the Statewide registry of protection orders provided for in section 6105.
(2) $50 shall be retained by the county and shall be used to carry out the provisions of this chapter as follows:
(i) $25 shall be used by the sheriff.
(ii) $25 shall be used by the court.
(3) $25 shall be forwarded to the Department of Public Welfare1 for use for victims of domestic violence in accordance with the provisions of section 2333 of the act of April 9, 1929 (P.L. 177, No. 175),2 known as The Administrative Code of 1929.
(d.1) Limitation.–The surcharge allocated under subsection (d)(1) and (3) shall be used to supplement and not to supplant any other source of funds received for the purpose of carrying out the provisions of this chapter.
(e) Court to adopt means of service.–The court shall adopt a means of prompt and effective service in those instances where the plaintiff avers that service cannot be safely effected by an adult individual other than a law enforcement officer or where the court so orders.
(f) Service by sheriff.– If the court so orders, the sheriff or other designated agency or individual shall serve the petition and order.
(g) Service of petition and orders.–The petition and orders shall be served upon the defendant, and orders shall be served upon the police departments and sheriff with appropriate jurisdiction to enforce the orders. Orders shall be promptly served on the police and sheriff. Failure to serve shall not stay the effect of a valid order.
(g.1) Service of original process of a foreign protection order.–No plaintiff or petitioner shall be charged any costs or fees associated with the service of original process of a foreign protection order. Costs or fees associated with the service of original process of a foreign protection order may be assessed against the defendant.
(h) Assistance and advice to plaintiff.–The courts and hearing officers shall:
(1) Provide simplified forms and clerical assistance in English and Spanish to help with the writing and filing of the petition for a protection order for an individual not represented by counsel.(2) Provide the plaintiff with written and oral referrals, in English and Spanish, to the local domestic violence program, to the local legal services office and to the county bar association’s lawyer referral service.
(a) General rule.–Within ten business days of the filing of a petition under this chapter, a hearing shall be held before the court, at which the plaintiff must prove the allegation of abuse by a preponderance of the evidence. The court shall, at the time the defendant is given notice of the hearing, advise the defendant of the right to be represented by counsel, of the right to present evidence, of the right to compel attendance of witnesses, of the method by which witnesses may be compelled, of the possibility that any firearm, other weapon or ammunition owned and any firearm license possessed may be ordered temporarily relinquished, of the options for relinquishment of a firearm pursuant to this chapter, of the possibility that Federal or State law may prohibit the possession of firearms, including an explanation of 18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(8) (relating to unlawful acts) and 18 Pa.C.S. § 6105 (relating to persons not to possess, use, manufacture, control, sell or transfer firearms), and that any protection order granted by a court may be considered in any subsequent proceedings under this title. This notice shall be printed and delivered in a manner which easily attracts attention to its content and shall specify that child custody is one of the proceedings where prior protection orders may be considered.
(b) Temporary orders.–
(1) If a plaintiff petitions for temporary order for protection from abuse and alleges immediate and present danger of abuse to the plaintiff or minor children, the court shall conduct an ex parte proceeding.
(2) The court may enter such a temporary order as it deems necessary to protect the plaintiff or minor children when it finds they are in immediate and present danger of abuse. The order shall remain in effect until modified or terminated by the court after notice and hearing.
(3) In addition to any other relief, the court may, pursuant to section 6108 (relating to relief), direct that the defendant temporarily relinquish to the sheriff any firearms, other weapons or ammunition for the duration of the temporary order if the petition demonstrates any of the following:
(i) Abuse which involves a firearm or other weapon.
(ii) An immediate and present danger of abuse. In determining whether an immediate and present danger of abuse exists, the court shall consider a number of factors, including, but not limited to:
(A) Whether the temporary order of protection from abuse is not likely to achieve its purpose in the absence of such a condition.
(B) Whether the defendant has previously violated a protection from abuse order.
(C) Whether past or present abuse to the plaintiff or any of the plaintiff’s minor children resulted in injury.
(D) Whether the abuse occurred in public.
(E) Whether the abuse includes:
(I) threats of abuse or suicide;
(II) killing or threatening to kill pets;
(III) an escalation of violence;
(IV) stalking or obsessive behavior;
(V) sexual violence; or
(VI) drug or excessive alcohol use.
(4) If the court orders the defendant to temporarily relinquish any firearm, other weapon or ammunition pursuant to paragraph (3), the defendant shall decide in what manner the defendant is going to relinquish any firearm, other weapon or ammunition listed in the order. Relinquishment may be to the sheriff pursuant to section 6108(a)(7) or to a third party for safekeeping pursuant to section 6108.3 (relating to relinquishment to third party for safekeeping).
(c) Continued hearings.–
(1) If a hearing under subsection (a) is continued and no temporary order is issued, the court may make ex parte temporary orders under subsection (b) as it deems necessary.
(2) If a hearing is scheduled to take place within three business days after a defendant is served under section 6106 (relating to commencement of proceedings), the court shall grant a continuance until the three-business-day period has elapsed, if requested by the defendant.
(3) The court shall notify the defendant of the right to such continuance.
(a) General rule.– Subject to subsection (a.1), the court may grant any protection order or approve any consent agreement to bring about a cessation of abuse of the plaintiff or minor children. The order or agreement may include:
(1) Directing the defendant to refrain from abusing the plaintiff or minor children.
(2) Granting possession to the plaintiff of the residence or household to the exclusion of the defendant by evicting the defendant or restoring possession to the plaintiff if the residence or household is jointly owned or leased by the parties, is owned or leased by the entireties or is owned or leased solely by the plaintiff.
(3) If the defendant has a duty to support the plaintiff or minor children living in the residence or household and the defendant is the sole owner or lessee, granting possession to the plaintiff of the residence or household to the exclusion of the defendant by evicting the defendant or restoring possession to the plaintiff or, with the consent of the plaintiff, ordering the defendant to provide suitable alternate housing.
(4) Awarding temporary custody of or establishing temporary visitation rights with regard to minor children. In determining whether to award temporary custody or establish temporary visitation rights pursuant to this paragraph, the court shall consider any risk posed by the defendant to the children as well as risk to the plaintiff. The following shall apply:
(i) A defendant shall not be granted custody, partial custody or unsupervised visitation where it is alleged in the petition, and the court finds after a hearing under this chapter, that the defendant:
(A) abused the minor children of the parties or poses a risk of abuse toward the minor children of the parties; or
(B) has been convicted of violating 18 Pa.C.S. § 2904 (relating to interference with custody of children) within two calendar years prior to the filing of the petition for protection order or that the defendant poses a risk of violating 18 Pa.C.S. § 2904.
(ii) Where the court finds after a hearing under this chapter that the defendant has inflicted abuse upon the plaintiff or a child, the court may require supervised custodial access by a third party. The third party must agree to be accountable to the court for supervision and execute an affidavit of accountability.
(iii) Where the court finds after a hearing under this chapter that the defendant has inflicted serious abuse upon the plaintiff or a child or poses a risk of abuse toward the plaintiff or a child, the court may:
(A) award supervised visitation in a secure visitation facility; or
(B) deny the defendant custodial access to a child.
(iv) If a plaintiff petitions for a temporary order under section 6107(b) (relating to hearings) and the defendant has partial, shared or full custody of the minor children of the parties by order of court or written agreement of the parties, the custody shall not be disturbed or changed unless the court finds that the defendant is likely to inflict abuse upon the children or to remove the children from the jurisdiction of the court prior to the hearing under section 6107(a). Where the defendant has forcibly or fraudulently removed any minor child from the care and custody of a plaintiff, the court shall order the return of the child to the plaintiff unless the child would be endangered by restoration to the plaintiff.
(v) Nothing in this paragraph shall bar either party from filing a petition for custody under Chapter 53 (relating to custody) or under the Pennsylvania Rules of Civil Procedure.
(vi) In order to prevent further abuse during periods of access to the plaintiff and child during the exercise of custodial rights, the court shall consider, and may impose on a custody award, conditions necessary to assure the safety of the plaintiff and minor children from abuse.
(5) After a hearing in accordance with section 6107(a), directing the defendant to pay financial support to those persons the defendant has a duty to support, requiring the defendant, under sections 4324 (relating to inclusion of medical support) and 4326 (relating to mandatory inclusion of child medical support), to provide health coverage for the minor child and spouse, directing the defendant to pay all of the unreimbursed medical expenses of a spouse or minor child of the defendant to the provider or to the plaintiff when he or she has paid for the medical treatment, and directing the defendant to make or continue to make rent or mortgage payments on the residence of the plaintiff to the extent that the defendant has a duty to support the plaintiff or other dependent household members. The support order shall be temporary, and any beneficiary of the order must file a complaint for support under the provisions of Chapters 43 (relating to support matters generally) and 45 (relating to reciprocal enforcement of support orders) within two weeks of the date of the issuance of the protection order. If a complaint for support is not filed, that portion of the protection order requiring the defendant to pay support is void. When there is a subsequent ruling on a complaint for support, the portion of the protection order requiring the defendant to pay support expires.
(6) Prohibiting the defendant from having any contact with the plaintiff or minor children, including, but not limited to, restraining the defendant from entering the place of employment or business or school of the plaintiff or minor children and from harassing the plaintiff or plaintiff’s relatives or minor children.
(7) Prohibiting the defendant from acquiring or possessing any firearm for the duration of the order, ordering the defendant to temporarily relinquish to the sheriff or the appropriate law enforcement agency any firearms under the defendant’s possession or control, and requiring the defendant to relinquish to the sheriff or the appropriate law enforcement agency any firearm license issued under section 6108.3 (relating to relinquishment to third party for safekeeping) or 18 Pa.C.S. § 6106 (relating to firearms not to be carried without a license) or 6109 (relating to licenses) the defendant may possess. The court may also order the defendant to relinquish the defendant’s other weapons or ammunition that have been used or been threatened to be used in an incident of abuse against the plaintiff or the minor children. A copy of the court’s order shall be transmitted to the chief or head of the appropriate law enforcement agency and to the sheriff of the county of which the defendant is a resident. When relinquishment is ordered, the following shall apply:
(i)(A) The court’s order shall require the defendant to relinquish such firearms, other weapons, ammunition and any firearm license pursuant to the provisions of this chapter within 24 hours of service of a temporary order or the entry of a final order or the close of the next business day as necessary by closure of the sheriffs’ offices, except for cause shown at the hearing, in which case the court shall specify the time for relinquishment of any or all of the defendant’s firearms.
(B) A defendant subject to a temporary order requiring the relinquishment of firearms, other weapons or ammunition shall, in lieu of relinquishing specific firearms, other weapons or ammunition which cannot reasonably be retrieved within the time for relinquishment in clause (A) due to their current location, provide the sheriff or the appropriate law enforcement agency with an affidavit listing the firearms, other weapons or ammunition and their current location. If the defendant, within the time for relinquishment in clause (A), fails to provide the affidavit or fails to relinquish, pursuant to this chapter, any firearms, other weapons or ammunition ordered to be relinquished which are not specified in the affidavit, the sheriff or the appropriate law enforcement agency shall, at a minimum, provide immediate notice to the court, the plaintiff and appropriate law enforcement authorities. The defendant shall not possess any firearms, other weapons or ammunition specifically listed in the affidavit provided to the sheriff or the appropriate law enforcement agency pursuant to this clause for the duration of the temporary order.
(C) As used in this subparagraph, the term “cause” shall be limited to facts relating to the inability of the defendant to retrieve a specific firearm within 24 hours due to the current location of the firearm.
(ii) The court’s order shall contain a list of any firearm, other weapon or ammunition ordered relinquished. Upon the entry of a final order, the defendant shall inform the court in what manner the defendant is going to relinquish any firearm, other weapon or ammunition ordered relinquished. Relinquishment may occur pursuant to section 6108.2 (relating to relinquishment for consignment sale, lawful transfer or safekeeping) or 6108.3 or to the sheriff or the appropriate law enforcement agency pursuant to this paragraph. Where the sheriff or the appropriate law enforcement agency is designated, the sheriff or the appropriate law enforcement agency shall secure custody of the defendant’s firearms, other weapons or ammunition and any firearm license listed in the court’s order for the duration of the order or until otherwise directed by court order. In securing custody of the defendant’s relinquished firearms, the sheriff or the appropriate law enforcement agency shall comply with 18 Pa.C.S. § 6105(f)(4) (relating to persons not to possess, use, manufacture, control, sell or transfer firearms). In securing custody of the defendant’s other weapons and ammunition, the sheriff or the appropriate law enforcement agency shall provide the defendant with a signed and dated written receipt which shall include a detailed description of the other weapon or ammunition and its condition. The court shall inform the defendant that firearms, other weapons or ammunition shall be deemed abandoned when the conditions under 18 Pa.C.S. § 6128(a) (relating to abandonment of firearms, weapons or ammunition) are satisfied and may then be disposed of in accordance with 18 Pa.C.S. § 6128.
(iii) The sheriff or the appropriate law enforcement agency shall provide the plaintiff with the name of the person to which any firearm, other weapon or ammunition was relinquished.
(iv) Unless the defendant has complied with subparagraph (i)(B) or section 6108.2 or 6108.3, if the defendant fails to relinquish any firearm, other weapon, ammunition or firearm license within 24 hours or upon the close of the next business day due to closure of sheriffs’ or appropriate law enforcement agencies’ offices or within the time ordered by the court upon cause being shown at the hearing, the sheriff or the appropriate law enforcement agency shall, at a minimum, provide immediate notice to the court, the plaintiff and appropriate law enforcement agencies, as appropriate.
(v) Any portion of any order or any petition or other paper which includes a list of any firearm, other weapon or ammunition ordered relinquished shall be kept in the files of the court as a permanent record thereof and withheld from public inspection except:
(A) upon an order of the court granted upon cause shown;
(B) as necessary, by law enforcement and court personnel; or
(C) after redaction of information listing any firearm, other weapon or ammunition.
(vi) As used in this paragraph, the term “defendant’s firearms” shall, if the defendant is a licensed firearms dealer, only include firearms in the defendant’s personal firearms collection pursuant to 27 CFR § 478.125a(relating to personal firearms collection).
(7.1) If the defendant is a licensed firearms dealer, ordering the defendant to follow such restrictions as the court may require concerning the conduct of his business, which may include ordering the defendant to relinquish any Federal or State license for the sale, manufacture or importation of firearms as well as firearms in the defendant’s business inventory. In restricting the defendant pursuant to this paragraph, the court shall make a reasonable effort to preserve the financial assets of the defendant’s business while fulfilling the goals of this chapter.
(8) Directing the defendant to pay the plaintiff for reasonable losses suffered as a result of the abuse, including medical, dental, relocation and moving expenses; counseling; loss of earnings or support; costs of repair or replacement of real or personal property damaged, destroyed or taken by the defendant or at the direction of the defendant; and other out-of-pocket losses for injuries sustained. In addition to out-of-pocket losses, the court may direct the defendant to pay reasonable attorney fees. An award under this chapter shall not constitute a bar to litigation for civil damages for injuries sustained from the acts of abuse giving rise to the award or a finding of contempt under this chapter.
(9) Directing the defendant to refrain from stalking or harassing the plaintiff and other designated persons as defined in 18 Pa.C.S. §§ 2709 (relating to harassment) and 2709.1 (relating to stalking).
(10) Granting any other appropriate relief sought by the plaintiff.
(a.1) Final order or agreement.–The following apply:
(1) Any final order must direct the defendant to refrain from abusing, harassing, stalking, threatening or attempting or threatening to use physical force against the plaintiff or minor children and must order that the defendant is subject to the firearms, other weapons or ammunition and firearms license prohibition relinquishment provisions under subsection (a)(7).
(2) A final agreement may direct the defendant to refrain from abusing, harassing, stalking, threatening or attempting or threatening to use physical force against the plaintiff or minor children and may order that the defendant is subject to the firearms, other weapons or ammunition and firearms license prohibition and relinquishment provisions under subsection (a)(7).
(b) Identifying information.–Any order issued under this section shall, where furnished by either party, specify the Social Security number and date of birth of the defendant.
(c) Mutual orders of protection.–Mutual orders of protection shall not be awarded unless both parties have filed timely written petitions, complied with service requirements under section 6106 (relating to commencement of proceedings) and are eligible for protection under this chapter. The court shall make separate findings and, where issuing orders on behalf of both petitioners, enter separate orders.
(d) Duration and amendment of order or agreement.–A protection order or approved consent agreement shall be for a fixed period of time not to exceed three years. The court may amend its order or agreement at any time upon subsequent petition filed by either party.
(e) Extension of protection orders.–
(1) An extension of a protection order may be granted:
(i) Where the court finds, after a duly filed petition, notice to the defendant and a hearing, in accordance with the procedures set forth in sections 6106 and 6107, that the defendant committed one or more acts of abuse subsequent to the entry of the final order or that the defendant engaged in a pattern or practice that indicates continued risk of harm to the plaintiff or minor child.
(ii) When a contempt petition or charge has been filed with the court or with a hearing officer in Philadelphia County, but the hearing has not occurred before the expiration of the protection order, the order shall be extended, at a minimum, until the disposition of the contempt petition and may be extended for another term beyond the disposition of the contempt petition.
(iii) If the plaintiff files a petition for an extension of the order and the defendant is or was incarcerated and will be released from custody in the next 90 days or has been released from custody within the past 90 days. The plaintiff does not need to show that the defendant committed one or more acts of abuse subsequent to the entry of the order or that the defendant engaged in a pattern or practice that indicates continued risk of harm to the plaintiff or minor children as set forth in subparagraph (i).
(2) Service of an extended order shall be made in accordance with section 6109 (relating to service of orders).
(3) There shall be no limitation on the number of extensions that may be granted.
(f) Support procedure.–The domestic relations section shall enforce any support award in a protection order where the plaintiff files a complaint for support under subsection (a)(5).
(g) Notice.–Notice shall be given to the defendant, in orders issued under this section, stating that violations of an order will subject the defendant to arrest under section 6113 (relating to arrest for violation of order) or contempt of court under section 6114 (relating to contempt for violation of order or agreement). Resumption of coresidency on the part of the plaintiff and defendant shall not nullify the provisions of the court order.
(h) Title to real property unaffected.–No order or agreement under this chapter shall in any manner affect title to any real property.
(i) Third parties and affidavits.–A court requiring relinquishment of firearms under this section shall provide for the hearing of petitions by third parties who request the return of a firearm relinquished by the defendant under subsection (a)(7). The following apply:
(1) A third party claiming to be the lawful owner of a firearm relinquished by the defendant under subsection (a)(7) may request the return of the firearm by providing proof of ownership and a sworn affidavit.
(2) The affidavit under paragraph (1) must affirm all of the following:
(i) The third party who is the lawful owner will not intentionally or knowingly return to the defendant the firearm or allow access to the firearm by the defendant.
(ii) The third party who is the lawful owner understands that violating subparagraph (i) constitutes a misdemeanor of the second degree under 18 Pa.C.S. Ch. 61 (relating to firearms and other dangerous articles).
(iii) If the third party who is the lawful owner is a family or household member of the defendant, any firearm returned under this section must be stored in a gun safe to which the defendant does not have access and will not be permitted to access, or stored in a location outside the third party’s home to which the defendant does not have access.(3) If the court orders the return of a firearm under this section, prior to the return of the firearm, the sheriff shall independently confirm that the person seeking relief under this section is legally eligible to possess firearms under Federal and State law. The sheriff shall conduct the background check as soon as practicable after the court enters an order under this section.
(a) General rule.–Any court order requiring the relinquishment of firearms, other weapons or ammunition shall provide for the return of the relinquished firearms, other weapons or ammunition to the defendant upon expiration of the order or dismissal of a petition for a protection from abuse order. The defendant may take custody of the firearms, other weapons and ammunition provided that the defendant is otherwise eligible to lawfully possess the relinquished items. The defendant shall not be required to pay any fees, costs or charges associated with the returns, whether those fees, costs or charges are imposed by the Pennsylvania State Police, any local law enforcement agency or any other entity, including a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer or licensed dealer in order to secure return of the relinquished firearms, other weapons or ammunition. The sheriff’s or the appropriate law enforcement agency’s office shall maintain a weapons return form that the defendant may fill out and return to the office once a temporary or final protection from abuse order has been dismissed or expires.
(a.1) Conditions for return.–The following conditions must be satisfied prior to the firearms, other weapons or ammunition being returned to the defendant:
(1) The firearms, other weapons or ammunition relinquished must not be evidence of a crime.
(2) The defendant or owner must not be otherwise prohibited by applicable Federal or State law, or another condition, including, but not limited to, bail, from taking possession of the firearms, other weapons or ammunition seized.
(3) The defendant or owner must have been given a clearance by the Pennsylvania State Police Instant Check System Unit or through the National Instant Criminal Background Check System (NICS), requested by the sheriff’s office.
(a.2) Notice to plaintiff.–The plaintiff of the protection from abuse order shall be notified of the defendant’s request to return the firearms, other weapons or ammunition.
(a.3) Petition for return.–If there is a determination under subsection (a.1) that the defendant is ineligible to regain possession of the firearms, other weapons or ammunition, the defendant or owner may file a petition appealing that determination and seeking their return. A copy of the petition must be served upon the plaintiff, sheriff and the district attorney.
(a.4) Abandonment.–Any firearms, other weapons or ammunition shall be deemed abandoned when the conditions under 18 Pa.C.S. § 6128(a) (relating to abandonment of firearms, weapons or ammunition) are satisfied and may then be disposed of in accordance with 18 Pa.C.S. § 6128.
(b) Modification of court’s order providing for return of relinquished firearm, other weapon or ammunition.–Any other person may petition the court to allow for the return of that other person’s firearms, other weapons and ammunition prior to the expiration of the court’s order. The petition shall be served upon the plaintiff, and the plaintiff shall be given notice and an opportunity to be heard regarding that petition.
(c) Modification of court’s order to provide for alternative means of relinquishing firearms, other weapons or ammunition.–The defendant may petition the court for modification of the order to provide for an alternative means of relinquishment in accordance with this chapter. The petition shall be served upon the plaintiff, and the plaintiff shall have an opportunity to be heard at the hearing as provided in subsection (d). Where the court orders a modification pursuant to this subsection providing for alternative means of relinquishment, the sheriff shall proceed as directed by the court.
(d) Hearing.–Within ten business days of the filing of any petition under this section, a hearing shall be held before the court.
(e) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection:
“Other person.” Any person, except the defendant, who is the lawful owner of a firearm, other weapon or ammunition relinquished pursuant to this chapter.“Safekeeping.” The secure custody of a firearm, other weapon or ammunition ordered relinquished by an active protection from abuse order.
(a) General rule.–Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a defendant who is the subject of a final protection from abuse order, which order provides for the relinquishment of firearms, other weapons or ammunition during the period of time the order is in effect, may, within the time frame specified in the order and in lieu of relinquishment to the sheriff or the appropriate law enforcement agency, relinquish to a dealer licensed pursuant to 18 Pa.C.S. § 6113(relating to licensing of dealers) any firearms, other weapons or ammunition for consignment sale, lawful transfer or safekeeping. The dealer may charge the defendant a reasonable fee for accepting relinquishment and for storage of any firearms, other weapons or ammunition.
(b) Affidavit.–A defendant relinquishing firearms, other weapons or ammunition to a dealer pursuant to subsection (a) shall obtain an affidavit from the dealer on a form prescribed by the Pennsylvania State Police which shall include, at a minimum, the following:
(1) The caption of the case in which the protection from abuse order was issued.
(2) The name, address, date of birth and Social Security number of the defendant.
(3) A list of the firearms, other weapons or ammunition, including, if applicable, the manufacturer, model and serial number.
(4) The name and license number of the dealer licensed pursuant to 18 Pa.C.S. § 6113 and the address of the licensed premises.
(5) An acknowledgment that the firearms, other weapons or ammunition will not be returned to the defendant or sold or transferred to a person the dealer knows is a member of the defendant’s household, while the defendant is the subject of an active protection from abuse order pursuant to section 6108, which order provides for the relinquishment of the firearm, other weapon or ammunition being returned, sold or transferred.
(6) An acknowledgment that the firearms, other weapons or ammunition, if sold or transferred, will be sold or lawfully transferred in compliance with 18 Pa.C.S. Ch. 61 (relating to firearms and other dangerous articles).
(c) Failure to provide affidavit.–A defendant relinquishing firearms, other weapons or ammunition to a dealer pursuant to subsection (a) shall, within the time frame specified in the order for relinquishing firearms, other weapons or ammunition, provide to the sheriff the affidavit obtained pursuant to subsection (b) and relinquish to the sheriff any firearms, other weapons or ammunition ordered to be relinquished which are not specified in the affidavit, in an affidavit provided in accordance with section 6108(a)(7)(i)(B) (relating to relief) or in an acknowledgment of receipt from a third party provided to the sheriff pursuant to section 6108.3 (relating to relinquishment to third party for safekeeping). If the defendant fails to comply with this subsection, the sheriff shall, at a minimum, provide immediate notice to the court, the plaintiff and appropriate law enforcement agencies.
(d) Form.–The Pennsylvania State Police shall develop and make available a form to be used by dealers to accept possession of firearms, other weapons and ammunition for consignment sale, lawful transfer or safekeeping pursuant to this section.
(e) Transfer upon entry of final order.–Upon entry of a final protection from abuse order issued pursuant to section 6108, a defendant who had relinquished firearms, other weapons or ammunition to the sheriff pursuant to a temporary order may request that the firearms, other weapons or ammunition be relinquished to a dealer for consignment sale, lawful transfer or safekeeping pursuant to this section. If the defendant can identify a licensed dealer willing to accept the firearms, other weapons or ammunition in compliance with this section, the court shall order the sheriff to transport the firearms, other weapons or ammunition to the licensed dealer at no cost to the defendant or the licensed dealer.
(f) Nondisclosure.–The affidavit obtained under subsection (c) shall not be subject to access under the act of June 21, 1957 (P.L. 390, No. 212),1 referred to as the Right-to-Know Law.
(g) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection:
“Safekeeping.” The secure custody of firearms, other weapons or ammunition ordered relinquished by an active protection from abuse order.“Sale or lawful transfer.” Any sale or transfer to a person other than the defendant or a member of the defendant’s household which is conducted in accordance with 18 Pa.C.S. Ch. 61 (relating to firearms and other dangerous articles).
(a) General rule.–A defendant who is the subject of a protection from abuse order, which order provides for the relinquishment of firearms, other weapons or ammunition during the period of time the order is in effect, may, within the time frame specified in the order and in lieu of relinquishment to the sheriff, relinquish any firearms, other weapons or ammunition for safekeeping to a third party who meets the requirements of a third party under subsection (b)(3).
(b) Transfer to third party.–
(1) A defendant wishing to relinquish firearms, other weapons or ammunition to a third party pursuant to subsection (a) shall, within the time frame specified in the order for relinquishing firearms, other weapons and ammunition, report to the sheriff’s office in the county where the order was entered along with the third party.
(2) Upon determination by the sheriff that the third party is not prohibited from possessing firearms, other weapons or ammunition pursuant to any Federal or State law and after the defendant and third party have executed the affidavits required under paragraph (3), the sheriff shall issue a safekeeping permit to the third party, which shall include, at a minimum, a list of the firearms, other weapons and ammunition which will be relinquished to the third party. The permit shall be issued at no cost to the third party or defendant. The permit shall require the third party to possess the defendant’s firearms, other weapons and ammunition until the time that:
(i) the sheriff revokes the safekeeping permit pursuant to subsection (c)(1); or
(ii) the sheriff accepts return of the safekeeping permit pursuant to subsection (d).
(3)(i) A defendant wishing to relinquish firearms, other weapons or ammunition to a third party pursuant to subsection (a) shall, in the presence of the sheriff or the sheriff’s designee, execute an affidavit on a form prescribed by the Pennsylvania State Police which shall include, at a minimum, the following:
(A) The caption of the case in which the protection from abuse order was issued.
(B) The name, address, date of birth and the Social Security number of the defendant.
(C) The name, address and date of birth of the third party.
(D) A list of the firearms, other weapons and ammunition which will be relinquished to the third party, including, if applicable, the manufacturer, model and serial number.
(E) An acknowledgment that the defendant will not take possession of any firearm, other weapon or ammunition relinquished to the third party until the sheriff accepts return of the safekeeping permit pursuant to subsection (d).
(F) A plain-language summary of 18 Pa.C.S. § 6105(a.1)(2) and (c)(6) (relating to persons not to possess, use, manufacture, control, sell or transfer firearms).
(G) A plain-language summary of 18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(8) (relating to unlawful acts).
(ii) A third party who will be accepting possession of firearms, other weapons and ammunition pursuant to subsection (a) shall, in the presence of the sheriff or the sheriff’s designee, execute an affidavit on a form prescribed by the Pennsylvania State Police which shall include, at a minimum, the following:
(A) The caption of the case in which the protection from abuse order was issued.
(B) The name, address and date of birth of the defendant.
(C) The name, address, date of birth and the Social Security number of the third party.
(D) A list of the firearms, other weapons and ammunition which will be relinquished to the third party, including, if applicable, the manufacturer, model and serial number.
(E) An acknowledgment that no firearm, other weapon or ammunition relinquished to the third party will be returned to the defendant until the sheriff accepts return of the safekeeping permit pursuant to subsection (d).
(F) A plain-language summary of 18 Pa.C.S. §§ 6105(a.1)(5) and (c)(6), 6111(c) (relating to sale or transfer of firearms) and 6115 (relating to loans on, or lending or giving firearms prohibited).
(G) A plain-language summary of this section.
(H) An acknowledgment that the third party is not prohibited from possessing firearms, other weapons or ammunition pursuant to any Federal or State law.
(I) An acknowledgment that the third party is not subject to an active protection from abuse order.
(J) An acknowledgment that the defendant has never been the subject of a protection from abuse order issued on behalf of the third party.
(K) An acknowledgment that any firearms, other weapons and ammunition relinquished to the third party will be stored using a locking device as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition of “locking device” in 18 Pa.C.S. § 6142(f) (relating to locking device for firearms) or in a secure location to which the defendant does not have access.
(L) A detailed description of the third party liability pursuant to this section relating to civil liability.
(M) An acknowledgment that the third party shall inform the sheriff of any change of address for the third party within seven days of the change of address.
(N) An acknowledgment that the third party and the defendant are not family or household members.
(O) An acknowledgment that the third party is one of the following:
(I) An attorney at law, and further acknowledgment that the attorney at law and the defendant are in an attorney-client relationship. The attorney at law and the defendant shall sign a written agreement stating in substantially the following form: “Firearm(s) can be relinquished to the attorney at law upon the express, written condition that firearm(s) will be returned to the defendant, or otherwise transferred, only if in strict conformance with applicable law.”
(II) A commercial armory, and further acknowledgment that the owner or operator of the commercial armory is not a family or household member of the defendant; the commercial armory is a secure storage facility designed to store firearms; the commercial armory possesses all Federal and State licenses to store firearms; and a form stating substantially the following: “Firearms can be relinquished to the commercial armory upon the express, written condition that firearm(s) will be returned, or transferred, to the defendant only in strict conformance with applicable law.”
(4) The defendant shall, within the time frame specified in the order and in lieu of relinquishment to the sheriff, relinquish the firearms, other weapons and ammunition specified in the affidavits provided to the sheriff pursuant to paragraph (3) to the third party who has been issued a safekeeping permit pursuant to paragraph (2). Upon relinquishment of the firearms to the third party, the third party shall sign an acknowledgment of receipt on a form prescribed by the Pennsylvania State Police, which shall include, at a minimum, an acknowledgment that the firearms were relinquished to the third party within the time frame specified in the order.
(5) Within 24 hours of the issuance of the safekeeping permit issued to the third party pursuant to paragraph (2) or by close of the next business day as necessary due to the closure of the sheriff’s office, the defendant shall return the signed acknowledgment of receipt required under paragraph (4) to the sheriff in the county where the order was entered.
(6) If the defendant fails to provide the acknowledgment of receipt to the sheriff as required under paragraph (5), an affidavit prepared in accordance with section 6108(a)(7)(i)(B) (relating to relief), an affidavit under section 6108.2 (relating to relinquishment for consignment sale, lawful transfer or safekeeping) or fails to relinquish any firearms, other weapons or ammunition, the sheriff shall, at a minimum, provide immediate notice to the court, the plaintiff and appropriate law enforcement agencies.
(c) Revocation of safekeeping permit.–
(1) The sheriff shall revoke a third party’s safekeeping permit and require the third party to relinquish to the sheriff any firearms, other weapons or ammunition which were relinquished to the third party by a defendant pursuant to subsection (a) upon determining or being notified that any of the following apply:
(i) A protection from abuse order has been entered against the third party.
(ii) The third party is prohibited from possessing firearms, other weapons or ammunition pursuant to any Federal or State law.
(iii) The defendant has been convicted of a violation of 18 Pa.C.S. Ch. 61 (relating to firearms and other dangerous articles) or any other offense involving the use of a firearm.
(iv) The defendant has been held in indirect criminal contempt for violating a provision of the protection from abuse order consistent with section 6108(a)(1), (2), (6), (7) or (9) (relating to relief).
(2) Upon revocation of a safekeeping permit, the sheriff shall seize the safekeeping permit and all of the defendant’s firearms, other weapons and ammunition which were relinquished to the third party. If revocation of the safekeeping permit was:
(i) Required pursuant to paragraph (1)(i) or (ii), the sheriff shall notify the defendant that the firearms, other weapons and ammunition which were relinquished to the third party are in the sheriff’s possession and that the defendant may report to the sheriff’s office in order to relinquish the firearms, other weapons and ammunition to a subsequent third party pursuant to this section or to a licensed dealer pursuant to section 6108.2.
(ii) Required pursuant to paragraph (1)(iii) or (iv), the sheriff shall maintain possession of the firearms, other weapons and ammunition until the defendant is no longer prohibited from possessing firearms, other weapons and ammunition pursuant to any Federal or State law unless:
(A) the defendant has the firearms, other weapons and ammunition relinquished to a licensed dealer pursuant to section 6108.2; or
(B) the sheriff is directed to relinquish the firearms, other weapons and ammunition pursuant to a court order.
(d) Return of safekeeping permit.–
(1) Following expiration of a protection from abuse order, which order provided for the relinquishment of firearms, other weapons or ammunition, the defendant and the third party shall report to the sheriff’s office to return the safekeeping permit. Upon a determination by the sheriff that the defendant is:
(i) Not prohibited from possessing firearms, other weapons and ammunition, the sheriff shall accept the return of the safekeeping permit, and the third party shall relinquish to the defendant all of the defendant’s firearms, other weapons and ammunition which were relinquished to the third party pursuant to this section.
(ii) Prohibited from possessing a firearm, other weapon or ammunition pursuant to any Federal or State law, the sheriff shall accept return of the permit and seize from the third party all of the defendant’s firearms, other weapons and ammunition which were relinquished to the third party pursuant to this section. The sheriff shall return to the defendant any firearm, other weapon or ammunition which the defendant is lawfully entitled to possess.
(2) Upon issuance of a court order pursuant to 18 Pa.C.S. §§ 6105(f)(2) or 6108.1(b) (relating to return of relinquished firearms, other weapons and ammunition and additional relief) which modifies a valid protection from abuse order by allowing the defendant to take possession of a firearm, other weapon or ammunition that had previously been ordered relinquished, the defendant and the third party shall report to the sheriff’s office to return the safekeeping permit. The sheriff shall proceed as directed by the court order.
(3) If a third party wishes to relinquish the defendant’s firearms, other weapons and ammunition prior to return of the safekeeping permit pursuant to paragraph (1), the sheriff shall accept return of the safekeeping permit and shall seize all of the defendant’s firearms, other weapons and ammunition from the third party. The sheriff shall notify the defendant that the firearms, other weapons and ammunition which were relinquished to the third party are in the sheriff’s possession and that the defendant may relinquish the firearms, other weapons and ammunition to a subsequent third party pursuant to this section or to a licensed dealer pursuant to section 6108.2.
(e) Civil liability.–A third party who intentionally or knowingly violates any of the provisions of this section shall, in addition to any other penalty prescribed in this chapter or 18 Pa.C.S. Ch. 61, be civilly liable to any person for any damages caused thereby and, in addition, shall be liable to any person for punitive damages in an amount not to exceed $5,000, and the court shall award a prevailing plaintiff a reasonable attorney fee as part of the costs.
(f) Forms.–The Pennsylvania State Police shall develop and make available:
(1) Forms to be used by sheriffs to issue safekeeping permits pursuant to subsection (b)(2).
(2) Affidavit forms and receipt forms to be used by defendants and third parties as required under subsection (b)(3) and (4).
(g) Transfer upon final entry.–A defendant who has previously relinquished firearms, other weapons or ammunition to the sheriff pursuant to a temporary order shall be permitted to have the firearms, other weapons and ammunition relinquished to a third party pursuant to this section following entry of a final protection from abuse order, which order provides for the relinquishment of firearms, other weapons or ammunition during the period of time the order is in effect.
(h) Nondisclosure.–All copies of the safekeeping permit issued under subsection (b)(2) retained by the sheriff and the affidavits and forms obtained under subsection (b)(3) and (4) shall not be subject to access under the act of June 21, 1957 (P.L. 390, No. 212),1 referred to as the Right-to-Know Law.
(i) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection:
“Safekeeping.” The secure custody of firearms, other weapons or ammunition which were ordered relinquished by an active protection from abuse order.
“Third party.” A person, other than the defendant, who:
(1) Is not a member of the defendant’s household.(2) Is not prohibited from possessing firearms pursuant to any Federal or State law.
(a) Confidentiality.–Information retained to ensure compliance with this chapter and to document the return of firearms shall not be subject to access under the act of June 21, 1957 (P.L. 390, No. 212), [FN1] referred to as the Right-to-Know Law.
(b) Construction.–Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to allow a government agency or law enforcement agency, or an agent or employee of either, or any other person or entity to create, maintain or operate a database or registry of firearm ownership within this Commonwealth. However, information may be retained to ensure compliance with this chapter and to document the return of firearms.
Any person who violates section 6108(a)(7)(v) (relating to relief) by releasing information with the intent and purpose of committing such violation commits a misdemeanor of the third degree.
(a) Issuance.–A copy of an order under this chapter shall be issued to the plaintiff, the defendant and the police department with appropriate jurisdiction to enforce the order or agreement in accordance with the provisions of this chapter or as ordered by the court or hearing officer.
(b) Placement in registry.–Upon receipt of an order, the police department shall immediately place the order in a county registry of protection orders. The police department shall assure that the registry is current at all times and that orders are removed upon expiration thereof. County registries shall not be required when the Pennsylvania State Police registry provided for in section 6105(e) (relating to responsibilities of law enforcement agencies) is established and is fully operational.
(a) General rule.–When:
a petition may be filed before a hearing officer who may grant relief in accordance with section 6108(a)(1), (2) and (6) or (1) and (6) (relating to relief) if the hearing officer deems it necessary to protect the plaintiff or minor children from abuse upon good cause shown in an ex parte proceeding. Immediate and present danger of abuse to the plaintiff or minor children shall constitute good cause for the purposes of this subsection.
(b) Expiration of order.–An order issued under subsection (a) shall expire at the end of the next business day the court deems itself available. The court shall schedule hearings on protection orders entered by hearing officers under subsection (a) and shall review and continue in effect protection orders that are necessary to protect the plaintiff or minor children from abuse until the hearing, at which time the plaintiff may seek a temporary order from the court.
(c) Certification of order to court.–An emergency order issued under this section and any documentation in support thereof shall be immediately certified to the court. The certification to the court shall have the effect of commencing proceedings under section 6106 (relating to commencement of proceedings) and invoking the other provisions of this chapter. If it is not already alleged in a petition for an emergency order, the plaintiff shall file a verified statement setting forth the abuse of defendant at least five days prior to the hearing. Service of the verified statement shall be made subject to section 6106.
(d) Instructions regarding the commencement of proceedings.–Upon issuance of an emergency order, the hearing officer shall provide the plaintiff instructions regarding the commencement of proceedings in the court of common pleas at the beginning of the next business day and regarding the procedures for initiating a contempt charge should the defendant violate the emergency order. The hearing officer shall also advise the plaintiff of the existence of programs for victims of domestic violence in the county or in nearby counties and inform the plaintiff of the availability of legal assistance without cost if the plaintiff is unable to pay for them.
(e) Master for emergency relief.–The president judge of a court of common pleas of a judicial district may, with the approval of the Administrative Office of Pennsylvania Courts, provide for the selection and appointment of a master for emergency relief on a full-time or part-time basis. The number of masters for emergency relief shall be fixed by the president judge with the approval of the Administrative Office of Pennsylvania Courts. The compensation of a master for emergency relief shall be fixed and paid by the county.
A domestic violence counselor/advocate may accompany a party to any legal proceeding or hearing under this chapter.
During the course of a proceeding under this chapter, the court or hearing officer may consider whether the plaintiff or plaintiff’s family is endangered by disclosure of the permanent or temporary address of the plaintiff or minor children. Neither in the pleadings nor during proceedings or hearings under this chapter shall the court or hearing officer require disclosure of the address of a domestic violence program. Where the court concludes that the defendant poses a threat of continued danger to the plaintiff and where the plaintiff requests that his or her address, telephone number and information about whereabouts not be disclosed, the court shall enter an order directing that law enforcement agencies, human service agencies and school districts (both in which a plaintiff’s child in custody of the plaintiff is or has been enrolled) shall not disclose the presence of the plaintiff or the child in the jurisdiction or district or furnish any address, telephone number or any other demographic information about the plaintiff and child except by further order of the court.
(a) General rule.–An arrest for violation of an order issued pursuant to this chapter or a foreign protection order may be without warrant upon probable cause whether or not the violation is committed in the presence of the police officer or sheriff in circumstances where the defendant has violated a provision of an order consistent with section 6108(a)(1), (2), (3), (4), (6), (7) or (9) (relating to relief). The police officer or sheriff may verify the existence of a protection order by telephone, radio or other electronic communication with the appropriate police department, Pennsylvania State Police registry, protection order file or issuing authority. A police officer or sheriff shall arrest a defendant for violating an order issued under this chapter by a court within the judicial district, issued by a court in another judicial district within this Commonwealth or a foreign protection order issued by a comparable court.
(b) Seizure of firearms, other weapons and ammunition.–Subsequent to an arrest, the police officer or sheriff shall seize all firearms, other weapons and ammunition used or threatened to be used during the violation of the protection order or during prior incidents of abuse and any other firearms in the defendant’s possession. As soon as it is reasonably possible, the arresting officer shall deliver the confiscated firearms, other weapons and ammunition to the office of the sheriff. The sheriff shall maintain possession of the firearms, other weapons and ammunition until the court issues an order specifying the firearms, other weapons and ammunition to be relinquished and the persons to whom the firearms, other weapons and ammunition shall be relinquished.
(c) Procedure following arrest.–Subsequent to an arrest, the defendant shall be taken by the police officer or sheriff without unnecessary delay before the court in the judicial district where the contempt is alleged to have occurred. When that court is unavailable, the police officer or sheriff shall convey the defendant to a magisterial district judge designated as appropriate by local rules of court or, in the city of Pittsburgh, to a magistrate of the Pittsburgh Magistrates Court or, in counties of the first class, to the appropriate hearing officer. For purposes of procedure relating to arraignments for arrest for violation of an order issued under this chapter, the judges of Pittsburgh Magistrates Court shall be deemed to be magisterial district judges.
(d) Preliminary arraignment.–The defendant shall be afforded a preliminary arraignment without unnecessary delay.
(e) Other emergency powers unaffected.–This section shall not be construed to in any way limit any of the other powers for emergency relief provided in this chapter.
(f) Hearing.–A hearing shall be scheduled within ten days of the filing of the charge or complaint of indirect criminal contempt. The hearing and any adjudication shall not preclude a hearing on other criminal charges underlying the contempt, nor shall a hearing or adjudication on other criminal charges preclude a hearing on a charge of indirect criminal contempt.
(a) General rule.–A plaintiff may file a private criminal complaint against a defendant, alleging indirect criminal contempt for a noneconomic violation of any provision of an order or court-approved consent agreement issued under this chapter or a foreign protection order, with the court, the office of the district attorney or the magisterial district judge in the jurisdiction or county where the violation occurred, except that, in a city of the first class, a complaint may only be filed with the family division of the court of common pleas or the office of the district attorney.
(b) Procedure service.–Procedure for filing and service of a private criminal complaint shall be provided as set forth by local rule. No fees or costs associated with the prosecution of the private criminal complaint shall be assigned to the plaintiff at any stage of the proceeding, including, but not limited to, filing, service, failure to prosecute, withdrawal or dismissal. Nothing in this subsection is intended to expand or diminish the court’s authority to enter an order pursuant to Pa.R.C.P. No. 1023.1 (relating to Scope. Signing of Documents. Representations to the Court. Violation).
(c) Fees and costs.–After a finding of indirect criminal contempt, fees and costs may be assessed against the defendant. The court shall waive fees and costs imposed pursuant to this chapter upon a showing of good cause or when the court makes a finding that the defendant is not able to pay the costs associated with the indirect criminal contempt action. Nothing in this subsection is intended to expand or diminish the court’s authority to enter an order pursuant to Pa.R.C.P. No. 1023.1.
(a) General rule.–Where the police, sheriff or the plaintiff have filed charges of indirect criminal contempt against a defendant for violation of a protection order issued under this chapter, a foreign protection order or a court-approved consent agreement, the court may hold the defendant in indirect criminal contempt and punish the defendant in accordance with law.
(a.1) Jurisdiction.–A court shall have jurisdiction over indirect criminal contempt charges for violation of a protection order issued pursuant to this chapter in the county where the violation occurred and in the county where the protection order was granted. A court shall have jurisdiction over indirect criminal contempt charges for violation of a foreign protection order in the county where the violation occurred.
(a.2) Minor defendant.–Any defendant who is a minor and who is charged with indirect criminal contempt for allegedly violating a protection from abuse order shall be considered to have committed an alleged delinquent act as that term is defined in 42 Pa.C.S. § 6302 (relating to definitions) and shall be treated as provided in 42 Pa.C.S. Ch. 63 (relating to juvenile matters).
(b) Trial and punishment.–
(1) A sentence for contempt under this chapter may include:
(i)(A) a fine of not less than $300 nor more than $1,000 and imprisonment up to six months; or
(B) a fine of not less than $300 nor more than $1,000 and supervised probation not to exceed six months; and
(ii) an order for other relief set forth in this chapter.
(2) All money received under this section shall be distributed in the following order of priority:
(i) $100 shall be forwarded to the Commonwealth and shall be appropriated to the Pennsylvania State Police to establish and maintain the Statewide registry of protection orders provided for in section 6105 (relating to responsibilities of law enforcement agencies).
(ii) $100 shall be retained by the county and shall be used to carry out the provisions of this chapter as follows:
(A) $50 shall be used by the sheriff.
(B) $50 shall be used by the court.
(iii) $100 shall be forwarded to the Department of Public Welfare1 for use for victims of domestic violence in accordance with the provisions of section 2333 of the act of April 9, 1929 (P.L. 177, No. 175),2 known as The Administrative Code of 1929.
(iv) Any additional money shall be forwarded to the Commonwealth and shall be used by the Pennsylvania State Police to establish and maintain the Statewide registry of protection orders provided for in section 6105.
(3) The defendant shall not have a right to a jury trial on a charge of indirect criminal contempt. However, the defendant shall be entitled to counsel.
(4) Upon conviction for indirect criminal contempt and at the request of the plaintiff, the court shall also grant an extension of the protection order for an additional term.
(5) Upon conviction for indirect criminal contempt, the court shall notify the sheriff of the jurisdiction which issued the protection order of the conviction.
(6) The minimum fine required by subsection (b)(1) allocated pursuant to subsection (b)(2)(i) and (iii) shall be used to supplement and not to supplant any other source of funds received for the purpose of carrying out the provisions of this chapter.
(c) Notification upon release.–The appropriate releasing authority or other official as designated by local rule shall use all reasonable means to notify the victim sufficiently in advance of the release of the offender from any incarceration imposed under subsection (b). Notification shall be required for work release, furlough, medical leave, community service, discharge, escape and recapture. Notification shall include the terms and conditions imposed on any temporary release from custody. The plaintiff must keep the appropriate releasing authority or other official as designated by local rule advised of contact information; failure to do so will constitute waiver of any right to notification under this section.
(d) Multiple remedies.–Disposition of a charge of indirect criminal contempt shall not preclude the prosecution of other criminal charges associated with the incident giving rise to the contempt, nor shall disposition of other criminal charges preclude prosecution of indirect criminal contempt associated with the criminal conduct giving rise to the charges.
(a) General rule.–A plaintiff may file a petition for civil contempt with the issuing court alleging that the defendant has violated any provision of an order or court-approved agreement issued under this chapter or a foreign protection order.
(b) Civil contempt order.–Upon finding of a violation of a protection order or court-approved consent agreement issued under this chapter or a foreign protection order, the court, either pursuant to petition for civil contempt or on its own accord, may hold the defendant in civil contempt and constrain him in accordance with law.
(c) Sentencing.–A sentence for civil contempt under this chapter may include imprisonment until the defendant complies with provisions in the order or consent agreement or demonstrates the intent to do so, but in no case shall a term of imprisonment under this section exceed a period of six months.
(d) Jury trial and counsel.–The defendant shall not have a right to a jury trial; however, the defendant shall be entitled to counsel.
(a) Reporting.–A person having reasonable cause to believe that a person is being abused may report the information to the local police department.
(b) Contents of report.–The report should contain the name and address of the abused person, information regarding the nature and extent of the abuse and information which the reporter believes may be helpful to prevent further abuse.
(c) Immunity.–A person who makes a report shall be immune from a civil or criminal liability on account of the report unless the person acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.
Unless a victim waives the privilege in a signed writing prior to testimony or disclosure, a domestic violence counselor/advocate or a coparticipant who is present during domestic violence counseling/advocacy shall not be competent nor permitted to testify or to otherwise disclose confidential communications made to or by the counselor/advocate by or to a victim. The privilege shall terminate upon the death of the victim. Neither the domestic violence counselor/advocate nor the victim shall waive the privilege of confidential communications by reporting facts of physical or sexual assault under Chapter 63 (relating to child protective services), a Federal or State mandatory reporting statute or a local mandatory reporting ordinance.
(a) General rule.–Unless otherwise indicated in this chapter, a proceeding under this chapter shall be in accordance with applicable general rules and shall be in addition to any other available civil or criminal remedies. The plaintiff and the defendant may seek modification of an order issued under section 6108 (relating to relief) at any time during the pendency of an order. Except as otherwise indicated in this chapter, modification may be ordered after the filing of a petition for modification, service of the petition and a hearing on the petition.
(b) Remedies for bad faith.–Notwithstanding any other provision of law, upon finding that an individual commenced a proceeding under this chapter in bad faith, a court shall direct the individual to pay to the defendant actual damages and reasonable attorney fees. Failure to prove an allegation of abuse by a preponderance of the evidence shall not, by itself, result in a finding of bad faith.
(a) General rule.–A person must file an application with the Office of Victim Advocate on a form prescribed by the Office of Victim Advocate. An application and any supporting documentation may be filed electronically, by mail or in person. The Office of Victim Advocate shall certify eligible applicants as program participants in accordance with the procedures outlined in subsection (b). Certification shall be valid for a period of three years following the date of certification unless the certification is withdrawn or canceled before the expiration of that period.
(b) Requirements for certification.–The Office of Victim Advocate shall certify an applicant as a program participant if:
(1) The applicant meets the eligibility requirements under section 6704 (relating to persons eligible to apply).
(2) The applicant designates the Office of Victim Advocate as an agent for the purpose of receiving service of process.
(3) The application contains the applicant’s actual address and telephone number where the applicant can be contacted.
(4) The application contains a list of all pending civil and criminal proceedings in which the applicant is a victim, witness, plaintiff or defendant and, if applicable, the applicant’s involvement with State and county probation and parole.
(5) The application contains a statement signed by the applicant affirming that the information provided by the applicant is true to the best of the applicant’s information, knowledge and belief.
(6) The application contains a statement signed by the applicant acknowledging that the applicant has a continuing duty to notify the Office of Victim Advocate of any change in the information provided to the Office of Victim Advocate in accordance with this chapter. The duty shall remain in effect for the duration of participation in the program.
(7) The application contains the date, the applicant’s signature and the signature of any person who assisted in the preparation of the application.
(a) Cancellation.–The Office of Victim Advocate shall cancel the certification of a program participant if:
(1) the program participant willingly provided false information on any portion of the application;
(2) the program participant failed to notify the Office of Victim Advocate within five days of a name change or an address change; or
(3) the program participant’s mail is returned to the Office of Victim Advocate as nondeliverable.
(b) Expiration.–Certification as a program participant shall expire three years from the date on which an applicant was certified as a program participant. The Office of Victim Advocate shall send written notification of pending expiration to a program participant’s last known actual address 30 days prior to the expiration of certification.
(c) Withdrawal.–A program participant may withdraw at any time by notifying the Office of Victim Advocate in writing.
(d) Effect of cancellation, expiration or withdrawal.–Notwithstanding cancellation, expiration or prior withdrawal from the program, all persons eligible to apply to become program participants may reapply for participation in the program.
(a) Jurisdiction.–Except as otherwise prescribed by general rule adopted pursuant to section 503 (relating to reassignment of matters), magisterial district judges shall, under procedures prescribed by general rule, have jurisdiction of all of the following matters:
(1) Summary offenses, except those arising out of the same episode or transaction involving a delinquent act for which a petition alleging delinquency is filed under Chapter 63 (relating to juvenile matters).
(2) Matters arising under the act of April 6, 1951 (P.L. 69, No. 20),1 known as The Landlord and Tenant Act of 1951, which are stated therein to be within the jurisdiction of a magisterial district judge.
(3) Civil claims, except claims against a Commonwealth party as defined by section 8501 (relating to definitions), wherein the sum demanded does not exceed $12,000, exclusive of interest and costs, in the following classes of actions:
(i) In assumpsit, except cases of real contract where the title to real estate may be in question.
(ii) In trespass, including all forms of trespass and trespass on the case.
(iii) For fines and penalties by any government agency.
A plaintiff may waive a portion of his claim of more than $12,000 so as to bring the matter within the monetary jurisdiction of a magisterial district judge. Such waiver shall be revoked automatically if the defendant appeals the final order of the magisterial district judge or when the judgment is set aside upon certiorari.
(4) As commissioners to preside at arraignments, fix and accept bail, except for offenses under 18 Pa.C.S. §§ 2502 (relating to murder) and 2503 (relating to voluntary manslaughter) for which the fixing and accepting of bail shall be performed by any judge of any court of common pleas, and to issue warrants and perform duties of a similar nature, including the jurisdiction of a committing magistrate in all criminal proceedings.
(5) Offenses under 75 Pa.C.S. § 3802 (relating to driving under influence of alcohol or controlled substance), if the following criteria are met:
(i) The offense is the first offense by the defendant under such provision in this Commonwealth.
(ii) No personal injury (other than to the defendant) resulted from the offense.
(iii) The defendant pleads guilty.
(iv) No property damage in excess of $500 other than to the defendant’s property resulted from the violation.
(v) The defendant is not subject to the provisions of Chapter 63 (relating to juvenile matters).
(vi) The arresting authority shall cause to be transmitted a copy of the charge of any violation of 75 Pa.C.S. § 3802 to the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas within five days after the preliminary arraignment.
In determining that the above criteria are met the magisterial district judge shall rely on the certification of the arresting authority. Certification that the criteria are met need not be in writing. Within ten days after the disposition, the magisterial district judge shall certify the disposition to the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas in writing.
(5.1) Offenses under 75 Pa.C.S. § 3808 (relating to illegally operating a motor vehicle not equipped with ignition interlock).
(6)(i) Offenses under Title 18 (crimes and offenses), Title 30 (fish) and Title 35 (health and safety) which are classified as misdemeanors of the third degree, if the following criteria are met:
(A) The misdemeanor is not the result of a reduced charge.
(B) Any personal injury or property damage is less than $500.
(C) The defendant pleads guilty.
(D) The defendant is not subject to the provisions of Chapter 63.
(ii) Subparagraph (i) shall not apply to any offense under the following provisions of Title 18:
Section 4303 (relating to concealing death of child born out of wedlock).
Section 4321 (relating to willful separation or nonsupport).
Section 5103 (relating to unlawfully listening into deliberations of jury).
(6.1) All offenses under Title 34 (relating to game).
(7) Matters jurisdiction of which is vested in magisterial district judges by any statute.(b) Venue and process.–The venue of a magisterial district judge concerning matters over which jurisdiction is conferred by subsection (a) shall be as prescribed by general rule. The process of the magisterial district judge shall extend beyond the territorial limits of the magisterial district to the extent prescribed by general rule.
The following words and phrases when used in this chapter shall have the meanings given to them in this section unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
“Adult.” An individual who is 18 years of age or older.
“Certified copy.” A paper copy of the original order of the issuing court endorsed by the appropriate clerk of that court or an electronic copy of the original order of the issuing court endorsed with a digital signature of the judge or appropriate clerk of that court, regardless of whether or not there is a raised seal on the copy of the order of the issuing court.
“Confidential communications.” As defined in section 5945.1 (relating to confidential communications with sexual assault counselors).
“Coparticipant.” As defined in section 5945.1 (relating to confidential communications with sexual assault counselors).
“Court.” The court or magisterial district judge having jurisdiction over the matter under and exercised as provided in this title or as otherwise provided or prescribed by law.
“Family or household members.” Spouses or persons who have been spouses, persons living as spouses or who lived as spouses, parents and children, other persons related by consanguinity or affinity, current or former sexual or intimate partners or persons who share biological parenthood.
“Hearing officer.” A magisterial district judge, judge of the Philadelphia Municipal Court, bail commissioner appointed under section 1123 (relating to jurisdiction and venue), master appointed under section 1126 (relating to masters) or master for emergency relief.
“Intimidation.” Conduct constituting a crime under either of the following provisions between persons who are not family or household members:
18 Pa.C.S. § 2709(a)(4), (5), (6) or (7) (relating to harassment) where the conduct is committed by a person 18 years of age or older against a person under 18 years of age.
18 Pa.C.S. § 2709.1 (relating to stalking) where the conduct is committed by a person 18 years of age or older against a person under 18 years of age.
“Master for emergency relief.” A member of the bar of the Commonwealth appointed under section 62A09(e) (relating to emergency relief by minor judiciary).
“Minor.” An individual who is not an adult.
“Plaintiff.” An individual who applies for a protection order, either for the benefit of that individual or on behalf of another individual.
“Protection order” or “order.” An order issued under this chapter designed to protect a victim of sexual violence or intimidation.
“Rape crisis center.” As defined in section 5945.1 (relating to confidential communications with sexual assault counselors).
“Sexual assault counselor.” As defined in section 5945.1 (relating to confidential communications with sexual assault counselors).
“Sexual violence.” Conduct constituting a crime under any of the following provisions between persons who are not family or household members:
18 Pa.C.S. Ch. 31 (relating to sexual offenses), except 18 Pa.C.S. §§ 3129 (relating to sexual intercourse with animal) and 3130 (relating to conduct relating to sex offenders).
18 Pa.C.S. § 4304 (relating to endangering welfare of children) if the offense involved sexual contact with the victim.
18 Pa.C.S. § 6301(a)(1)(ii) (relating to corruption of minors).
18 Pa.C.S. § 6312(b) (relating to sexual abuse of children).
18 Pa.C.S. § 6318 (relating to unlawful contact with minor).
18 Pa.C.S. § 6320 (relating to sexual exploitation of children).
“Sheriff.” The sheriff of a county or, in a city of the first class, the chief or head of the police department.
“Victim.” A person who is the victim of sexual violence or intimidation.
(a) General rule.–An adult or emancipated minor may seek relief under this chapter for that person or any parent, adult household member or guardian ad litem may seek relief under this chapter on behalf of a minor child, or the guardian of the person of an adult who has been declared incapacitated under 20 Pa.C.S. Ch. 55 (relating to incapacitated persons) may seek relief on behalf of an incapacitated adult, by filing a petition with the court alleging the need for protection from the defendant with respect to sexual violence or intimidation.
(a.1) False reports.–A person who knowingly gives false information to a law enforcement officer with intent to implicate another under this chapter commits an offense under 18 Pa.C.S. § 4906 (relating to false reports to law enforcement authorities).
(b) No prepayment of fees.–The petition shall be filed and service shall be made without the prepayment of fees.
(c) Assessment of fees and costs.–
(1)(i) No plaintiff seeking relief under this chapter shall be charged any fees or costs associated with the filing, issuance, registration or service of a petition, motion, complaint, order or any other filing. Prohibited fees or costs shall include, but are not limited to, those associated with modifying, withdrawing, dismissing or certifying copies of a petition, motion, complaint, order or any other filing, as well as any judicial surcharge or computer system fee.
(ii) No plaintiff seeking relief under this chapter shall be charged any fees or costs associated with filing a motion for reconsideration or an appeal from any order or action taken under this chapter.
(2) When an order is granted under this chapter, fees and costs shall be assessed against the defendant. The court shall waive fees and costs upon a showing of good cause or when the court makes a finding that the defendant is not able to pay the fees and costs.
(3) Nothing in this section is intended to expand or diminish the court’s authority to enter an order under Pa.R.C.P. No. 1023.1 (relating to Scope. Signing of Documents. Representations to the Court. Violation.).
(c.1) Surcharge on order.–When an order is granted under section 62A06 (relating to hearings), a surcharge of $100 shall be assessed against the defendant. All moneys received from surcharges shall be distributed in the following order of priority:
(1) Twenty-five dollars shall be forwarded to the Commonwealth and shall be used by the Pennsylvania State Police to establish and maintain the Statewide registry of protection orders provided for in section 62A04(c) (relating to responsibilities of law enforcement agencies).
(2) Fifty dollars shall be retained by the county and shall be used to carry out the provisions of this chapter as follows:
(i) Twenty-five dollars shall be used by the sheriff.
(ii) Twenty-five dollars shall be used by the court.
(3) Twenty-five dollars shall be forwarded to the Department of Public Welfare1 for use for victims of sexual assault in accordance with the provisions of section 2333 of the act of April 9, 1929 (P.L. 177, No. 175),2 known as The Administrative Code of 1929.
(4) The surcharge allocated under paragraphs (1) and (3) shall be used to supplement and not to supplant any other source of funds received for the purpose of carrying out the provisions of this chapter.
(d) Service.–
(1) The court shall adopt a means of prompt and effective service. If the court so orders, the sheriff or another court-designated agency or individual shall serve the petition and protection order. Under no circumstances shall the plaintiff be obligated to serve the petition or protection order.
(2) The petition and order shall be served upon the defendant.
(3) Within two business days, the order shall be served upon the police department, sheriff and district attorney in the jurisdiction where the order was entered.
(4) A certified copy of the order shall be issued to the plaintiff.
(5) In the case of a minor victim of sexual violence, a copy of the petition and order shall be served upon the county agency and the Department of Public Welfare. For purposes of this subparagraph, the term “county agency” shall be as defined in 23 Pa.C.S. § 6303 (relating to definitions).
(6) A copy of the order shall be issued as otherwise ordered by the court or hearing officer.
(7) Failure to serve the police department, sheriff or district attorney’s office shall not stay the effect of a valid order.
(e) Assistance and advice to plaintiff.–The courts and hearing officers shall:
(1) Provide simplified forms and clerical assistance in English and Spanish to help with the writing and filing of the petition for an order for an individual not represented by counsel.
(2) Provide the plaintiff with written and oral referrals, in English and Spanish, to local sexual assault services in the case of sexual violence and to the local legal services office and to the county bar association’s lawyer referral service in the case of sexual violence or intimidation.
(f) Effect of departure and nonresidence.–The right of the plaintiff to relief under this chapter shall not be affected by the defendant’s absence from this Commonwealth or the defendant’s nonresidence in this Commonwealth, provided that the court has personal jurisdiction over the defendant in accordance with section 5322 (relating to bases of personal jurisdiction over persons outside this Commonwealth).
(a) General rule.–Within ten business days of the filing of a petition under this chapter, a hearing shall be held before the court where the plaintiff must:
(1) assert that the plaintiff or another individual, as appropriate, is a victim of sexual violence or intimidation committed by the defendant; and
(2) prove by preponderance of the evidence that the plaintiff or another individual, as appropriate, is at a continued risk of harm from the defendant.
(a.1) Right to counsel.–The court shall, at the time the defendant is given notice of the hearing, advise the defendant of the right to be represented by counsel. The notice shall be printed and delivered in a manner that easily attracts attention to its contents.
(b) Temporary orders.–If a plaintiff seeks a temporary order for protection from an immediate and present danger, the court shall conduct an ex parte proceeding. The court may enter a temporary order as it deems necessary to protect the plaintiff or another individual, as appropriate, when it finds the plaintiff or another individual is in immediate and present danger from the defendant. The temporary order shall remain in effect until modified or terminated by the court after notice and hearing.
(c) Continued hearings.–If a hearing under subsection (a) is continued and no temporary order is issued, the court may make ex parte temporary orders under subsection (b), as it deems necessary.
(a) Order or consent agreement.–The court may issue an order or approve a consent agreement to protect the plaintiff or another individual, as appropriate, from the defendant.
(b) General rule.–An order or a consent agreement may include:
(1) Prohibiting the defendant from having any contact with the victim, including, but not limited to, restraining the defendant from entering the victim’s residence, place of employment, business or school.This may include prohibiting indirect contact through third parties and also prohibiting direct or indirect contact with other designated persons.
(2) Granting any other appropriate relief sought by the plaintiff.
(c) Duration and amendment of order or agreement.–A protection order or an approved consent agreement shall be for a fixed period of time not to exceed 36 months. The court may amend its order or agreement at any time upon subsequent petition filed by either party.
(d) Extension of protection orders.–
(1) An extension of an order may be granted:
(i) Where the court, after a duly filed petition, notice to the defendant and a hearing, in accordance with the procedures set forth in sections 62A05 (relating to commencement of proceedings) and 62A06 (relating to hearings), finds that the extension is necessary because the defendant engaged in one or more acts or finds some other circumstances that, in the discretion of the court, demonstrate a continued risk of harm to the victim.
(ii) When a contempt petition or charge has been filed with the court or, in a county of the first class, a hearing officer, but the hearing has not occurred before the expiration of the protection order, the order shall be extended, at a minimum, until the disposition of the contempt petition.
(2) Service of an extended order shall be made in accordance with section 62A05(d).
(3) There shall be no limitation on the number of extensions that may be granted.
(e) Notice.–Notice shall be given to the defendant stating that violations of the order will subject the defendant to arrest under section 62A12 (relating to arrest for violation of order) or contempt of court under section 62A14 (relating to contempt for violation of order).
(f) Incarceration.–When the defendant is or was incarcerated and will be released from custody in the next 90 days or has been released from custody within the past 90 days, a plaintiff does not need to show that the defendant engaged in one or more acts that indicate a continued risk of harm to the victim in order to obtain an extension or a subsequent protection order under this chapter.
(g) Identifying information.–Any order issued under this chapter shall, when furnished by either party, specify the Social Security number and date of birth of the defendant.
(a) General rule.–When:
(1) in counties with fewer than four judges, the court is unavailable:
(i) from the close of business at the end of each day to the resumption of business the next morning;
(ii) from the end of the business week to the beginning of the business week; and
(iii) during the business day by reason of duties outside the county, illness or vacation; or
(2) in counties with at least four judges, the court is unavailable:
(i) from the close of business at the end of each day to the resumption of business the next morning; and
(ii) from the end of the business week to the beginning of the business week;
a petition may be filed before a hearing officer who may grant relief in accordance with section 62A07 (relating to relief) if the hearing officer deems it necessary to protect the victim upon good cause shown in an ex parte proceeding. Immediate and present danger posed by the defendant to the victim shall constitute good cause for the purposes of this subsection.
(b) Expiration of order.–An order issued under subsection (a) shall expire at the end of the next business day the court deems itself available. The court shall schedule hearings on orders entered by hearing officers under subsection (a) and shall review and continue in effect orders that are necessary to protect the plaintiff or another individual, as appropriate, until the hearing, at which time the plaintiff may seek a temporary order from the court.
(c) Certification of order to court.–An emergency order issued under this section and any documentation in support thereof shall be immediately certified to the court. The certification to the court shall have the effect of commencing proceedings under section 62A05 (relating to commencement of proceedings) and invoking the other provisions of this chapter. If it is not already alleged in a petition for an emergency order, the plaintiff shall file a verified statement setting forth the reasons for the need for protection at least five days prior to the hearing. Service of the verified statement shall be made subject to section 62A05(d).
(d) Instructions regarding the commencement of proceedings.–Upon issuance of an emergency order, the hearing officer shall provide the plaintiff instructions regarding the commencement of proceedings in the court at the beginning of the next business day and regarding the procedures for initiating a contempt charge should the defendant violate the emergency order. The hearing officer shall also advise the plaintiff of the existence of rape crisis centers in the county or in nearby counties in the case of sexual violence and inform the plaintiff of the availability of legal assistance without cost if the plaintiff is unable to pay for them in the case of sexual violence or intimidation.
(e) Master of emergency relief.–The president judge of a court of common pleas of a judicial district may, with the approval of the Administrative Office of Pennsylvania Courts, provide for the selection and appointment of a master for emergency relief on a full-time or part-time basis. The number of masters for emergency relief shall be fixed by the president judge with the approval of the Administrative Office of Pennsylvania Courts. The compensation of a master for emergency relief shall be fixed and paid by the county.
(a) General rule.–An arrest for a violation of an order issued under this chapter may be without warrant upon probable cause, whether or not the violation is committed in the presence of the police officer or sheriff, in circumstances where the defendant has violated a provision of an order consistent with section 62A07 (relating to relief). The police officer or sheriff may verify the existence of an order by telephone, radio or other electronic communication with the appropriate police department, Pennsylvania State Police registry or issuing authority. A police officer or sheriff shall arrest a defendant for violating an order by a court within the judicial district or issued by a court in another judicial district within this Commonwealth.
(b) Procedure following arrest.–
(1) Subsequent to an arrest, the defendant shall be taken by the police officer or sheriff without unnecessary delay before the court in the judicial district where the contempt is alleged to have occurred.
(2) When that court is unavailable, the police officer or sheriff shall convey the defendant to a magisterial district judge designated as appropriate by local rules of court or, in counties of the first class, to the appropriate hearing officer.
(c) Preliminary arraignment.–The defendant shall be afforded a preliminary arraignment without unnecessary delay.
(d) Other emergency powers unaffected.–This section shall not be construed to in any way limit any of the other powers for emergency relief provided under this chapter.
(e) Hearing.–A hearing shall be scheduled within ten business days of the filing of the charge or complaint of indirect criminal contempt. The hearing and any adjudication shall not preclude a hearing on other criminal charges underlying the contempt, nor shall a hearing or adjudication on other criminal charges preclude a hearing on a charge of indirect criminal contempt.
(a) General rule.–Unless otherwise indicated under this chapter, a proceeding under this chapter shall be in accordance with applicable general rules and shall be in addition to any other available civil or criminal remedies. The plaintiff and the defendant may seek modification of a protection order issued under section 62A07 (relating to relief) at any time during the pendency of the order. Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, modification may be ordered after the filing of a petition for modification, service of the petition and a hearing on the petition.
(b) Remedies for bad faith.–Notwithstanding any other provision of law, upon finding that an individual commenced a proceeding under this chapter in bad faith, a court shall direct the individual to pay to the defendant actual damages and reasonable attorney fees. Failure to prove an allegation of continued risk of harm by a preponderance of the evidence shall not, by itself, result in a finding of bad faith.
(a) Cause of action established.–A person may bring a civil cause of action based upon unlawful dissemination of intimate image, as defined in 18 Pa.C.S. § 3131 (relating to unlawful dissemination of intimate image), in order to recover damages for any loss or injury sustained as a result of the violation.
(b) Parties authorized to bring action.–An action may be brought by a natural person or a guardian of the natural person, if the person is incompetent.
(c) Damages.–A court of competent jurisdiction may award damages as set forth in this subsection. In determining the extent of injury, the court shall consider that dissemination of an intimate image may cause long-term or permanent injury. The court may award:
(1) Actual damages arising from the incident or $500, whichever is greater. Damages include loss of money, reputation or property, whether real or personal. The court may, in its discretion, award up to three times the actual damages sustained, but not less than $500.
(2) Reasonable attorney fees and court costs.
(3) Additional relief the court deems necessary and proper.
(d) Other remedies preserved.–Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the ability of a person to receive restitution under 18 Pa.C.S. § 1106 (relating to restitution for injuries to person or property).
(e) Nonapplicability.–The provisions of this section shall not be applicable to a law enforcement officer engaged in the law enforcement officer’s official duties.
(f) Definition.–As used in this section, the term “law enforcement officer” means any officer of the United States, of the Commonwealth or political subdivision thereof, or of another state or subdivision thereof, who is empowered to conduct investigations of or to make arrests for offenses enumerated in 18 Pa.C.S. (relating to crimes and offenses), or an equivalent crime in another jurisdiction, and any attorney authorized by law to prosecute or participate in the prosecution of such offense.
(a) Restriction on change of custody.–If a petition for change of custody of a child of an eligible servicemember is filed with any court in this Commonwealth while the eligible servicemember is deployed in support of a contingency operation, no court may enter an order modifying or amending any previous judgment or order, or issue a new order, that changes the custody arrangement for that child that existed as of the date of the deployment of the eligible servicemember, except that a court may enter a temporary custody order if it is in the best interest of the child.
(a.1) Temporary assignment to family members.–If an eligible servicemember has received notice of deployment in support of a contingency operation, a court may issue a temporary order to an eligible servicemember who has rights to a child under 23 Pa.C.S. § 5323 (relating to award of custody) or former 23 Pa.C.S. Ch. 53 Subch. A (relating to general provisions), including a temporary order to temporarily assign custody rights to family members of the servicemember. In the case of temporary assignment of rights to family members of the servicemember, the following shall apply:
(1) The servicemember may petition the court for a temporary order to temporarily assign custody rights to family members of the servicemember. The servicemember shall be joined in the petition by the family members to whom the servicemember is seeking to assign temporary custody rights. The petition shall include a proposed revised custody schedule for care of the child by the family members. The proposed revised custody schedule may not include custody rights which exceed the rights granted to a servicemember set forth in the order in effect at the time of the filing of the petition to grant temporary custody rights to family members.
(2) The court may issue a temporary order with a revised custody schedule as proposed by the servicemember and the family members or another revised custody schedule as the court deems appropriate, if the court finds that a temporary assignment of custody rights to family members of the servicemember is in the best interest of the child. In no case shall a temporary order granting custody rights to the family members of a servicemember exceed the custody rights granted to the servicemember set forth in the order in effect at the time of the filing of the petition to assign temporary custody rights to family members.
In the case of any other temporary order issued under this subsection, the court may issue a temporary order if it is in the best interest of the child.
(b) Completion of deployment.–In any temporary custody order entered under subsection (a) or (a.1), a court shall require that, upon the return of the eligible servicemember from deployment in support of a contingency operation, the custody order that was in effect immediately preceding the date of the deployment of the eligible servicemember is reinstated.
(c) Exclusion of military service from determination of child’s best interest.–If a petition for the change of custody of the child of an eligible servicemember who was deployed in support of a contingency operation is filed after the end of the deployment, no court may consider the absence of the eligible servicemember by reason of that deployment in determining the best interest of the child.
(d) Failure to appear due to military deployment.–The failure of an eligible servicemember to appear in court due to deployment in support of a contingency operation shall not, in and of itself, be sufficient to justify a modification of a custody order if the reason for the failure to appear is the eligible servicemember’s active duty in support of a contingency operation.
(e) Relationship to other laws.–Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the provisions of this section shall be applied with regard to child custody issues related to eligible servicemembers deployed in support of contingency operations.
(f) Definitions.–As used in this section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings given to them in this subsection:
“Contingency operation.” A military operation that:
(1) is designated by the Secretary of Defense as an operation in which members of the armed forces are or may become involved in military actions, operations or hostilities against an enemy of the United States or against an opposing military force; or
(2) results in the call or order to, or retention on, active duty of members of the uniformed services under 10 U.S.C. § 688 (relating to retired members: authority to order to active duty; duties), 12301(a) (relating to reserve components generally), 12302 (relating to Ready Reserve), 12304 (relating to Selected Reserve and certain Individual Ready Reserve members; order to active duty other than during war or national emergency), 12305 (relating to authority of President to suspend certain laws relating to promotion, retirement, and separation) or 12406 (relating to National Guard in Federal service: call) or any other provision of 10 U.S.C. during a war or during a national emergency declared by the President or Congress.
“Eligible servicemember.” A member of the Pennsylvania National Guard or a member of an active or reserve component of the Armed Forces of the United States who is serving on active duty, other than active duty for training, for a period of 30 or more consecutive days, in support of a contingency operation.
“Family members.” As defined in 23 Pa.C.S. § 6303 (relating to definitions).
(a) Except as provided in subdivision (b), an action for protection from abuse may be brought in a county in which
(1) the plaintiff resides, either temporarily or permanently, or is employed, or
(2) the defendant may be served, or
(3) the abuse occurred.
(b) If the relief sought includes possession of the residence or household to the exclusion of the defendant, the action shall be brought only in the county in which the residence or household is located.
(c) An action for indirect criminal contempt may be filed in, and heard by, the court in the county in which the order was issued or where the violation occurred.
(a) In cases in which a temporary protection order has not yet been granted or has been denied, a plaintiff in a protection from abuse action who wishes to discontinue the action may file a praecipe to discontinue, pursuant to Pa.R.C.P. 229, prior to the final order hearing. The party may also request the discontinuance by oral motion at a hearing.
(b) In cases in which a temporary protection order has been granted, a plaintiff in a protection from abuse action who wishes to vacate the temporary order and discontinue the action shall either file a petition with the court prior to the final order hearing or make the request by oral motion at the final order hearing.
(c) If either party seeks a modification after a final judgment has been entered in a protection from abuse action, the party shall petition the court to modify the final order. The court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition following an appearance by the petitioner before the court.
(a) An action may be brought in any county
(1)(i) which is the home county of the child at the time of commencement of the proceeding, or
(ii) which had been the child’s home county within six months before commencement of the proceeding and the child is absent from the county but a parent or person acting as parent continues to live in the county; or
(2) when the court of another county does not have venue under subdivision (1), and the child and the child’s parents, or the child and at least one parent or a person acting as a parent, have a significant connection with the county other than mere physical presence and there is available within the county substantial evidence concerning the child’s, protection, training and personal relationships; or
(3) when all counties in which venue is proper pursuant to subdivisions (1) and (2) have found that the court before which the action is pending is the more appropriate forum to determine the custody of the child; or
(4) when it appears that venue would not be proper in any other county under prerequisites substantially in accordance with paragraphs (1), (2) or (3); or
(5) when the child is present in the county and has been abandoned or it is necessary in an emergency to protect the child because the child or a sibling or parent of the child is subjected to or threatened with mistreatment or abuse.
(b) Physical presence of the child or a party, while desirable, is not necessary or sufficient to make a child custody determination except as provided in subdivision (a)(5) above.
(c) The court at any time may transfer an action to the appropriate court of any other county where the action could originally have been brought or could be brought if it determines that it is an inconvenient forum under the circumstances and the court of another county is the more appropriate forum. It shall be the duty of the prothonotary of the court in which the action is pending to forward to the prothonotary of the county to which the action is transferred certified copies of the docket entries, process, pleadings and other papers filed in the action. The costs and fees of the petition for transfer and the removal of the record shall be paid by the petitioner in the first instance to be taxable as costs in the case.
Note: Under the Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act, 23 Pa.C.S.A. § 5401 et seq., the court may decline to exercise its jurisdiction in a particular action despite the action having been brought in a county of proper venue. Section 5426 of the act, relating to simultaneous proceedings in other courts, provides for the mandatory refusal by the court to exercise its jurisdiction in an action. Section 5427 of the act, relating to inconvenient forum, and § 5428 of the act, relating to jurisdiction declined by reason of conduct, provide for the discretionary refusal by the court to exercise its jurisdiction.
(a) Applicability of the Support Guidelines.
(1) Except as provided in subdivision (a)(3), the support guidelines determine a spouse’s or parent’s support obligation based on the parties’ combined monthly net income, as defined in Pa.R.C.P. No. 1910.16-2, and the number of persons being supported.
(2) If a person caring for or having custody of a minor child, who does not have a duty of support to the minor child, initiates a child support action as provided in Pa.R.C.P. No. 1910.3:
(i) the complaint shall name the parents as defendants;
(ii) in determining the basic child support obligation, the monthly net income for the individual initiating the action shall not be considered in the support calculation by the trier-of-fact;
(iii) the parents’ monthly net incomes shall be combined to determine the basic child support obligation, which shall be apportioned based on the parents’ respective monthly net incomes consistent with Pa.R.C.P. No. 1910.16-4. The parents shall pay the obligee their proportionate share of the basic child support obligation as a separate obligor; and
(iv) as with other support actions, the trier-of-fact may adjust or deviate the basic child support, spousal support, or alimony pendente lite obligation consistent with the support guidelines based on the evidence presented by the parties.
Example 1. The parents have one child, who is in the custody of the maternal grandmother. Maternal grandmother initiates a support action against the parents. Mother’s monthly net income is $3,000 and Father’s monthly net income is $2,000 for a combined monthly net income of $5,000. For purposes of the child support calculation, maternal grandmother’s income is irrelevant and not part of the calculation. The basic child support obligation for one child at a combined monthly net income of $5,000 is $993 per month. Mother’s percentage share of the combined monthly net income is 60% ($3,000/$5,000) and Father’s percentage share of the combined monthly net income is 40% ($2,000/$5,000). Mother’s preliminary monthly share of the child support obligation is $596 ($993 x 60%) and Father’s preliminary monthly share of the child support obligation is $397 ($993 x 40%). Maternal grandmother is the obligee with Mother and Father as separate obligors owing $596 and $397, respectively, to the maternal grandmother.
(3) In an action in which the plaintiff is a public body or private agency pursuant to Pa.R.C.P. No. 1910.3, the basic child support obligation shall be calculated under the guidelines based upon the parent’s monthly net income with the public or private entity’s monthly net income as zero. In such cases, each parent shall be treated as a separate obligor, and the parent’s obligation will be based upon the parent’s monthly net income without regard to the other parent’s monthly net income.
(i) The basic child support obligation owed to a child not in placement shall be deducted from each parent’s monthly net income before calculating support for the child in placement, including the direct support the support guidelines assume the custodial parent will provide.
Example 2. The parents have three children and do not live in the same household. Mother has primary custody of two children and monthly net income of $2,500 per month. Father’s monthly net income is $4,000. The parties’ third child is in foster care placement. Pursuant to the schedule in Pa.R.C.P. No. 1910.16-3, the basic child support obligation for the two children with Mother is $1,733. As Father’s income is 62% of the parties’ combined monthly net income, Father’s basic child support obligation to Mother is $1,074 per month. The guidelines assume that Mother will provide $659 per month in direct expenditures to the two children. The agency/obligee brings an action against each parent for the support of the child in placement. Father/obligor’s monthly net income will be $2,926 for purposes of this calculation ($4,000 less $1,074 in support for the children with Mother). As the agency/obligee’s income is zero, Father’s support for the child in placement will be 100% of the basic child support obligation for one child at the $2,926 income level, or $674 per month. Mother/obligor’s net income will be $1,841 for purposes of this calculation ($2,500 less $659 in direct support to the children in Mother’s custody. Mother’s support obligation will be 100% of the basic child support obligation for one child at that income level, or $423 per month.
Example 3. The parents have two children in placement. Father owes child support of $500 per month for two children of a former marriage. At the same income levels as in Example 2, Father’s monthly net income for determining his obligation to the children in placement would be $3,500 ($4,000 less $500 support for two children of prior marriage). Father’s obligation to the agency would be $1,205 per month (100% of the basic child support obligation for two children at the $3,500 per month income level). Mother’s monthly net income would not be diminished as she owes no other child support. Mother would owe $877 for the children in placement (100% of the basic child support obligation for two children at the $2,500 income level).
(ii) If the parents reside in the same household, each parent’s respective basic child support obligation to a child that remains in the household and is not in placement shall be calculated according to the guidelines, with the parent having the higher income as the obligor, and the calculated basic child support obligation shall be deducted from the parents’ monthly net incomes for purposes of calculating support for a child in placement.
Example 4. The parents have four children, two of whom are in placement. Mother’s monthly net income is $4,000 and Father’s is $3,000. The basic child support obligation for the two children in the home is $1,841, according to the schedule in Pa.R.C.P. No. 1910.16-3. As Mother’s monthly net income is 57% of the parties’ combined monthly net income, her share would be $1,049, and Father’s 43% share would be $792. Mother’s monthly net income for purposes of calculating support for the two children in placement would be $2,951 ($4,000 less $1,049). She would pay 100% of the basic child support obligation at that income level, or $1,026, for the children in placement. Father’s monthly net income would be $2,208 ($3,000 less $792), and his obligation to the children in placement would be $772.
(iii) If the basic child support obligation exceeds the placement’s cost, the trier-of-fact shall:
(A) deviate the basic child support obligation downward; and
(B) apply the parent’s percentage of the combined monthly net income to the reduced basic child support obligation.
(4) The support of a spouse or child is a priority obligation so that a party is expected to meet this obligation by adjusting the party’s other expenditures.
(b) Support Obligation. The support obligation (child support, spousal support, or alimony pendente lite) awarded pursuant to the Pa.R.C.P. Nos. 1910.11 and 1910.12 procedures shall be determined in accordance with the support guidelines, which consist of the guidelines expressed as the basic child support schedule in Pa.R.C.P. No. 1910.16-3, the Pa.R.C.P. No. 1910.16-4 formulas, and the operation of the support guidelines as set forth in these rules.
(c) Spousal Support and Alimony Pendente Lite.
(1) Spousal support and alimony pendente lite orders shall not be in effect simultaneously.
(2) In determining a spousal support or alimony pendente lite obligation’s duration, the trier-of-fact shall consider the marriage’s duration, i.e., the date of marriage to the date of final separation.
(d) Rebuttable Presumption. If the trier-of-fact determines that a party has a duty to pay support, there is a rebuttable presumption that the guideline-calculated support obligation is the correct support obligation.
(1) The presumption is rebutted if the trier-of-fact concludes in a written finding or states on the record that the guideline support obligation is unjust or inappropriate.
(2) The trier-of-fact shall consider the child’s and parties’ special needs and obligations, and apply the Pa.R.C.P. No. 1910.16-5 deviation factors, as appropriate.
(e) Support Guidelines Review. The support guidelines shall be reviewed at least every four years to ensure that their application determines the appropriate support obligation.
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